ĐỀ HSG LỚP 9 QUẢNG NAM

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ĐỀ HSG LỚP 9 QUẢNG NAM

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2010 – 2011 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 01/04/2011 SỐ BÁO DANH HỌ, TÊN VÀ CHỮ KÝ Giám thị 1: Giám thị 2: Họ và tên học sinh: …………………… Ngày sinh: ……………………… ….… Nơi sinh:……………………… … Nam/nữ Học sinh trường THCS….… …… …… Huyện/Thành phố: ……………… …… MÃ PHÁCH (Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm ghi) ………………. Chú ý: - Đề này gồm 8 trang. Được đánh số thứ tự từ 3 – 10. Các thí sinh kiểm tra cẩn thận số trang trong đề thi trước khi làm bài. - Thí sinh hoàn thành các thông tin cá nhân vào phần trên nhưng không được làm bài vào phần dưới của trang giấy này vì đây là phần phách. - Bài thi không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết bằng hai thứ mực. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì trong khi làm bài. - Trái với các quy định trên, thí sinh sẽ bị loại. 1 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 TOÀN TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 01/04/2011 Số phách: ( Do Chủ tịch HĐCT ghi) Đề này gồm 8 trang. Được đánh số thứ tự từ 3 – 10. Các thí sinh kiểm tra cẩn thận số trang trong đề thi trước khi làm bài. Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi này ……………………………. PHẦN DÀNH CHO GIÁM KHẢO SECTION ONE Listening (3đ) Số câu đúng Điểm tổng cộng Q. 1 (0,8đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 2 (1,2 đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 3 (1đ).0,2đ/ câu SECTION TWO Grammar and Vocab (8 đ) Q. 1 (3,2đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 2 (1,6đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 3 (1,6đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 4 (1,6 đ). 0,2đ/ câu SECTION THREE Reading (4đ) Q. 1 (1 đ). 0, 2đ/ câu Q. 2 (1đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 3 (2 đ). 0,2đ/ câu SECTION FOUR Writing (5đ) Q. 1 (1.4 đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 2 (1.6 đ). 0,2đ/ câu Q. 3 (2 đ). Tổng điểm Điểm ghi bằng chữ: ………………………………. Chữ ký GK 1 ……………………… ; Chữ ký GK 2: ………………………………… 2 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC SECTION ONE: LISTENING (3pts) Question 1: Listen and number the places (1 - 4) in the order they plan to visit them. You will hear the tape twice.(0.8pts) Arc de Triomphe Louvre Museum Eiffel Tower Notre Dame Cathedral Question 2: Listen and complete the information on the form. You will hear the tape twice. (1.2pts) Question 3: Listen to the conversation and circle TRUE (T) or FALSE (F) for the following statements. You will hear the tape twice. Statement True False 1. The front door needs to be repaired. T F 2. The apartment has a good view of the ocean. T F 3. There’s a gym in the apartment building. T F 4. There’s a shopping center nearly. T F 5. The second bedroom is spacious. T F SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (8 pts) Question 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. (3.2pts) 1. Which of the following words is stressed on the first syllable? A. entertain B. determine C. harbour D. interrupt 2.When the company has to close because of the economic difficulties, he becomes…… A. inconsiderable B. redundant C. deliberate D. unsatisfactory 3. She hardly ever went there,………………? A. didn’t she B. did she C. did not she D. does she 4. Susan couldn’t help…………………when I told her the joke. A. laughing B. laugh C. to laugh D. laughed 5. Martin,……………….you have never met before, is a genius in painting. A. that B. whose C. whom D. whomever 3 Missing Baggage Details Flight number: (1) ___________ From: (2) _________ Passenger name: Mr./Ms. (3)__________________________________ Number of bags: (4)_____ Phone:(5) _____________ Local address:(6) _____________________________ ____________________________________________ 6. On November 5, a lot of firework is…………… off in London. A. set B. gone C. sent D. burned 7. Children have to…………………respect to their parents and teachers. A. take B. show C. feel D. express 8. I was named…………………….a wealthy relative of my Mom’s. A. to B. as C. in on D. after 9. Either John or his brothers…………………….the key to the car. A. have taking B. have taken C. has taken D. has been taken 10. I can’t remember her number. Could you look it …………………… in the phone book for me? A. for B. up C. at D. after 11. She ……………………down and stared at the ceiling. A. lie B. laid C. lay D. lain 12. Helen is the……………………….of the two sisters. A. more kinder B. kindest C. kinder D. most kindest 13. We decided to leave …………………… dawn in order to get there before midday. A. on B. in C. at D. from 14. My parents saw me……………………….at the railway station. A. on B. to C. off D. of 15. Which of the following words has the underlined part pronounced differently? A.account B.thought C. mount D. bound 16. Had I found a wallet in the street, I…………………… it to the police. A. will take B. would take C. had taken D. would have taken 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. Question 2: Supply the correct TENSE of the verbs in brackets to complete the passage. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1.6pts) AT THE DENTIST I was on time for my dentist’s appointment, but the dentist was still busy with another patient, so I (0)……sat……….(sit) in the waiting room and read some of the old magazines lying there. While I (1) ………… (wonder) whether to leave and come back another day, I (2) ………… (notice) a magazine article about teeth. It began: “How long it (3) ………… (be) since you last (4) ………… (go) to the dentist? Do you go regularly every six months? Or (5) ………… you (put) off your visit for the last six years?” Next to the article was a cartoon of a man in a dentist chair. The dentist (6) ………… (say) : “I’m afraid this (7) ………… (hurt)”. I suddenly realized that my tooth (8) ………… (stop) aching. 