An Lac Secondary School THE FIRST MID TERM TEST ENGLISH 6 The Supervisor''''s signature Paper No Class Date 2022 2023 No Code Student''''s name TIME ALLOWED 60 MINS The Examiner''''s remark Scores The Examiner[.]
An Lac Secondary School Class : Student's name : …………………………………… The Examiner's remark THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST ENGLISH Date : … 2022-2023 The Supervisor's signature Paper No : No Code : TIME ALLOWED : 60 MINS Scores The Examiner's signature Paper No : No Code : I Pronunciation and stress: A Choose the word having different stress pattern: (0.5pt) A garage B apartment C garden D laundry A drama B activity C author D novel B Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest (0.5pt) A cooks B plays C fights D sleeps A magic B acting C fantasy D island II Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence or answer the questions (3.0 pts) Our apartment is on the third and it does not have a good view A floor B balcony C basement D yard I learned about poets like To Hoai, To Huu and Tran Dang Khoa in my class A biology B math C literature D physics Can you please help me _? The clothes are dirty A clean the house B sweep the floor C the laundry D plant the trees This is a between you and me Don’t tell anyone about it A secret B mystery C fantasy D adventure _ you spell your name? – J-A-S-O-N A Why B Where C How D When 10 I don’t like _ in this part of town I want to move somewhere else A living B live C to live D lives 11 Danny blue eyes and blond hair A is having B have C is D has 12 My grandmother usually early to go jogging around the park A gets up B got up C get up D will get up 13 My family moved to Ho Chi Minh City 2013 A in B on C at D between 14.Peter takes care _ her younger sister when his parents are away A to B of C about D on 15 A: “What subject you like??”- B: “ _” A I like Math and English B He does the laundry C There is one D I love my hometown 16 Trang: Why don’t you sign up for the drama club? Linh: _ A.Yes, of course B Great idea C No, thanks D I’d love to III Choose the best answer for traffic signs (0.5 pt) 17 A a head only B No entry C no turn right D No U-turn 18 A Don’t go out C Don’t touch B Don’t cut D Don’t litter IV Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in the following passage: (2.0 pts) Jane comes from the USA She (19) with her family in a village It’s very peaceful (20) _ quiet Her family (21) very friendly and helpful Her father works on a (22) site and her mother works in a hotel Jane (23) _to school in the morning and she plays (24) her friends in the afternoon In the evening, she cleans (25) room and does her homework She goes to bed (26) _ 10 p.m 19 A lives B live C don’t lives D does live 20 A or B and C so D because 21 A are B was C is D did 22 A worker B hospital C school D construction 23 A go B gone C don’t go D goes 24 A of B to C with D at 25 A hers B she C her D his 26 A to B at C on D behind V Read the passage: True & False (1.5 pts) Stephenie Meyer is an American writer who is famous for the Twilight book series She was born in 1973 in Connecticut, USA She studied English literature at Brigham Young University Stephenie started writing the Twilight series after a dream about a young girl falling in love with a vampire She spent three months writing the first book – Twilight The book was successful and she became a popular name all over the world 27 Stephenie Meyer is an American artist 28 She’s an author of the “Twilight” novels 29 It took her three years to write her first book – Twilight 30 The book wasn’t successful 31 What does she do? A writer B doctor C dentist D poetry 32 Her dream was about a young girl with a vampire A fantastic B dislike C hate D falling in love VI Supply the correct tenses of verbs or word forms (1.0 pt) 33 As a great _of Vietnamese people, Uncle Ho led a very simple life (lead) 34 I don’t have any subjects at school ( favor) 35.She _tired now.( be ) 36.Ngan often to music ( listen ) VII Rearrange these words to make complete sentences (0.5 pt) 37 / the evening / by taxi / She / in / comes home // → She _ 38 / sign up for ? / / Which club / want to / you // → Which ? VIII Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with words given (0.5 pt) 39 John is friendly and generous ( Make question ) → What ? 40 I like reading book →I am fond of THE END ANSWER KEYS I Pronunciation and stress: A Choose the word having different stress pattern: (0.5pt) A garage B apartment C garden D laundry A drama B activity C author D novel B Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest (0.5pt) A cooks B plays C fights D sleeps A magic B acting C fantasy D island II Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence or answer the questions (3.0 pts) Our apartment is on the third and it does not have a good view A floor B balcony C basement D yard I learned about poets like To Hoai, To Huu and Tran Dang Khoa in my class A biology B math C literature D physics Can you please help me _? The clothes are dirty A clean the house B sweep the floor C the laundry D plant the trees This is a between you and me Don’t tell anyone about it A secret B mystery C fantasy D adventure _ you spell your name? – J-A-S-O-N A Why B Where C How D When 10 I don’t like _ in this part of town I want to move somewhere else A living B live C to live D lives 11 Danny blue eyes and blond hair A is having B have C is D has 12 My grandmother usually early to go jogging around the park A gets up B got up C get up D will get up 13 My family moved to Ho Chi Minh City 2013 A in B on C at D between 14.Peter takes care _ her younger sister when his parents are away A to B of C about D on 15 A: “What subject you like??”