Tải Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp huyện môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017-2018 - Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 9

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Tải Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp huyện môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017-2018 - Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 9

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At least Ben’s hobby has been good for our health: whenever the band start practicing, my husband and I go out for a long walk.. And I must admit that, although their music may sound a l[r]

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PHÒNG DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Năm học: 2017-2018

Khóa ngày: 27/ 01/ 2018 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 9

(Đề thi gồm có trang) Thời gian: 150 phút (khơng kể thời gian phát đề) LƯU Ý: THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI TRÊN PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI (ANSWER SHEET),

KHÔNG LÀM BÀI TRỰC TIẾP LÊN ĐỀ THI NÀY PART 1: LISTENING (5 POINTS)

I PART 2: You will hear an interview with a woman called Rachel who is talking about the shows she puts on for children For questions 1-4, choose the best answer Listen to the recording TWICE (2.0 points)

1 Before her children were born, Rachel worked as A an art teacher.

B a painter. C an actor.

2 Who first thought of doing a show at a party? A Rachel’s husband.

B Rachel’s children. C Rachel’s parents.

3 Rachel’s neighbor, Lena, helps by A making some dolls for the shows. B performing in the shows.

C writing the music for the shows. 4 When Rachel did a play about a lion

A the children laughed too much. B the children were frightened. C the children’s parents complained.

II PART 3: You will hear a woman talking on the radio about an exhibition of food and cooking For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space (3.0 points)

The Good Food Show At the Capital Exhibition Centre At the show, you can

- buy Jane Adams’ new book about making (5) - get advice about buying (6)

- watch how to cook a lunch just with (7) - learn how to make a dessert in less than (8) - taste food from many different countries – the food from

(9) is specially recommended. The show finishes on (10)

PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5 POINTS) I Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tenses (2 points) Dear sir

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I (11) (write) ……… to you three weeks ago, asking about conditions of entry into your college You replied, (12) (enclose) ……… an enrolment form, which I (13) (fill up) ……… and returned without delay Since then, however, I (14) (hear) ……… nothing and I begin to wonder if my application (15) (go) ……… astray You please (16) (check) ……… that you have received it and if you haven’t, please send me another enrolment form If, on the other hands, you have received my application but (17) (not decide) ……… whether to accept me as a student or not, I (18) (be) ……… very grateful if you would tell me when I may expect to hear your decision Finally, if my application (19) (already / be)……… refused, I would like to be informed as soon as possible because if I not get into your college I (20) (have) ……… to apply to another and the sooner I this, the better chance I have of being accepted

Yours faithfully P Smith

II Fill in each blank with an appropriate preposition (2 points)

21 Paul was ashamed ……… himself after his unfair attack on his friend 22 Let’s agree ……… the best way to solve this problem

23 John was angry ……… Ann’s attitude towards the children 24 Sheila was anxious ……… her impending French test

25 You must take all the tablets if you are to benefit ……… them 26 My teeth are very sensitive ……… cold things such as ice-cream 27 Carrots are rich ……… vitamin A

28 Sally was able to sympathise ……… my situation as she’d been through something similar before

29 I had to lean ……… the wall as I felt as if I was going to faint 30 The relationship ……… a mother and her baby is a very special one III Fill in the correct word derived from the words in bold (1 point)

31 Trains run ………… throughout the day FREQUENT

32 We picked a ……… spot to sit and have our picnic SCENE 33 They use very ……… machinery in this factory SOPHISTICATE 34 The company’s ……… of shoes has doubled in the past year PRODUCE

35 The new equipment they have ordered is ……… advanced TECHNOLOGY

PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION (5 POINTS)

I Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (2.5 points) ROCK BAND

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playing computer games in my free time,” Ben argued, “ and it’ll keep me out of trouble ” In the end we gave in “ All right,” we said, “ but you must consider the rest of the family and the neighbours when you play.”