1. 5. 4 2. 6. 3. 7. 4. 8. Question 3: For questions 1-8, each line has ONE incorrect word. Find out and write these words in numbered space. (0) has been done as an example.(1.6pts) EXERCISE Exercise is one of the best ways of keeping depression away. It improves your body and your mind and enables you to performing 0. performing better in the work place and at home. Properly breathing is essential if you want to get the most from exercise 1…………… and you should also take into consideration your heart rate. It can be harmful to do too much, that is why all good fitness instructors 2…………… emphasizing the importance of “listening to your body”. 3…………… When you firstly start you should use good judgment, because it’s 4…………… easy to make the mistake of using the equipment incorrectly or do 5…………… too much at one time. Start slowly and build up gradually. Exercise should not be seen as a demanded task; it can be easy as a 6…………… quick walk. To increase your fitness steadily, exercising for 20 minutes 7…………… a day, 4 to 6 times a week or you will notice a difference in your body 8…………… and mind in a few weeks. Question 4: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. DRESS CODE UK companies have received (0)………….(CRITIC) from a business forum for what their report refers to as a rather narrow- minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a case in which a male (1)…… (EMPLOY) working in the post room of a large (2)………… (ORGANIZE) in the United Kingdom received a (3)……… (SUSPEND) for wearing jeans to work. While the report accepts that there is need for people dealing with customers to look well dressed, it questions whether employees who work behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (4) ………… (COMPARE) between the UK and other European nations where employers seem (5) ………… (CONCERN) about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the office. 0. criticism 1. ____________ 2. ____________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ____________ 5 Their (6)……… (ARGUE) is based on research that claims workers are far more (7)……… (PRODUCT) when they have the (8) ………… (FREE) to dress in a way that they feel the most comfortable in. 6. ___________ 7. ____________ 8. ____________ SECTION THREE: READING (4 pts) Question 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions from 1 to 5.Write your answer in the numbered box. (1pt) PLANET EARTH The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of time because it has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify the idea to make it more understandable. We can compare the planet Earth to a person of forty six years of age. Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person’s life. Very little information exists about the middle period either. It was only at the age of forty-two that the Earth began to flower. Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago, when the planet was forty-five. Mammals only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man-like apes became ape-like men and began to communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth. Modern man has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered agriculture. The industrial Revolution and the rise of large cities began just sixty seconds ago. During that short time, modern man has made a rubbish tip of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his numbers to terrible proportions, and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals. He has robbed and destroyed the planet in his search for fuels. Now he stands, like a violent, spoilt child, delighted at the speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which exists in the solar system. 1. The passage tells us that A. a great deal is known about how the Earth was created. B. life on Earth began relatively recently. C. more is known about the first part of the Earth’s life than the middle part. D. scientists are well-informed about the middle part of the Earth’s life. 2. We are informed by the author that A. the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period. B. mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time. C. there was more than forty-five kinds of great reptiles. D. ape-like men appeared before the last Ice Age. 3. The author is mainly interested in 6 A. the time when man first evolved from apes. B. what has happened since the Industrial Revolution. C. the effects of farming. D. the period before the last Ice Age. 4. It would appear that the main danger ahead is that A. man will destroy everything on Earth B. man will use up all the fuels. C. there will be a population explosion D. more species of animal may die out. 5. The author’s general view of man seems to be that A. he has no right to be so destructive. B. he has been the most successful animal. C. he will be able to control the environment. D. he has learned a lot from past mistakes. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 2: Read the text below. Choose the sentence (A - F) that summarizes each part (1-5). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1pt) 1. Newspapers in Japan recently reported that standard tests show that the average Japanese teenager is “significantly weaker than the average teenager forty years ago”. Almost exactly at the same time newspapers in English carried similar stories about the identical age-group in Britain. 2. In both countries, the same four things were identified as the causes. The first was too much television. The second was too much convenience food and the third was not enough exercise. However, the fouth cause – computer games- was the focus of more comment in Britain than Japan. 