30 bài tập đọc HIỂU (225 câu ) từ đề cô HƯƠNG FIONA image marked image marked

A Well-known Biologist ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each o

descend 30 to 40 feet, but some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.

Scuba diving provides greater range than free diving The word scuba stands for self-contained

underwater breathing apparatus Scuba divers wear metal tanks with compressed air or other breathing gases When using open-circuit equipment, a scuba diver simply breathes air form the tank through a hose and releases the exhaled air into the water A closed-circuit breathing device, also called a rebreather,

filters out carbon dioxide and other harmful gases and automatically adds oxygen This enables the diver

to breathe the same air over and over In surface-supplied diving, divers wear helmets and waterproof canvas suits Today, sophiticated plastic helmets have replaced the heavy copper helmets used in the past.These divers get their air from a hose connected to compressors on a boat Surface-supplied divers can go deeper than any other type of ambient diver

Question 1 Ambient divers are ones who _

A can descend to extreme depths B use submersible vehicles

C use no equipment D are exposed to the surrounding water

Question 2 According to the passage, a free diver may use any of the following EXCEPT

Question 3 According to the passage, the maximum depth for free divers is around

Question 4 When using closed-circuit devices, divers

A exhale air into the water B hold their breath

C breathe the same air over and over D receive air from the surface

Question 5 What does the word "descend" in the paragraph probably mean?

A move to a lower level B climb to a higher place

Question 6 The word "This" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to _.

A filtering out carbon dioxide B adding oxygen

C exhaling air into the water D filtering out harmful gases and adding oxygen Question 7 What are the helmets that surface-supplied divers use today made from, according to the

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

Indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them

The Earth has three main parts They are the crust, the mantle, and the core The crust is the outer layer of the Earth

It is not a single piece of land Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates There are a few enormous

plates and many smaller ones These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid As a result, the plates are in constant - yet slow - motion The plates may move away from or toward other plates In

some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them The movement of the plates causes

tension in the rock Over a long time, this tension may build up When it is released, an earthquake

happens.Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year The vast majority are so small that only

scientific instruments can perceive them Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they

cause little harm or damage More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse They may additionally injure and skill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change it appearance

Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet's oceans Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move This results in the displacement of water in the ocean When this occurs, a tsunami may form This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousnads of kilometres As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea This causes the tsunamis to increase in height Minutes later, the tsunami arrives A large tsunami - one more than ten meters in height - can travel far inland As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people

Question 8 Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?

A A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.

B The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.

C Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.

D Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.

Question 9 The word “it ” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to _.

A The core B The crust C The Earth D The mantle

Question 10 What is the passage mainly about?

A When earthquakes are the most likely to happen.

B What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.

C How earthquakes and tsunamis occur.

D Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.

Question 11 The word "adjoining" in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _.

Question 12 The word "perceivee" in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

Question 13 Which of the following is true regarding the crust?

A It is the smallest of the Earth's three layers

B It is thicker on land than it is under the water.

C There many separate pieces that make it up

D The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.

Question 14 Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?

A They kill more people each year than earthquakes.

B They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.

C They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.

D They can be deadly to people standing near shore.

Question 15 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?

A How severe the majority of them are B What kind of damage they can cause

C How often powerful ones take place D How many people they typically kill

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 3:Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each

of the following questions.

In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of the human population In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled, from just under 2 billion at the beginning of the century to nearly 7 billion today In addition, the average person uses more energy and natural resources than the average person one hundred years ago, meaning that the rates of

consumption are actually much higher than just the increase in population would imply For example, it

took the world 125 years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil The next trillion barrels will be used in less than 30 years, which is almost 5 times as fast, not three

All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources, contribute to

climate change in some way The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create energy release chemicals which add to global warming In order to produce more food, farmers cut down trees to gain more land fortheir fields In addition, we cut down trees to build the houses needed for a larger

population Those trees are an essential part of controlling global warming; others are too numerous to

mention

In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher standard

of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources

A look at one country will provide a clear example of this fact China is the world's most populous nation, with 1.3 billion people Currently, the standard of living for most of those people is far below that of people in first world nations Therefore, the average Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the average citizen of the US or Japan But China is growing in power, and more of its citizens are beginning to expect a first world lifestyle If every Chinese person attains a first world

lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard

of living in every other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today

Question 16 How many years did it take the world years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil?

Question 17 The word "consumption" in the passage is closest in meaning to .

Question 18 According to the passage, which of these activities Does NOT contribute to climate change in some way?

C wild animals hunting D natural resources consumption

Question 19 According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?

A Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.

B Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.

C Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.

D Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.

Question 20 The word "others" in the passage refers to .

A problems of global warming in the modern world

B examples of the environmental consequences of population growth

C ways in which our usage of oil will affect the world climate.

D the reasons why trees are essential in controlling global warming

Question 21 According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?

A Higher standards of living are better for the environment.

B First world nations create less population than developing nations.

C The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.

D High standards of living lead to increases in world population.

