Tiếng Anh cho bài thi chuẩn hóa VSTEP 35 GUIDE TO VSTEP (ULIS VNU) + có đáp án. Các dạng đề thi VSTEP mức 35 và hướng dẫn làm bài, tài liệu do trường đại học ngoại ngữ đại học quốc gia hà nội biên soạn năm 2022.
ULIS-VNU FLE A COLLECTION OF PROFICIENCY TESTS (FOR INTERNAL USE) HANOI 2022 PRACTICE TEST PAPER 1: READING (60 minutes) Directions: In this section of the test, you will read THREE different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it For questions 1-30, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage You have 50 minutes to answer all the questions, including the transfer time to the answer sheet PASSAGE - Questions 1-10 Phil Morston It was the classic scenario really My girlfriend didn't want to go travelling I did, so I went on my own I remember sitting in the plane thinking to myself: 'What have I let myself in for?' Then the first few days in Australia were scary: I was all on my own, with nothing planned, and on the other side of the world I worried much about travelling solo for long time [A] Of course, some you get on with and others you don't, but there's always someone to travel with Some of them had planned every day of every week, though In practice, things can change and it's great to have the freedom to go with the flow And that's easy enough to For example, you can take the Oz Experience bus down the west coast, jumping off whenever you want, then catching the next bus when you're ready to move on again Being away for a year, you occasionally get lonely, so I'd sit down and write a fortnightly email home about everything I'd been up to, and that really cheered me up Leila Stuart Without doubt, you meet all sorts of people when you travel alone I even made a friend on the plane out to Australia Some people are keener to make friends than others, of course, but if someone's chosen to the same type of trip as you, you've probably got lots of ideas in common The advantages of a pre-planned tour are that you can get an agency to take care of all the arrangements, which can be time-consuming to yourself - but it does mean that you're tied to a predetermined itinerary, which wouldn't suit everyone [B] There's also the safety aspect in terms of the places you visit often being very remote If you go off trekking in the wilds of a foreign country alone, it could be difficult to get help if things go wrong If you join a group expedition for those parts of your trip, then you have the support of the group leader and your fellow travelling companions Danny Holt Travelling solo creates opportunities to meet new people There's no substitute for sharing the experiences of the day with a companion, and being on your own forces you to seek someone out I've got to know people I wouldn't have if I'd been travelling with friends There's also the wonderful freedom to what you like, when you like, without having to convince anybody else that it's a good idea However, there are downsides; meal times are something I've never really got to grips with in all the years I've travelled alone But my advice would be to give solo travel a go – it can be very liberating Maybe try a short trip to begin with, just in case it's not for you [C] Another thing is stay in the nicest places your budget permits I've been in a few miserable hostels, and they really can spoil a trip And if you really are happy being anti-social, that MP3 player is great for ensuring the person in the next plane seat, or the poolside know-it-all, doesn't bore you to death! Kerry Winterton Fun as it is, travelling solo does undoubtedly have its low points, including occasional loneliness and the pressure that you're under to make your own mind up about everything I chose to travel alone because I wanted to something different, with it being the last summer before starting my final year at university The worst things were when I missed people from home, or when I fell out with the people I'd met along the way But I learnt to accept that some people have different attitudes to mine - that you have to put up with irritating people in hostels and accept not having as much privacy as you're used to at home The best thing for me about travelling alone was that it was a brilliant experience that enhanced my independence and helped me feel more self-assured [D] I knew I was on my own, which made me make more effort to speak to people and by doing so I made lots of great friends Look at the four letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage: “But in no time at all, I'd met up with other travellers.” Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the place where the sentence fits best A [A] B [B] C [C] D [C] In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence ‘Without doubt, you meet all sorts of people when you travel alone”? A I doubt of travelling with all sorts of people B Travelling with all types of people is inconvenient C Obviously, when you travel solo you will chance to meet different kinds of people D I don’t think that you will meet all sort of people when you travel alone What does Phil Morston when he feels lonely after long time travelling alone? A Call his girlfriend B Take the Oz Experience bus C Write an email home D Book a tour with other travellers In what way, does Leila Stuart think that pre-planned tours can be good? A You can make friends easily B You can meet all types of people C It is time-consuming D You have an agency to care for your trip Danny Holt’s advice for finding out if travelling alone is suitable for you or not is that A you should take a short trip first B you should go to the nicest places in the world C you should plane your meal times D you should bring an MP3 Why did Kerry Winterton want to travel solo? A To make new friends B To something different C To have a summer holiday D To see how much she missed