- B: “ _” A I like Math and English B He does the laundry C There is one D I love my hometown 16 Trang: Why don’t you sign up for the drama club? Linh: _ A.Yes, of course B Great idea C No, thanks D I’d love to III Choose the best answer for traffic signs (0.5 pt) 17.A a head only B No entry C no turn right D No U-turn 18.A Don’t go out C Don’t touch B Don’t cut D Don’t litter IV Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in the following passage: (2.0 pts) Jane comes from the USA She (19) with her family in a village It’s very peaceful (20) _ quiet Her family (21) very friendly and helpful Her father works on a (22) site and her mother works in a hotel Jane (23) _to school in the morning and she plays (24) her friends in the afternoon In the evening, she cleans (25) room and does her homework She goes to bed (26) _ 10 p.m 19 A lives B live C don’t lives D does live 20 A or B and C so D because 21 A are B was C is D did 22 A worker B hospital C school D construction 23 A go B gone C don’t go D goes 24 A of B to C with D at 25 A hers B she C her D his 26 A to B at C on D behind V Read the passage: True & False (1.5 pts) Stephenie Meyer is an American writer who is famous for the Twilight book series She was born in 1973 in Connecticut, USA She studied English literature at Brigham Young University Stephenie started writing the Twilight series after a dream about a young girl falling in love with a vampire She spent three months writing the first book – Twilight The book was successful and she became a popular name all over the world 27 Stephenie Meyer is an American artist False 28 She’s an author of the “Twilight” novels True 29 It took her three years to write her first book – Twilight False 30 The book wasn’t successful False 31 What does she do? A writer B doctor C dentist D poetry 32 Her dream was about a young girl with a vampire A fantastic B dislike C hate D falling in love VI Supply the correct tenses of verbs or word forms (1pt) 33 As a great leader of Vietnamese people, Uncle Ho led a very simple life (lead) 34 He is very friendly 35.She is tired now.( be ) 36.Ngan often listens to music VII Rearrange these words to make complete sentences (0.5 pt) 37 /the evening / by taxi / She / in / comes home / → She come home in the evening by taxi 38 / sign up for ? / /Which club / want to/ you / → Which club you want to sign up for? VIII Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with words given (0.5 pt) 39 John is friendly and generous ( Make question ) What is John like? 40 I like reading book →I am fond of reading book MATRIX – THE FIRST MID -TERM - 60 MINUTES - ENGLISH SCHOOL: AN LAC SECONDARY SCHOOL CLASS/ STUDENTS' LEVEL: COURSE BOOK AND UNIT RANGE: ENGLISH 6, FROM UNIT TO NUMBER OF STUDENTS: 48 Ss PER CLASS Test objectives: Students are able to master what they have learned from Unit to Unit including vocabulary, grammar points, structures so on Language area/skills: o Structures / grammar: + Simple Present + “and” and “or” for positive and negative statement + Simple continuous + Like/love/ enjoy + Ving + Possesive Pronoun + Word form + Tense or form of verb + Preposition o Reading skill: Scan for specific information + Fill the correct word in the blank (multiple choice) + True/False o Writing skill: + Rearrange + Make question with the given words + Rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings Timing: 60 minutes Number of test items: 40 Scoring scheme: 10 Questions Tested aspects/ areas Score Weight 1-4 Pronunciation (4x 0.25) 1.0 10% 5-16 Language/speaking (12x 0.25) 3.0 30% 17-18 Sign (2x 0.25) 0.5 5% 19- 26 Cloze reading (8x 0.25) 2.0 20% 27- 32 Reading: True/ False + main idea (6x 0.25) 1.5 15% 33-36 Word form (language) 1.0 10% Verb tenses (4x 0.25) 37-38 Rearranging (2x 0.25) 0.5 5% 39-40 Transformation (2x 0.25) 0.5 5% Table of test specifications (Matrix) Knowledge Ord I objectives Writing Pronunciation Multiple choice ( options) II III IV MC comprehensi on Application Writin g Writing Reading (Fill in the blank) 1 Writin MC g 2 Reading (True/Flase, main passage) VI Word form VII Rearrange VIII Transformatio n 1 Content 13 Weight 1.0 = 10% 3.0 = 30% 0,5 = 5% V Q M C Signs Total MC Analysis, Synthesis Areas 1 2.0 = 20% 1.5 = 15% 1.0 = 10% 0.5 = 5% 0.5 = 5% 10,0 = 100% Objectives Task Stress Unit Comprehension MC Stress Unit Comprehension MC Sound Unit Comprehension MC Sound Unit Comprehension MC Vocabulary Unit Application MC Vocabulary Unit Comprehension MC Vocabulary Unit Analysis MC Vocabulary Unit Knowledge MC Wh -question Unit Comprehension MC 10 Verb Unit Comprehension MC 11 Verb Unit Knowledge MC 12 Verb Unit Analysis MC 13 Preposition Unit Analysis MC 14 Preposition Unit Knowledge MC 15 Speaking Unit Application MC 16 Speaking Unit Application MC 17 Public sign Knowledge MC 18 Public sign Knowledge MC 19 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Application MC 20 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Comprehension MC 21 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Application MC 22 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Knowledge MC 23 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Application MC 24 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Comprehension MC 25 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Application MC 26 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Knowledge MC 27 Reading: True / False task Unit Knowledge T/F 28 Reading: True / False task Unit Knowledge T/F 29 Reading: True / False task Unit Comprehension T/F 30 Reading: True / False task Unit Comprehension T/F 31 Reading: Choose the best answer Unit Comprehension MC 32 Reading: Choose the best answer Unit Comprehension MC 33 Word form Unit Application RW 34 Word form Unit Application RW 35 Word form Unit Application RW 36 Word form Unit Application RW 37 Rearrangement Unit Application RW 38 Rearrangement Unit Application RW 39 Make a question Unit Analysis RW 40 Transformation Unit Application RW ... specifications (Matrix) Knowledge Ord I objectives Writing Pronunciation Multiple choice ( options) II III IV MC comprehensi on Application Writin g Writing Reading (Fill in the blank) 1 Writin... (multiple choice) + True/False o Writing skill: + Rearrange + Make question with the given words + Rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings Timing: 60 minutes Number of test items:... Preposition Unit Knowledge MC 15 Speaking Unit Application MC 16 Speaking Unit Application MC 17 Public sign Knowledge MC 18 Public sign Knowledge MC 19 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit Application