Question 22 Why does the author discuss China, Japan, and the United States?

A To compare the standard of their citizens.

B To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation.

C To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living.

D To explain why the world's use of energy will need to double soon.

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 4:Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the following questions.

Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration While this

is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building's history As a result of this new

restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built

Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the hall never sounded the same afterwards

In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate

developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site

This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to buy the property The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee shop Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more promising

Question 23 This passage is mainly about _.

A changes to Carnegie Hall

B the appearance of Carnegie Hall

C Carnegie Hall's history during the Great Depression

D damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall

Question 24 The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to .

A Carnegie Hall

B New York City

C a restoration.

D a plan

Question 25 What major change happened to the hall in 1946?

A The acoustic dome was damaged.

B Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.

C The walls were damaged in an earthquake.

D The stage was renovated.

Question 26 Who was Andrew Carnegie?

A A violinist.

B An architect.

C A steel mill owner.

D Mayor of New York City.

Question 27 What was Isaac Stern's relationship to Carnegie Hall?

A He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.

B He performed on opening night in 1891.

C He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.

D He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.

Question 28 What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?

A Restoring the outer wall.

B Expanding the lobby.

C Restoring the plaster trim.

D Repairing the ceiling.

Question 29 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "unveiled" in paragraph 3?

Question 30 How does the author seem to feel about the future of Carnegie Hall?

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin - a

behavioural biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not givesleeping the importance it deserves

Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep We are now a 24/7 society where shops and

services must be available all hours We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time

getting to work Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV

and the Internet tempt us away from our beds When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas

research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a half hours' sleep to feel at their best Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost

permanent state of 'sleep debt'

Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of daylight People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall But nowadays our hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by

an alarm clock During the day caffeine, the world's most popular drug, helps to keep us awake 75% of

the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep

deprivation

What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work This has serious implications for society in general Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on 'night call', and may get less than three hours' sleep Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability

to take decisions Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with

catastrophic results On our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year Tests

show that a tired driver can be just as dangerous as a drunken driver However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when exhausted isn't As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night

New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP

Question 31: The phrase "round the clock" in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to _.

A surrounded with clocks B all day and night

Question 32: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as _.

A a temptation that prevents us from sleeping

B an easy solution to sleep deprivation

C an ineffective means of communication

D a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation

Question 33: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

A Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.

B The sun obviously determined our daily routines.

C The electric light was invented in the 19th century

D The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.

Question 34: The word "which" in the third paragraph refers to .

C the world's population D caffeine consumption

Question 35: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?

A Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.

B Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.

C There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.

D We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.

Question 36: All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by 'sleep debt' EXCEPT .

Question 37: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A Accident Prevention: Urgent! B Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects

C A Society of Sleepless People D A Well-known Biologist

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

choose the best answer for each of the question

American movies create myths about college life in the United States These stories are entertaining, but they are not true You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like

Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library Instead, movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties While it is true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard

Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity In fact, there is a wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater programs This variety allows students to choose what interests them Even more important, after

graduation, students' résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.

Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education If only this were true! While it is true

that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes Up to

80% of them get some type of financial aid Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time throughout their college years There is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies They have parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives

Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements Of course, real college students are not like movie characters at all

So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies Look at some

college websites or brochures instead Take a walk around your local college campus Visit a few classes True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you!

Question 38 Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A American students do not like to watch Hollywood movies.

B You should see college movies to understand college life.

C American colleges in the movies are not like those in reality.

D Movies about college life are similar to life and fun to watch.

Question 39 Which of the following is NOT true?

A There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students.

B Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.

C Not all extracurricular activities are students' academic responsibilities.

D Learning is not only part of students' college life.

Question 40 The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to .

Question 41 The word "moderate" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to " ".

Question 42 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A Most college students' families are not well-off.

B All college students have to work part-time.

C It is important for students to get higher education.

D Most students in the movies can afford college expenses.

Question 43 American parents believe in

A the necessity of higher education in their children's lives

B the quality of their children's college lives

C.the extracurricular activities that help ensure their children's jobs

D how movie-makers describe American college life

Question 44 Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years

A they are not allowed to work full-time B their parents force them to

C they can earn money for their expenses D they want to gain experience

Question 45 Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities

B American College Life and the Movies

C Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life

D Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Paul Watson is an environmental activist He is a man who believes that he must do something, not just talk about doing something Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in

controversial ways Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much Other people

think that he is a criminal

On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd

Watson and the people who work on the Sea Shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portugal However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra The Sea Shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea The Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada Paul Watson and his workers thought that they had been successful

The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally The captain and crew of the Sierra did not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling Instead, they killed as many whales as they

could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it is

Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra However, the commission did very little, and Paul became impatient He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling ships in any way that he could He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship, and he sank the Sierra He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected Still, he acted without the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial

Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist Other men and women are also fighting to protect the Earth Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like Watson, they have become impatient Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to protect it

(Adapted from "Eco fighters"by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)

Question 46: According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who _

A runs into whaling ship B does something to protect the Earth

C talks about protecting endangered species D is a hero, like Paul Watson

Question 47: When something is “controversial”,

A everyone agrees with it B everyone disagrees with it

C people have different ideas about it D people protect it

Question 48: The main idea of paragraph one is that .