her family Who feels more confident after travelling alone A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton Who has doubts at the beginning of a solo trip? A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart Who appreciates support from other people if travelling in group? A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton 10 Who appreciates the advantages of not having fixed plans? A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton PASSAGE – Questions 11-20 Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to onefifth of a person's diet This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a buildup of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath 11 What is the main idea of this passage? A Carbohydrates are needed for good health B Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins C Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis D Carbohydrates are unnecessary 12 The word "function" as used in paragraph refers to which of the following? A Neglect B Serve C Dissolve D Profess 13 The word "estimate" in paragraph could best be replaced by _ A Disbelieve B Declare C Calculate D Wonder 14 According to the passage, what most nutritionists suggest? A Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis B Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose C Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet D Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities 15 Which of the following carbohydrates NOT do? A Preventing ketosis B Causing gluconeogenesis C Providing energy for the body D Flavoring and sweetening food 16 What does the word "this" in paragraph refer to? A Using protein supplies for energy B Converting carbohydrates to energy C Having a deficiency in carbohydrates D Having an insufficient amount of protein 17 According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates? A A protein supply B A necessity C A range of sugars D An energy source 18 The word "lack" in paragraph is most similar to which of the following? A Plethora B Shortage C Derivation D Commission 19 Which of the following best describes the author's tone? A Sensitive B Emotional C Informative D Regretful 20 Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? A Cause and result B Comparison and contrast C Specific to general D Definition and example PASSAGE - Questions 21-30 When did human life on earth begin? How did humans survive the ice age and other changes in climate? Why did humans survive when huge animals all died? No one knows the answers to these questions exactly, but archeologists are attempting to find out They study the remains of villages where people lived thousands of years ago They examine the bones, skulls, tools, needles, and other things that they find in graves and caves They weigh and measure them, describe and photograph them They make tests to find out how old they are Little by little, as information is gathered throughout the world, we are learning more about early humans In 1964, Mary and Louis Leakey found a skull in East Africa that was two million years old They had worked for years searching for and studying the remains of early humans In 1972, their son Richard found a skull that was half a million years older than the first one the Leakey had found The skull is similar to a human skull, and people believe this creature was, in some ways, similar to a modern human In the years 1984 through 1988 a man named Kamoya Kimeu found most of the skull and bones, or skeleton, of an early human Because this is the most complete early human skeleton that has been found, archeologists can learn a lot about the history of human life from it It is called the Nariokotome skeleton since it was found near the Nariokotome river in Kenya It is hard to imagine how humans survived the difficult life of those ancient times Humans have little body hair to keep the body warm Animals are much better equipped for cold weather Human skin is thin and can be hurt easily Human teeth and fingernails are not as strong as animal teeth and toenails However, early humans had some advantages over other animals Humans learned to stand up The fingers on the hand are separated from each other The thumb moves so the hand can hold things and use tools 21 What is the best title for the passage? A Human remains B Human history study C Human qualities D Human abilities 22 How archeologists learn about early humans? A They go to rivers and find skulls B They study all the remains of ancient peoples’ life C They examine tools and bones D They tests to find out how old skeletons are 23 How old is the skull found by Richard Leakey? A 1,500,000 years old B 2,000,000 years old C 2,500,000 years old D 3,000,000 years old 24 From the reading it is true that _ A Earliest humans’ life may have started in East Africa B Humans could survive the ice age because they were well equipped C Skeletons of prehistoric humans are many D Archeologists have found enough evidence of ancient human life 25 What does the word “creature” in line 11 mean? A A monkey B A person C A fish D A living entity C skeleton D human body 26 “This” in line 13 refers to _ A skull B bones 27 In line 13 mean “complete” is nearest in meaning to _ A full B final C whole D every 28 In which paragraph are human disadvantages over animals discussed? A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph 29 All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _ A Archeologists not have clear proof of how humans survive B Archeologists use several methods of studying early humans C The Leakey family found some of the earliest skulls D People started to stay in one place as farmers and they could raise animals 30 What is the next paragraph most likely about? A Early humans lived in caves B Early humans developed languages C Early humans could