That was just the beginning Because drums are not the easiest instruments to transport, the other members of Ben’s band started appearing at our home with their guitars and other electrical equipment And so, for several hours a week, the house shakes to the noise of their instruments and their teenage singing

At least Ben’s hobby has been good for our health: whenever the band start practicing, my husband and I go out for a long walk And I must admit that, although their music may sound a little strange, they are a friendly and polite group of young men I cannot judge their musical skill – after all I didn’t expect my parents’ generation to like the same music as I did when I was a teenager – but they play regularly in local clubs for young people

Our main worry is that they won’t spend enough time on their school work because of their musical activities, though this hasn’t happened yet I am always stressing to Ben how important his studies are But one thing is certain – Ben was right: it has kept him out of trouble and he is never bored

36 What is the writer trying to in this text? A. complain about her son’s friends

B. give advice to teenagers C. describe her son’s hobby

D. compare herself with her parents

37 Why did the writer give Ben the present he wanted? A. She wanted to reward him for working hard

B. He already had too many computer games C. She knew he would use it sensibly

D. He persuaded her it would be a good idea

38 Why the band always practice at Ben’s house? A. It is difficult for Ben to move his drums

B. The neighbours don’t mind the noise C. Ben’s parents enjoy listening to them D. They can leave their equipment there

39 What does the writer say about the band members? A. Their influence on her son worries her

B. Their taste in music is different from hers C. They play their instruments well

D. They avoid any contact with her

40 What might the writer say to her son ?

A. Your teacher has just phoned He wants to know why you weren’t at school today B. When are you playing at the club next? Dad and I would love to come along again

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D Are you sure you’ve finished your homework? It’s more important than band practice. II Read the text and choose the correct word (A,B,C OR D) (2.5 points)

Grass

Grass is probably the (0) most successful living plant in the world There are over 9,000 different types of grasses and they are (41) ……… in every region on the earth They are the (42) ……… flowering plants that can exist in the freezing (43) ……… of the Arctic and the Antarctic

Grasslands support a wide range of animal life, from tiny insects and birds to huge animals like cows and lions All of them (44) ……… on grass in one way or another

Grass (45) ……… very quickly after it is cut or (46) ……… Unlike other plants, the new leaves grow from (47) ……… The soil, not from the top of the plant That is (48) ……… large families of animals are able to live together in one area As (49)

……… As they have eaten all the grass there, a fresh meal is always (50) ……… Because the plants start to grow again

0 A most B more C very D too

41 A noticed B realised C caught D found

42 A single B one C only D special

43 A environment B scene C situation D background

44 A depend B build C turn D hang

45 A repeats B recovers C reduces D remains

46 A hurt B broken C injured D damaged

47 A beside B behind C below D beyond

48 A why B where C what D when

49 A fast B soon C quickly D often

50 A available b present C free D complete

PART 4: WRITING (5 POINTS) I Sentence transformation (2.5 points)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN You must use between two and five words, including the word given There is an example at the beginning (0)

Write only the missing word on the separate answer sheet Example:

0 My brother is too young to drive a car (not)

My brother drive a car The gap can be filled by the words “ is not old enough to ” so you write:

0 is not old enough to

51 Finding suitable accommodation might be difficult (find) It suitable accommodation

52 In my opinion, the problem has happened for two reasons (are) In my opinion, this problem has happened 53 You’re going too fast for me (keep)

I you!

54 I haven’t seen my brother since he left for Australia ( last)

The my brother was before he left for Australia 55 The price of the holiday includes the cost of insurance (is)

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56 You ought get your bicycle brakes repaired immediately (better)

You your bicycle brakes repaired immediately 57 I would prefer it if nobody else knew what happened last night (want)

I don’t what happened last night 58 They couldn’t understand the lecturer because she spoke so fast (too) The lecturer spoke understand 59 I didn’t know it was your birthday, so I didn’t sent you a card (sent)

If I’d known it was your birthday, I you a card. 60 Teenagers aren’t buying as many pop records these days (bought)

Not so many pop records these days

II Read the text and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word (2.5 points) THE LONDON UNDERGROUND

In 1863, the first underground passenger railway (0) in the world opened in London Called the Metropolitan, (61) ran for just under seven kilometres and allowed people (62) avoid the terrible crowds on the roads above as (63) travelled to and from work It took three years to complete and (64) built using an interesting method This involved digging up the road, laying the track and then building (65) strong roof over the top When all (66) had been done, the road surface was replaced

Steam engines were used to pull the carriages and it must (67) been fairly unpleasant (68) the passengers, with all the smoke and noise However, the railway quickly proved to (69) a great success and within six months more (70) 25,000 people were using it every day

THE END

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