A Paul Watson is a hero to some people.

B activists are people who do something.

C Paul Watson is a controversial environmental activist.

D Paul Watson does not believe in talking.

Question 49: The Sea Shepherd was hunting

A the Atlantic Ocean B whales C the Sierra D Portugal

Question 50: The author implies that Paul Watson lives in

A Portugal B a ship on the Atlantic C the Sierra D Canada

Question 51: In paragraph 3, the phrase “and froze it” refers to .

A whale meat B the Sierra C whales D the Sierra crew Question 52: The main idea of paragraph three is that _

A the Sierra sold whale meat in some countries

B the people on the Sierra did not obey international laws

C the people on the Sierra killed as many whales as they could

D whaling is illegal according to international law.

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

choose the best answer for each of the question

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of Earth - is a vast

frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep Totally

without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the

void of outer space.

Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning ofthe National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP) Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a

steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and

rock from the ocean floor

The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in

November 1983 During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future Today, largely on

the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists

agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth

The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back

hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the

intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change -

information that may be used to predict future climates

Question 53 The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it _

A is not a popular area for scientific research

B contains a wide variety of life forms

C attracts courageous explorers

D is an unknown territory

Question 54 The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to _.

A unrecognizable B unreachable C unusable D unsafe

Question 55 The author mentions “outer space” because _.

A the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.

B it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.

C rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.

D techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration Question 56 Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?

A It is a type of submarine B It is an ongoing project.

C It has gone on over 100 voyages D It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

Question 57 The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was .

A an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

B the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

C composed of geologists from all over the world

D funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

Question 58 The word “they” refers _.

Question 59 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

B Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.

D Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

Question 60 How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term "social class" In everyday life, people tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with

people they consider higher or lower than themselves in social scale The criteria we use to 'place' a new

acquaintance, however, are a complex mixture of factors Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a given city or province, education and manners all play a part

In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphrates valley

from 2000 to 5000 B.C social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth Four

main classes were recognized These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as craftsmen, merchants or farmers) and the slaves.

In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of 'middle class' of traders and skilled workers grew up The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes which were politically and legally distinct About one-third of the total population was slaves, who did not count politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy The next main group consisted of resident foreigners, the, 'metics' who were freemen, though they too were allowed no share in political life The third group was the powerful body of 'citizens", who were themselves divided into sub-classes

In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and trade led to the rise of another class, the 'burghers' or city merchants and mayors These were the

predecessors of the modern middle classes Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in

determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life

to move to another This change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of feudalism lasted much longer

Question 61: According to the passage, we evaluate other people's social position by _.

A questioning them in great details

B their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors

C finding out how much their salary is

D the kind of job they do

Question 62: The word "criteria" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A characteristics B words C standards of judgment D criticisms

Question 63: The word “which” in the paragraph 2 refers to

A ancient civilizations B Sumerian C example D Euphrates valley Question 64: The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C

A caused international conflicts in the area

B coincided with the rise of a new "middle class" of traders and peasants

C was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves

D lasted for only a short time

Question 65: Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy _.

A even though slaves were allowed to vote

B because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct.

C in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labor

D because even very young children could vote

Question 66: The word "predecessors" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _.

Question 67: The passage is mainly about .

A the human history

B the modern society

C the division of social classes in the ancient world

D the social life in ancient Greece

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question

The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States since 1900 On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the "horseless carriages." It was the opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to a large crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as a sales

extravaganza It was also on the first day of this show that William McKinley became the first U.S president to ride in a car

The automobile was not invented in the United States That distinction belongs to Germany Nicolaus Otto built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876 Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in the mid-1880s But the United States pioneered the merchandising of the automobile The auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public excited about automotive products

By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of

the United States at that time In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages provided the prime means of personal transportation Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered The rest ran on steam or electricity

After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show's audience favored electric cars because they

were quiet The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from steamers, and the gasoline-powered cars produced smelly fumes The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that it burned Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome - the Gasmobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel None of them was equipped with an automatic starter

These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable They were basically toys of the well-to-do In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later

President of the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford But before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford The Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a streamlined method of production – the assembly line Its lower costs made it available to the mass market

Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from $1,000 to $1,500, or roughly $14,000 to $21,000 in today’s prices By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than $300, and soon the price would drop even further

“I will build cars for the multitudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise

Question 68 The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show primarily as a(n) _

A formal social occasion.

B chance to buy automobiles at low prices

C opportunity to learn how to drive

D chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers

Question 69 According to the passage, who developed the first modern car?