remember things D Early humans learned to things that animals could not PASSAGE 4: Questions 31-40 The Rise of Teotihuacán The city of Teotihuacán, which lay about 50 kilometers northeast of modern-day Mexico City, began its growth by 200 - 100 B.C At its height, between about A.D 150 and 700, it probably had a population of more than 125,000 people and covered at least 20 square kilometers [A] It had over 2,000 apartment complexes, a great market, a large number of industrial workshops, an administrative center, a number of massive religious edifices, and a regular grid pattern of streets and buildings [B] Clearly, much planning and central control were involved in the expansion and ordering of this great metropolis [C] Moreover, the city had economic and perhaps religious contacts with most parts of Mesoamerica (modern Central America and Mexico) [D] How did this tremendous development take place, and why did it happen in the Teotihuacán Valley? Among the main factors are Teotihuacán’s geographic location on a natural trade route to the south and east of the Valley of Mexico, the obsidian resources in the Teotihuacán Valley itself, and the valley’s potential for extensive irrigation The exact role of other factors is much more difficult to pinpoint – for instance, Teotihuacán’s religious significance as a shrine, the historical situation in and around the Valley of Mexico toward the end of the first millennium B.C., the ingenuity and foresightedness of Teotihuacán’s elite, and, finally, the impact of natural disasters, such as the volcanic eruptions of the late first millennium B.C This last factor is at least circumstantially implicated in Teotihuacán’s rise Prior to 200 B.C., a number of relatively small centers coexisted in and near the Valley of Mexico Around this time, the largest of these centers, Cuicuilco, was seriously affected by a volcanic eruption, with much of its agricultural land covered by lava With Cuicuilco eliminated as a potential rival, any one of a number of relatively modest towns might have emerged as a leading economic and political power in Central Mexico The archaeological evidence clearly indicates, though, that Teotihuacán was the center that did arise as the predominant force in the area by the first century A.D It seems likely that Teotihuacán’s natural resources - along with the city elite’s ability to recognize their potential - gave the city a competitive edge over its neighbors The valley, like many other places in Mexican and Guatemalan highlands, was rich in obsidian The hard volcanic stone was a resource that had been in great demand for many years, at least since the rise of the Olmecs (a people who flourished between 1200 and 400 B.C.), and it apparently had a secure market Moreover, recent research on obsidian tools found at Olmec sites has shown that some of the obsidian obtained by the Olmecs originated near Teotihuacán Teotihuacán obsidian must have been recognized as a valuable commodity for many centuries before the great city arose Long-distance trade in obsidian probably gave the elite residents of Teotihuacán access to a wide variety of exotic goods, as well as a relatively prosperous life Such success may have attracted immigrants to Teotihuacán In addition, Teotihuacán’s elite may have consciously attempted to attract new inhabitants It is also probable that as early as 200 B.C Teotihuacán may have achieved some religious significance and its shrine (or shrines) may have served as an additional population magnet Finally, the growing population was probably fed by increasing the number and size of irrigated fields The picture of Teotihuacán that emerges is a classic picture of positive feedback among obsidian mining and working, trade, population growth, irrigation, and religious tourism The thriving obsidian operation, for example, would necessitate more miners, additional manufacturers of obsidian tools, and additional traders to carry the goods to new markets All this led to increased wealth, which in turn would attract more immigrants to Teotihuacán The growing power of the elite, who controlled the economy, would give them the means to physically coerce people to move to Teotihuacán and serve as additions to the labor force More irrigation works would have to be built to feed the growing population, and this resulted in more power and wealth for the elite 31 The word “massive” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A ancient B carefully planned C very large D carefully protected 32 In paragraph 1, each of the following is mentioned as a feature of the city of Teotihuacán between A.D 150 and 700 EXCEPT _ A regularly arranged streets B several administrative centers spread across the city C many manufacturing workshops D apartment complexes 33 The word “pinpoint” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A identify precisely B make an argument C describe D understand 34 The word “ingenuity” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A ambition B sincerity C faith D cleverness 35 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph as a main factor in the development of Teotihuacán? A The presence of obsidian in the Teotihuacán Valley B The potential for extensive irrigation of Teotihuacán Valley lands C A long period of volcanic inactivity in the Teotihuacán Valley D Teotihuacán’s location on a natural trade route 36 Which of the following can be inferred from paragraphs and about the volcanic eruptions of the late first millennium B.C.? A They were more frequent than historians once thought B They may have done more damage to Teotihuacán than to neighboring centers C They may have played a major role in the rise of Teotihuacán D They increased the need for extensive irrigation in the Teotihuacán Valley 37 What can be inferred from paragraph about