3. One London newspaper reported that a boy of 12 had become so obsessed with various computer games that he stole from his parents and his schoolmates in order to buy more. This is not the only such case. The head of a primary school recently claimed that many of the children at his school steal each other’s lunch money for the same reason. A. There is a link between computer games and crime. B. The brain can be affected, too. C. Weight problems are another result. D. Playing computer games can actually hurt you. E. Why are younger people getting weaker? F. The health of teenagers causes concern in two countries. 7 4. Dr Leonora Keller, a health expert, said that many children play these games with such enthusiasm that they suffer from “Space Warrior’s Wrist”. The muscles of the lower arm become inflamed as a result of repeated movements of the wrist and constant pressure on the computer control stick. This also causes other aches and pains in their elbows and shoulders as well as strange sore on their hands. 5. Dr Keller has also found that children who spend a lot of time playing electronic games have a tendency to be fatter than those who do not. She said that “for some reason these children tend to eat more sugar and fat” and that “many of them get too little exercise to burn up these things.” 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 3: Read the text below and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box. ( 2pts) Van Mieu (Temple of Literature) was built in 1070 as a dedication (1)…………. the founder of Confucianism. Six years later, Quoc Tu Giam- the first (2)………… of Viet Nam- was established on the (3) ………………… of Van Mieu. At first, only the members of the royal family could (4) ……………. Quoc Tu Giam, but later it was (5) ……………. to all talented sons of the mandarins in the country. In 1482, King LeThanh Ton ordered the erection of stelae with inscription of the (6) ……………, birthdates, birthplaces and achievements of the doctors and other excellent graduates (7) …………… took part in examinations since 1442. Each stele is placed on the back of a (8) …………… representing the nation’s longevity. In the Nguyen Dynasty Quoc Tu Giam was (9) …………. to Phu Xuan (Hue Royal City). Nowadays, Van Mieu - Quoc Tu Giam is a famous historical and cultural (10) ……………. in Viet Nam. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. SECTION FOUR: WRITING (5 pts) Question 1: Make meaningful sentences, using the suggested words.(1.4pts) Example: Andrea/ get along very well/ new job. Answer: Andrea is getting along very well in her new job 1. of all/ hotels/ town/ the Queen Hotel/ comfortable. ……………………………………………………………… 2. heavy rain/ prevent/ paint/ the gate/ their house. …………………………………………………………………… 3. wearing uniforms/ encourage/ students/ proud/ students/ their school/. ……………………………………………………………………………. 4.the stands/ being/ fill/ by/ spectators/ when/ we/ arrive. 5. I/ learn/ little/ French/ my stay/ Paris/ last year. 8 6. there/ be /no bread/ left/ so/ I/ go/ baker/ get/ some. 7. secretary/ already/ type/ letters/ by/ time/ boss/ return. Question 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between TWO and FIVE words, including the word given.(0) has been done as an example. (1.6pts) 0. You must do exactly what the manager tells you. CARRY You must …………………………… instructions exactly. The answer: CARRY OUT THE MANAGER’S 1. Although the weather changed, the picnic went ahead as planned. SPITE The picnic went ahead as planned ……………… ……………………. in the weather. 2. John impressed his new boss by settling down to work quickly. GOOD John ………………………………….… his new boss by settling down to work quickly. 3. You must show your student card as you enter the library. REQUIRED You …………………………………………… … student card as you enter the library. 4. On business trips, I prefer driving home to staying in a hotel overnight. RATHER On business trips, I’d ………………………… …………………… in a hotel overnight. 5. Sara knew that her brother had to leave by 5 o’clock. NECESSARY Sara knew that ……………………………………….her brother to leave by 5 o’clock. 6. “I’m sorry I behaved so badly,” said George. APOLOGISED George …………………………………………………… … so badly. 7. “We really don’t need to leave early,” said Elena. POINT “There’s really …………………………………………….…… early,” said Elena. 8. The staff in that office all have great respect for their boss. LOOK The staff in that office all ………………………………………………… their boss. Question 3: “Many teachers assign homework to students everyday. Do you think that daily homework is necessary for students?” Write a composition (120 -150 words), using specific reasons and details to support your answer.(2pts) 9 …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ***** The End ***** 10 . bị loại. 1 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 TOÀN TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi:. SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2010 – 2011 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 01/04/2011 SỐ. Quoc Tu Giam was (9) …………. to Phu Xuan (Hue Royal City). Nowadays, Van Mieu - Quoc Tu Giam is a famous historical and cultural (10) ……………. in Viet Nam. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. SECTION FOUR:

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Mục lục

  • PHẦN DÀNH CHO GIÁM KHẢO

  • Grammar and Vocab (8 đ)

  • SECTION ONE: LISTENING (3pts)

  • SECTION THREE: READING (4 pts)

  • “Many teachers assign homework to students everyday. Do you think that daily homework is necessary for students?”

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