A Karl Benz B Nikolaus Otto C William McKinley D Henry Ford

Question 70 Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900?

Question 71 The phrase "by happenstance" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _.

Question 72 The word "they" in the paragraph 2 refers to _.

Question 73 Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline

powered?

Question 74 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather than with a steering wheel?

Question 75 What was the highest price asked for a car at the 1900 National Automobile Show in the dollars of that time?

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological

diversity The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to

recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction In most situations, the result is irreversible Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by

significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of

evolution

Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred The extinction

of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to

biological devastation Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments

Question 76: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The variety of species found in tropical rain forests

B The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs

C The time required for species to adapt to new environments

D The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems

Question 77: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to

Question 78: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s ecosystems EXCEPT

A damage to marine ecosystems B habitat destruction in wetlands

C the introduction of new varieties of plant species D destruction of the tropical rain forests

Question 79: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in paragraph 2 to emphasize that

A not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity

B actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction

C Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’ extinction

D the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown

Question 80: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans _

A affect fewer ecosystems B are occurring at a much faster rate

C are reversible D are less devastating to most species

Question 81: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to _

C other types of activities D poisonous waste

Question 82: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?

A The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress

B Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems

C Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy

D Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question

Of all the aspirations which make up the American Dream, perhaps the most prominent is to own one’s own home Americans are very proud of their homes and spend a great deal of time maintaining their

houses and keeping the property in good condition A man's home is often called his castle, and the hours

spent keeping his fortress safe and secure become one of his greatest pleasures

If a home is in an especially fashionable neighborhood, the owners may consult an interior decorator to give the home a certain coordinated appearance If there is a large back yard, great care may be spent in having it properly landscaped with exotic trees, shrubs and plants

It is almost a certainty that you should be the first visitor to an American home, you will be taken on a grand tour of the premises The owner will take great pride in showing to you the place he calls home

Every closet, every cabinet and closed door will be opened so that you can actually see the extent and value of his home

You will even be taken into the father's den and the mother's sewing room These are special rooms for the respective man and woman of the house to insure their privacy They may be off-limits to the rest of the family but, for the visitor they are open to scrutiny and inspection

It is, of course, considered polite on the tour to comment favorably on each room picking out its most salient, important feature, such as the special view from the window, the vaulted ceiling in the foyer or the exotic choice of wallpaper in the bathroom

The finished basement is a special cause for pride for the family with its exercise room, video games, carpenter shop and launderette In most homes it is here that the family entertains itself in the evening while the rest of the house becomes more of a showcase On your tour you may be reminded of the hours the owners had spent "fixing up the house" so it would be "nice for the kids to bring over their friends"

You may even sense a feeling of competition in knowing that they have not only "kept up with the Joneses" but also have far surpassed them

The tour will terminate after an hour or so somewhere on the back lawn next to the two-car

air-conditioned garage where you may be treated to a snack and light refreshment

Showing off one's home is more than an exercise in vanity It is a tribute to one's accomplishment It is a way of saying that a man has been a good provider for his family and that he has realized one of his dreams

Question 83 What is considered the biggest reachable dream for most Americans?

A To be president of the United States of America

B To be rich and famous for fifteen minutes

C To be a movie or rock star

D To own one's own house

Question 84 What is often called “castle” for many Americans?

A One's own home B Mc Donald's C Disneyland D The White House Question 85 If a man lives in a good neighborhood, who may be consulted to fix up the appearance

of the home?

A An architect B A house designer C An interior decorator D One's mother-in-law Question 86 If it is your first visit to an American home, what will the owner probably do?

A Ask you for a gift B Ask you if you like the house

C Treat you to coffee and refreshment D Give you a grand tour of his home

Question 87 What is considered polite behavior if you are taken on a grand tour of someone's home?

A To praise everything you see B To listen carefully to everything that is said

C To comment favorably on each room D To be careful not to break anything

Question 88 What is the purpose of a finished basement?

A It is used as a family recreation room B It is used as a storage room

C It is a place to watch TV D It is a sound-proofed room for the kids

Question 89 What is meant by "keep up with the Joneses"?

A It means to be a good neighbor

B It means to earn as much as you can

C It means to make one's home look better than one's neighbors

D It means to remain competitive with one's neighbor

Question 90 What is the ultimate purpose in showing off one’s home to friends?