Cuicuilco prior to 200 B.C.? A It was a fairly small city until that date B It was located outside the Valley of Mexico C It emerged rapidly as an economic and political center D Its economy relied heavily on agriculture 38 The word “predominant” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A most aggressive B most productive C principal D earliest 39 Which of the following allowed Teotihuacán to have “a competitive edge over its neighbors”? A A well-exploited and readily available commodity B The presence of a highly stable elite class C Knowledge derived directly from the Olmecs about the art of toolmaking D Scarce natural resources in nearby areas such as those located in what are now the Guatemalan and Mexican highlands 40 Look at the four letters (marked [A], [B], [C], and [D]) that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage in paragraph “In fact, artifacts and pottery from Teotihuacán have been discovered in sites as far away as the Mayan lowlands, the Guatemalan highlands, northern Mexico, and the Gulf Coast of Mexico.” Where would the sentence best fit? A [A] B [B] C [C] D [D] THIS IS THE END OF THE READING PAPER Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child Development” the critical period It refers to a limited time span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex cognitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods for example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced? Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its parents He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact with the baby By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy growth The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby 31 What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology? A Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology B Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen C Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology D Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children 32 The word “diverse” is closest in meaning to _ A small B varied C wild D particular 33 The word “ensures” is closest in meaning to _ A guarantees B proves C teaches D assumes 34 According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period when imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur? A The gosling will not imprint on any object C The mother will later imprint on the gosling B The gosling may not find a mate when it matures D The gosling may imprint on another object 35 The word “it” refers to _ A development B goose C time D object 36 The word “suitably” is closest in meaning to _ A willingly B moderately C appropriately D emotionally 37 The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT _ A grasping B crying C eating D smiling 38 According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended to _ A get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met B allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent C provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation D prepare the infant to cope with separation 39 The phrase “affectional tie” is closest in meaning to _ A cognitive development B emotional attachment C psychological need D behavioral change 40 It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that _ A to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied B failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence C the notion of critical periods applies only to animals D there are similarities between animal and human behavior THIS IS THE END OF PAPER 45 PAPER 2: LISTENING (35 minutes) Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work The recording will be played ONCE only (Track 18) At the end of the test, you will be given seven minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet PART 1: Questions 1-8 Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions There is one question for each announcement or instruction For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Now, let’s listen to an example On the recording, you might hear: Woman: Hello This is the travel agency returning your call You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order Let me know if I can help you with any other information Goodbye On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday? A Breakfast B Lunch C Dinner D All The correct answer is A “Breakfast.” What is the registration number of the car? A ST 4572 B ST 4571 C SP 4571 What kinds of classes are being offered? A Korean classes D SP 5571 B Many different classes C English classes D Cooking classes How does yoga help people who work long days? A It gives them energy C It doesn’t help them B It gives them a new job D It makes them stressed If there is a fire, what should you do? A Run out of the building B Stay seated C Walk out of the building D Jog out of the building How much time the students have to finish the test? A One hour B Two hours Where is this announcement being made? C Three hours A at an airport C in a children’s hospital What is next stop? A Main Road B Main Station D Five hours B in a department store D at playground C Main Row How much money will be given for help in finding the dog? A $ 15 B $ 20 C $ 30 46 D Main Street D $ 50 PART 2: Questions 9-20 Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations The conversations will not be repeated There are four questions for each conversation For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D Questions to 12 What does Ahmed say about last week’s seminar? A He couldn’t understand everything C He failed to work personally B He didn’t know all the students D He wasn’t able to get there one time 10 What does the tutor say about Ahmed’s preparation for the seminar? A He read some useful articles C He completed some useful work B