A To show off one’s wealth B It’s a tribute to one’s accomplishments

C To impress one’s neighbors D To show that you are richer than your friends ( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used grow

larger Those parts that are not tend to wither away It is an observed fact that when you exercise

particular muscles, they grow Those that are never used diminish By examining a man’s body, we can

tell which muscles he uses and which he does not We may even be able to guess his profession or his recreation Enthusiasts of the ‘body-building’ cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to ‘build’ their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind

of way Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank

teller by looking at their hands alone The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough

work The teller’s hands are relatively soft

The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the

particular local conditions Too much sunlight is dangerous Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins

are susceptible to skin cancer Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency The

brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is This

can be represented as an instance of the principle of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is “used’, and fades to white when it is not

Question 91: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves

B The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion

C The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse

D The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse

Question 92: The word ‘Those’ in line 3 refers to _

Question 93: According to the passage, men who body build _

A appear like sculptures B change their appearance

C belong to strange cults D are very fashionable

Question 94: From the passage, it can be inferred that the author views body building _

C with scientific interest D of doubtful benefit

Question 95: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables

organisms to _

A change their existence B automatically benefit

C better survive in their conditions D improve their lifetime

Question 96: The author suggests that melanin _

A is necessary for the production of vitamin-D B is beneficial in sunless climates

C helps protect fair-skinned people D is a synthetic product

Question 97: The word ‘susceptible’ could be best replaced by _

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 7 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question

MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?

We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach We use them to convey our most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services

Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new

mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them

Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to

friendship to work

The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity This is partly because mobiles are seen

as being beyond the control of parents But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that

mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming shyness The impact of phones,

however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than

opening users to a new broader community Even the language of texting in one area can be

incomprehensible to anybody from another area

Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments There are many possibilities At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive In future, these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time Third generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors In Britain, scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack

Mobile phones can be used in education A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones

to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues

Question 95 What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones?

A We are worried about using them so much

B We have contradictory feelings about them

C We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life

D We cannot live without them

Question 99 What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?

Question 100 What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?

A Mobile phones make romantic communication easier

B Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around

C Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones

D Mobile phones encourage people to make friends

Question 101 Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?

A They are more inclined to be late than older people

B They feel independent when they use them

C They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations.

D They use text messages more than any other group

Question 102 Which of the following is NOT true?

A People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them uncomfortable

B There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones

C Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters

D Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life

Question 103 In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?

A People tend to communicate with people they already know

B Users generally phone people who live in the same neighbourhood

C It depends on local dialects

D The phone networks use different systems

Question 104 The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because

A it shows them how to avoid road works

B it can suggest the best way to get to a place

C it tells them which roads are congested

D it provides directions orally

Question 105 Where is this passage most likely to appear?

A fashion magazine B school bulletin C technical magazine D advertising section ( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 7 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both

popularity and production with more than 5 million tons of tea produced annually Although much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share

According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the

U.S population on any given day Black tea or green tea - iced, spiced, or instant - tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar business with major tea producers in Africa and South America and throughout Asia

Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia sinensis, which grows tall and lush in tropical regions On tea plantations, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new

buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand Even in today’s world of modern agricultural

machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked This new growth produces the highest quality tea

After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to 20 hours Next, depending on the type of tea being produced, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then fermented under controlled conditions of heat and humidity For green tea, the whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin to darken After

fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color

No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage, was discovered

in 2737 B.C by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from a Camellia dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over a fire As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and

proclaimed the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing Though this account cannot be documented,

it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other parts of Asia, then to Europe, and ultimately to America colonies around 1650

With about half the caffeine content as coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce, but not

necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and

therefore easier on the stomach Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer Institute published its findings on the antioxidant properties of tea But whether tea is enjoyed for its perceived health benefits, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the world’s most popular beverage

Question 106: Why does the author include statistics on the amount of tea produced, sold and consumed?

A To show the expense of processing such a large quantity of tea

B To explain why coffee is not the most popular beverage worldwide

C To demonstrate tea’s popularity

D To impress the reader with factual sounding information

Question 107: Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?

A It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery

B It is no longer done in China

C The method has remained nearly the same for a long time

D The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant

Question 108: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to?

A Tea pickers B New buds C Evergreen plants D Tropical regions Question 109: According to the passage, what is true about the origin of tea drinking?

A It began during the Shen Nung dynasty

B It may have begun sometime around 1650

C It is unknown when tea first became popular

D It was originally produced from Camellia plants in Europe

Question 110: The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the

following word?

Question 111: According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to drink tea instead of coffee?

A Because it’s easier to digest than coffee

B Because it has a higher nutritional content than coffee

C Because it helps prevent cancer

D Because it has more caffeine than coffee

Question 112: What best describes the topic of this passage?

A Tea consumption and production B The two most popular types of tea

C The benefits of tea consumption worldwide D How tea is produced and brewed

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 8– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 16:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question

In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed In 1869 the Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house, was built on East Eighteenth Street The building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris Each man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economic and social potential of this Parisian housing form But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success In spite of Hunt’s inviting facade, the living place was awkwardly arranged

Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes,

leaving the Stuyvesant to young married couple and bachelors

The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly

followed, in the late 1870’s and early 1880’s, was that they were confined to the typical New York

building lot That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep - a shape perfectly suited for a row house The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses

So while the city’s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and hotels began to sprout on multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints In the closing decades

of the nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting the developed portions of New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement of row house building lots From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses on the newly created Park Avenue, right next to the

fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area

Question 113 The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to

A single-family homes B apartment buildings C row houses D hotels

Question 114 Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?

A The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient

B Most people could not afford to live there

C There were no shopping areas nearby

D It was in a crowded neighborhood

Question 115 The word “sumptuous” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

Question 116 It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’s first

apartments were

Question 117 The word “they” in the passage refers to

A fundamental problems B the Stuyvesant

C modern apartment buildings D early apartment buildings

Question 118 It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A Its room arrangement was not logical B It was rectangular

C It was spacious inside D It had limited light

Question 119 Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1880’s?

A Large families needed housing with sufficient space

B Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses

C The city officials of “New York wanted housing that was centrally located

D The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs

Question 120 The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in paragraph 3 because

A they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings

B their design is similar to that of row houses

C they were built on a single building lot

D they are famous hotels

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 8– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

They call Jamaica the "Island in the sun" and that is my memory of it Of sunshine, warmth and abundant fruit that was growing everywhere, and of love There were two sisters ahead of me in the family, and though of course I didn't know it, there was an exciting talk of emigration, possibly to Canada but more usually to England, the land of opportunity I guess that plans were already being made when I was born, for a year or so later my Dad left for London Two years after that my mum went as well and my sisters and I were left in the care of my grandmother

Emigrating to better yourself was a dream for most Jamaicans, a dream many were determined to fulfill Families were close and grandmothers were an important part of the family So, when the mass

emigrations began, it seemed perfectly right and natural for them to take over the running of families left behind

Grandmothers are often strict, but usually also spoil you She ran the family like a military operation: each of us, no matter how young, had our tasks Every morning, before we went to school, we all had to take a bucket appropriate to our size and run a relay from the communal tap to the barrels until they are full My sisters had to sweep the yard before they went to school My grandmother would give orders to

the eldest and these were passed down- as I got older I found this particularly annoying! But I can tell

you, no one avoided their duties

My Dad came over from England to see how we were getting on He talked to us about the new country, about snow, about the huge city, and we all wanted to know more, to see what it was like I didn't know it

at that time., but he had come to prepare us for the move to England Six months later my grandmother told me that I was going to join my parents and that she, too, was emigrating

London was strange and disappointing There was no gold on the pavements, as the stories in Jaimaica had indicated The roads were busy, the buildings were grey and dull, with many tall, high-rise blocks It was totally unlike Jamaica, the houses all small and packed close together In my grandmother's house I had a big bedroom, here I had to share

Then came the biggest shock: snow While flakes came out of the sky and Dad smiled, pointed and said:

"That's snow!" I rushed outside, looked up and opened my mouth to let the flakes drop in The snow settled on my tongue and it was so cold that I cried My toes lost all feeling As my shoes and socks got

wet and frozen, there came an excruciating pain and I cried with the intensity of it I didn't know what

was happening to me

Question 121: The writer says that when he was very young

A he was upset because his parents left B he was very keen to go to England

C his parents had decided to leave D his parents changed their plans

Question 122: According to the writer, many people from Jamaica at that time

A wanted to be free from responsibility B wanted to improve their standard of living

C had ambitions that were unrealistic D dislike the country they came from

Question 123: What does "this" in the third paragraph refer to?

A being told what to do by his sisters B having to sweep the yard before school

C having to do duties he found difficult D being given orders by his grandmother

Question 124: What happened when the writer's father came?

A His father didn't tell him why he had come B He didn't know how to react to his father

C His father told him things that were untrue D He felt eager about what his father told him Question 125: When the writer first went to London, he was disappointed because

A it was smaller than he expected B he had been given a false impression of it

C he had to spend a lot of time on his own D his new surroundings frightened him

Question 126: The word "excruciating" in the last paragraph means

A painful B rather painful C extremely painful D painless

Question 127: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A From Sun to Snow B A strange childhood C Hard times D Too many changes ( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 9– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 18:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question

Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South when the Civil War ended About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and

reabsorbed by the devastated economy

Civil government also had to be put back on a peacetime basis and interference from the military had to

be stopped The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be

undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly Industries had to adjust to peacetime conditions; factories had to be retooled for civilian needs

Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South The national debt had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the war started, to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the year the war ended This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent government could pay At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to less burdensome levels

Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states, had to be repaired This Herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness

Other important questions needed answering What would be the future of the four million Black people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the Union? What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of these leaders,

Jefferson Davis, president of the Southern Confederacy, was the subject of an insulting popular Northern song, “Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree,” and even children sang it Davis was temporarily

chained in his prison cell during the early days of his two-year imprisonment But he and the other

Southern leaders were finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern

Confederate state, would convict them All the leaders were finally pardoned by President Johnson in

1868 in an effort to help reconstruction efforts proceed with as little bitterness as possible

Question 128 What does the passage mainly discuss?

A Wartime expenditures

B Problems facing the United States after the war

C Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war

D The results of government efforts to revive the economy

Question 129 The word “devastated” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

Question 130 According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is correct?