He was a very good student D He was better prepared than some students 11 What does Ahmed say about his participation in the seminar? A He tended to speak to his neighbor only B He spoke when other students were talking C He was not confident at all D He felt extremely shy when students looked at him 12 At the next seminar Ahmed’s tutor suggest that he should _ A give other students more help with their work B observe the behavior of other students C complain to the teacher if other students not listen D ask other students for their views Questions 13 to 16 13 What is the relationship between two speakers? A husband and wife C boss and employee B teacher and student D customer and assistant 14 What does the woman want? A She wants to take a course in English composition B She wants to find out about the man’s qualification C She wants to earn credits for a university degree D She wants to earn credits without taking exams 15 According to the man what is an example of a guest matriculant? A An alumni of the university B A student enrolled in the credit-by-exam system C A foreign exchange student D A student who has not yet graduated from high school 16 According to the woman what might be a problem with earning credits this way? A They will appear differently on her transcript B They will conflict with her graduate degree C They will affect her overall GPA D They will not count for as many credits as a normal class Questions 17 to 20 17 The students did the study skills course because _ A it was part of their syllabus B they needed it to prepare for an exam C their tutor recommended it D they found it interesting to so 18 Why did Sylvie and Daniel use a questionnaire? A Other students preferred the method C More information could be obtained B It reduced the preparation time D It was compulsory 19 How often did the students meet in class for the course? A once a week C every weekday B twice a week D every other week 20 Why did Daniel like the course? A It focused on economics articles C It helped him a lot with his hobbies B It encouraged him to read more books D It improved his confidence 47 PART 3: Questions 21-35 Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures The talks or lectures will not be repeated There are five questions for each talk or lecture For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D Questions 21 to 25 21 What aspect of communication does the professor mainly discuss? A Public speaking C Body language B Sending clear messages D Multimedia 22 How does the professor emphasize her point about the importance of posture and gestures? A By identifying the different kinds of body postures B By stating the dimensions of various gestures C By comparing gestures in different cultures D A & C 23 According to the professor how much of the information people receive when we talk to them comes from the words that we say? A All of it B 90% C 50% D 10% 24 According to the professor why is it important to know and understand your own body language? A Because it often conflicts with spoken messages B So that students can feel more relaxed at an interview C Because people need to know what their body is saying if they want to succeed D Because people are not usually aware of informal body language 25 Why does the professor mention eye contact? A She wants the audience to look at her B In her opinion it is not necessary C She uses it as an example of negative body language D She believes that it causes complications Questions 26 to 30 26 What does the professor imply about people who searched for wild plants to eat in the 1800s? A They lived in very poor countries B They were doing what was normal at that time C They knew about poisonous plants, so they rarely ate dangerous plants D They were people who did not fit in society 27 How does the professor feel about keeping plants inside the house? A She believes plants make a home healthier B She is opposed to keeping plants inside the house C She feels bad for the plants because they suffer when children damage them D She thinks people should be more careful 28 Which is true about hemlock? A It is a mineral C It is an alkaloid B It is an oxalate D It is an extinct plant 29 What does the professor imply about oxalates? 48 A They are like weeds and irritate homeowners B They are the most dangerous of the three categories of poisonous plants C They can safely be consumed by animals, but not by people D They not have enough poison to kill a person 30 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the lecture? A traditional food B poisonous plants C Socrates D alternative treatments Questions 31 to 35 31 What is the discussion mainly about? A The invention of the diesel engine B New technology in biofuel engines C The cost and benefits of using biofuels D The problems associated with biofuels 32 Why does the professor mention the first diesel engines? A To show how engine design has changed B To show how diesel is superior to gasoline C To show that biofuel is more expensive than diesel D To show that biofuel is not a new idea 33 According to the professor, what is the difference between fossil fuels and biofuels? A Fossil fuels are renewable and biofuels are not C Fossil fuels are expensive and biofuels are not B Biofuels are renewable and fossil fuels are not D Biofuels cause pollution and fossil fuels not 34 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of biodiesel over regular diesel? A The emission of fewer hydrocarbons B The emission of fewer particulates C The emission of less nitrogen oxide 35 What can be inferred about the professor? D The emission of less carbon monoxide A He supports the idea of businesses using biofuel B He disagrees with individuals who not use diesel engines C He does not agree with the idea that biodiesel solves pollution problems D He is skeptical about the benefits of using biofuel THIS IS THE END OF PAPER 49 WRITING TEST TASK You should spend about 20 minutes on this task You have received a letter from Jane, one of your English friend Read a part of the letter from her below I heard that you gave birth to a baby and changed to a new house How is the baby? Is the new house suitable for the whole family? I look forward to receiving your reply Write a letter responding to Jane You should write at least 120 words You not need to include your name or addresses Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar TASK You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from an article about health The number of obese children and people over the world have increased over the few decades, making not only parents but also governments worry much about the health of people This is partly the result of unhealthy lifestyles and it is high time to take action Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of unhealthy lifestyles and suggest what can be done to solve the issues Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience You should write at least 250 words Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar 50 WRITING TEST TASK You should spend about 20 minutes on this task You have received a letter from Professor Diana Smith Read a part of the letter from her below It is my honor to be invited to your university as a guest speaker As I am in charge of several workshops, I would like to know about the target audience and the topic appealing to them Please tell me something about the weather and the clothes I should bring as well I look forward to receiving your reply Write a letter responding to Professor Diana Smith You should write at least 120 words You not need to include your name or addresses Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar TASK You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from an article about teleworking In accordance to the Covid-19 pandemic, teleworking has become a temporary measure to prevent the disease However, this mode of working also bears certain disadvantages Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the benefits and drawbacks of teleworking and state your overall evaluation Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience You should write at least 250 words Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar 51 WRITING TEST TASK You should spend about 20 minutes on this task You have received a letter from John, a pen-pal from America Read a part of the letter from him below I have received an email from the boss informing that I would be sent to Vietnam to work for the next two years Please tell me something about your country: the people, weather, places of interest, etc I can’t wait to see you Write a letter responding to John You should write at least 120 words You not need to include your name or addresses Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar TASK You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from an article about happiness Happiness is a slippery concept as it differs from people to people A person, at different life stages, has different priorities which influence much on his or her perception of happiness Write an essay to an educated reader to explain why happiness is hard to define and discuss important factors in achieving happiness Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience You should write at least 250 words Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar 52 WRITING TEST TASK You should spend about 20 minutes on this task You have received a letter from An, your old friend at high school Read a part of the letter from his below Dear There, How are you? I hope that you’re fine Our school is going to celebrate its 40 years of foundation I’m writing this to invite our class members to come back the school on 20 November to join the event Please don’t forget to update me your current work or family life I look forward to hearing from you Write a letter responding to An You should write at least 120 words You not need to include your name or addresses Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar TASK You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from a book about the Internet The Internet has revolutionized the way we communicate and get knowledge On balance, however, the such development has also triggered unprecedented issues that we are facing Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the drawbacks of the Internet and suggest what can be done to minimize the effects of those issues Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience You should write at least 250 words Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar 53 WRITING TEST TASK You should spend about 20 minutes on this task You have received a letter from Jane, one of your English friend Read a part of the letter from her below I heard that you gave birth to a baby and changed to a new house How is the baby? Is the new house suitable for the whole family? I look forward to receiving your reply Write a letter responding to Jane You should write at least 120 words You not need to include your name or addresses Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar TASK You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from an article about lifelong learning The world is dramatically changing, so, if one does not change, he or she will be left behind The only solution to keep up with the world is lifelong learning Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the benefits of lifelong learning and suggest what can be done to boost the benefits Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience You should write at least 250 words Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar 54 SPEAKING TEST (Time: 12 minutes) Part 1: Social Interactions (3’) (The examiner can decide how to develop the conversation based on the candidate’s responses.) Topic 1: Let’s talk about pastimes - What you like to in your free time? - Are you really into a particular thing? - Do you think that hobbies can help us earn money? Why (why not)? Topic 2: Let’s talk about colors - What is your favorite color? - What colors you dislike? - Why you think some people choose colors carefully before going out? Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: A friend of yours has refused to pay you back the money that he borrowed several years ago Several ideas to take the money back are suggested: ask his parents to pay back, announce his debt to his boss or sue him in a court Which one is the best option, in your opinion? Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Rare animals should be kept in zoos receive better cares avoid being killed Animals in zoos [your own idea] Follow-up questions: - What can ordinary people to save rare animals? - What are the responsibilities of the government to save them? - How have Vietnam’s zoos changed over the last few years? 55 have no skills to survive SPEAKING TEST (Time: 12 minutes) Part 1: Social Interactions (3’) (The examiner can decide how to develop the conversation based on the candidate’s responses.) Topic 1: Let’s talk about Health care - How often you go to the doctor for a checkup? - What you tell your kids/ surrounding people to keep fit? - Why you think some people don’t go to hospitals when they are ill? Topic 2: Let’s talk about Technology - Do you have a smart phone? - Can you live without the phone? - Why people believe that technology affects their privacy? Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: You have discovered that your 10-year-old son has fallen in love and he has even written several love letters What would you do: tell him to stop writing immediately, force him to more homework so that he cannot be free to write, or have a direct talk with him? Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Cheating is totally unacceptable bad models for kids stealing chances of others Cheating unreliable workforce in future [your own idea] Follow-up questions: - What can be done to stop cheating? - Is it possible to tell lies in some cases? - Should we publish the names of students who cheated in an exam? 56 SPEAKING TEST (Time: 12 minutes) Part 1: Social Interactions (3’) (The examiner can decide how to develop the conversation based on the candidate’s responses.) Topic 1: Let’s talk about Plants and Trees - Do you like plants? - Do you have a big tree in your house? - Why you think some people grow a lot of trees surrounding their houses? Topic 2: Let’s talk about Houses - Do you live in a house or an apartment? - Would you like a more spacious house or apartment? - Do you think that buying houses for children when they get married is good? Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: You are now 35 years old If you had a chance to choose your job again, which one would you choose: the current job, the dreamt job when you were very small or early retirement? Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Vietnam is a good destination for foreigners afforable accommodation beauty spots Vietnam public security [your own idea] Follow-up questions: - What can ordinary people to make their home country better? - How has Vietnam changed over the past 10 years? - What changes you think will happen in Vietnam in the near future? 57 SPEAKING TEST (Time: 12 minutes) Part 1: Social Interactions (3’) (The examiner can decide how to develop the conversation based on the candidate’s responses.) Topic 1: Let’s talk about Daily routines - What time you usually get up? - What people in your family usually when they get up? - Do you often stay up late? Why (why not)? Topic 2: Let’s talk about Cooking - Do you like cooking? Why or why not? - Who often cooks for your family? - Do you think that each person should learn to cook before getting married? Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: Your children are choosing a non-academic course to study in the afternoon Which one is the best for them: a cooking class, a painting class or a music class? Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Poor people are getting poorer because of several reasons lack of education lack of modelling Poverty lack of motivation [your own idea] Follow-up questions: - What the government can to help the poor? - Is it the responsibility of the rich to help the poor? - Do you believe that the wealth gap will be bigger in the future? 58 SPEAKING TEST (Time: 12 minutes) Part 1: Social Interactions (3’) (The examiner can decide how to develop the conversation based on the candidate’s responses.) Topic 1: Let’s talk about Family relationships - Do you get on well with your in-laws? - Is it necessary for a woman to live with her in-laws? - What can people to avoid domestic conflicts? Topic 2: Let’s talk about Pollution - Are there any environmental problems in your community? - How can you teach your children to protect the environment? - Should the local government heavily fine those who litter improperly? Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: Your town council is asking people to improve the area Some proposals are put forward: donating money, donating labor or donating books for the library What is the best choice? Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Senior citizens should work until they can social interaction independence Old work force social contributions [your own idea] Follow-up questions: - Should parents have early retirement so that their children could substitute them? - What are issues of aging population? - What should be done to minimize those issues? 10 59