A It was worse than in the North B The cost was less than expected

C It was centered in the border states D It was remedied rather quickly

Question 131 The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT

A helping soldiers readjust B restructuring industry

C returning government to normal D increasing taxes

Question 132 Why does the author mention a popular song?

A To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South

B To illustrate the Northern love of music

C To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South

D To compare the Northern and Southern presidents

Question 133 The word “them” in line 20 refers to

Question 134 Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase “…it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them”?

A Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis

B A popular song insulted Virginia

C Virginians were loyal to their leaders

D All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains

Question 135 It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order to _

A raise money for the North

B repair the physical damage in the South

C prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners

D help the nation recover from the war

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 9– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 19: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer the

comprehension questions

Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over

conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated Advocates of organic foods - a

term whose meaning varies greatly - frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North

American diet is a welcome development However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping

claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction As a result, claims that eating

a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits

to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like

One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic

foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular

food supply and buy only expensive organic foods instead

Question 136 The “welcome development” mentioned in line 6 is an increase in

A interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans

B the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

C the amount of healthy food grown in North America

D the number of consumers in North America

Question 137 According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term

“organic foods”?

A It is accepted by most nutritionists B It has been used only in recent years

C It has no fixed meaning D It is seldom used by consumers

Question 138 The word “maintain” has closest meaning with

Question 139 The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because

A organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods

B many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

C conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

D too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops

Question 140 According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often

Question 141 The word “those” stands for ?

Question 142 What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by supporters of health foods?

A Very enthusiastic B Somewhat favorable C Neutral D Skeptical

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 10– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 20:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture

as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment In addition to their

sophisticated technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any

nonagricultural people in the world

In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging

peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch

Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore They

collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, mussels, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while

remaining close to their children The maritime life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by the men Of particular importance for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men Of particular made from the larger mussel shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells

The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men

They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter They sun-dried fish when

practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish and other seafood annually Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils

After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily

transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of fresh fish or while on long trips The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves

Question 143 Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the passage mainly discuss?

A Methods of food preservation B How diet was restricted by the environment

C The contributions of women to the food supply D Difficulties in establishing successful farms Question 144 The word “attained” in line 3 is closest in meaning to _

Question 145 It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples is _

A more complex than that of hunters and foragers

B less efficient than that of hunters and foragers

C more widespread than that of hunters and foragers

D better documented than that of hunters and foragers

Question 146 According to the passage, what is true of the “division of labor” mentioned in line 5?

A It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast

B It rarely existed among hunting

C It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other

peoples

D It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples

Question 147 All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they

A were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish

B contributed more materials for tool making than the men did

C sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast

D prepared and preserved the fish

Question 148 The word “They” in line 16 refers to _

Question 149 The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to _

A store utensils used in food preparation B prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling

C have a place to store fish and shellfis D prepare elaborate meal

Question 150 All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT that it was _

C useful on long journeys D made in a short period of time

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 10– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 21: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the following questions

All mammals feed their young Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for some twenty months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their own food The behavior of feeding of the young is built into the reproductive system It is a nonselective part of parental care and the defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing that mammals whether marsupials, platypuses, spiny anteaters, or placental mammals have in common

But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of hatching or birth, feed their young Most egg-guarding fish do not, for the simple reason that their young are so much smaller

than the parents and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by adults In reptiles, the crocodile mother protects her young after they have hatched and takes them down to the water, where they will find food, but she does not actually feed them Few insects feed their young after hatching, but some make other arrangement, provisioning their cells and nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh food when they hatch

For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care Animals add it to

their reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants The most

vulnerable moment in any animal's life is when it first finds itself completely on its own, when it must forage and fend for itself Feeding postpones that moment until a young animal has grown to such a size

that it is better able to cope Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater fraction of their full adult size And in the meantime those young are shielded against the

vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find supplies Once a species does take the step of feeding its young, the young become totally dependent on the extra effort If both parents are removed, the young generally

do not survive

Question 151 What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The care that various animals give to their offspring

B The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food

C The methods that mammals use to nurse their young

D The importance among young mammals of becoming independent

Question 152 What can be inferred from the passage about the practice of animal parents feeding their young?

A It is unknown among fish B It is unrelated to the size of the young

C It is dangerous for the parents D It is most common among mammals

Question 153 The author lists various animals in line 5 to

A contrast the feeding habits of different types of mammals

B describe the process by which mammals came to be defined

C emphasize the point that every type of mammal feeds its own young

D explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonselective

Question 154 According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?

A By storing food near their young

B By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars

C By searching for food some distance from their nest

D By gathering food from a nearby water source

Question 155 The word "it" in line 20 refers to

Question 156 According to the passage, animal young are most defenseless when

A their parents are away searching for food

B their parents have many young to feed

C they are only a few days old

D they first become independent

Question 157 The word "shielded" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 11– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 22:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about those moods People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled

by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions

Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance As

Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner

Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us

when we feel anxious

Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent For instance, you might think that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to

manage them However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to

them - to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign

meaning to those feelings predict differences in the ability to manage them In other words, if two

individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also

be better able to manage the anger

Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and pursue

worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."

Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a child's success in school The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be "far superior as students" when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes

Question 158: Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?

A Some people can understand their feelings better than others

B People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.

C If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them

D If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better

Question 159: The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by

Question 160: According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that they can

A manage their emotions appropriately B stop feeling angry

C experience feelings more intensively D explain their emotions to others

Question 161: From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman

A trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence

B treated patients who had emotional problems

C wrote about Emotional Intelligence

D studied how people manage their emotions

Question 162: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT

A every feeling is important B we can manage our emotions

C emotions are part of a satisfying life D we should ignore some feelings

Question 163: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to

A psychologists B individuals C individual differences D intense emotions Question 164: In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions by

A describing how people learn to control their emotions

B giving an example of why people get angry

C comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion

D explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions

Question 165: According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses because they can

A easily understand new information B be more popular with their teachers

C have more friends at school D focus on their work and not get distracted

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 11– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 23: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greek The one most widely accepted today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from ritual The argument for this view goes as follows In the beginning human beings viewed the natural forces of the world, even the seasonal

changes, as unpredictable, and they sought, through various means, to control these unknown and feared

powers Those measures which appeared to bring the desired results were then retained and repeated until they hardened into fixed rituals Eventually stories arose which explained or veiled the mysteries of the rites As time passed some rituals were abandoned, but the stories, later called myths, persisted and

provided material for art and drama

Those who believed that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites contained the seed of theatre because music, dance, masks, and costumes were almost always used Furthermore, a suitable site had to be provided for performances, and when the entire community did not participate, a clear division was usually made between the “acting area” and “auditorium” In addition, there were performers, and

since considerable importance was attached to avoiding mistakes in the enactment of rites Religious leaders usually assumed that task Wearing masks and costumes, they often impersonated other people,

animals, or supernatural beings, and mimed the desired effectsuccess in hunt or battle, the coming rain, the revival of the Sun-as an actor might Eventually such dramatic representations were separated from religious activities

Another theory traces the theatre’s origin from the human interest in storytelling According to this view, tales (about the hunt, war, or other feats) are gradually elaborated, at first through the use of

impersonation, action, and dialogue by a narrator and then through the assumption of each of the roles by

a different person A closely related theory traces theatre to those dances that are primarily rhythmical and gymnastic or that are imitations of animal movements and sound

Question 166: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The origins of theatre B The variety of early religious activities.

C the role of ritual in modern dance D The importance of storytelling

Question 167: What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?

A The connection between myths and dramatic plots

B The seasons in which dramas were performed

C The importance of costumes in early drama

D The reason drama is often unpredictable

Question 168: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theatre and

ritual?

Question 169: The word “considerable” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _.

Question 170: The word “they” in line 13 refers to _.

Question 171: According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama?

A Ritual requires fewer performers than drama.

B Ritual use music whereas drama does not.

C Ritual is shorter than drama.

D Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not.

Question 172: The passage supports which of the following statements?

A Myths are longer represented dramatically B No one really knows how the theatre began.

C Storytelling is an important part of dance D Dramatic activities require the use of costume ( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 12– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 24:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one Work

influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live Here are just

a few of the factors to consider

Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision You may want to begin by

assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses Think about the classes, hobbies, and

surroundings that you find most appealing Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you Determine which job features you

require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept Then rank them in order of

importance to you

The setting of the job is one factor to take into account You may not want to sit at a desk all day If not, there are diversity occupations – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions

of the country If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission

Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it Some industries evoke positive or negative

associations The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.

Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are

less obvious Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be

as highly paid as some doctors Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities The choice you make today need not be your final one

Question 173: The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _.

A emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.

B show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.

C indicate that the answers are not really important.

D indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.

Question 174: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _.

Question 175: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _.

A discovering B considering C measuring D disposing

Question 176: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city?

Question 177: Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job EXCEPT A.Your likes and your dislikes B The atmosphere at work

C Geographical location D Your strengths and weaknesses

Question 178: In paragraph 4, the author suggests that

A you may want to change careers at some time in the future.

B as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.

C you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.

D you will probably jobless at some time in the future.

Question179: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?

A To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.

B To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.

C To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.

D To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.

Question 180: According to the passage, which of the following is true?

A To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.

B To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.

C If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.

D Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 12– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

Exercise 25: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Millions of people are using cell phones today In many places, it is actually considered unusual not

to use one In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people They find that the phones are more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and

connected

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue Mobile phone companies are

worried about the negative publicity of such ideas They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are

bad for your health

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss

He couldn't remember even simple tasks He would often forget the name of his own son This man used

to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation High–tech

machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about