UBND HUYỆN SA THẦY KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN PHÒNG GD&ĐT SA THẦY LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2019 2020 Môn Tiếng Anh ĐỀ DỰ BỊ Thời gian 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi 27/12/2019 Lưu ý 1 Th[.]
UBND HUYỆN SA THẦY PHÒNG GD&ĐT SA THẦY ĐỀ DỰ BỊ KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 27/12/2019 Lưu ý: - Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi - Đề thi gồm 05 trang (Không tính tờ phách) - Thí sinh khơng sử dụng tài liệu, kể từ điển - Giám thị không giải thích thêm _ Chữ ký giám thị Số phách: Họ tên thí sinh: Số báo danh: Ngày sinh: Học sinh trường: UBND HUYỆN SA THẦY PHÒNG GD&ĐT SA THẦY ĐỀ DỰ BỊ ĐIỂM BẰNG SỐ BẰNG CHỮ KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) Ngày thi: 27/12/2019 Giám khảo Số phách Giám khảo SECTION I LISTENING (3 points – 0.2/each) There are two parts in this section You will hear each part twice After each part, you will have a fifteen-second pause to Part Questions from to (1.0 points - 0.2/each) Listen to Susie, talking to her friend Matt, about going to the cinema Choose the right answer from A, B or C for each question Which film will they see? A Field of Green B Sunny Day C Heart of Gold They are going to the cinema _ A by the market B in the shopping centre C opposite the park How will they get there? A by car B on foot C by bus Matt should meet Susie at _ A 3.45 B 4.15 C 4.20 The cinema tickets will cost _ A £5.50 B £6.20 C £8.00 Part Questions from to 15 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each) You will hear a man phoning a woman who lives in an English City called Banford to get some advice about moving to that city Complete the notes below Write one word or a number for each answer Moving to Banford City Example Linda recommends living in suburb of: .Dalton: Accommodation • Average rent: (6) £ ………………………… a month Transport • Linda travels to work by (7) ………………………… • Limited (8) ………………………… in city centre • Trains to London every (9) ………………………… minutes • Poor train service at (10) ………………………… Advantages of living in Banford • New (11) ………………………… opened recently • (12) ………………………… has excellent reputation • Good (13) ………………………… on Bridge Street Meet Linda • Meet Linda on (14) ………………………… after 5.30 pm • In the (15) ………………………… opposite the station SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points) Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35 (3.0 points - 0.15/ each) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions 16 He managed to keep his job the manager had threatened to sack him A therefore B although C unless D despite 17 The government made serious attempts to raise the of living A standard B cost C level D mode 18 If you run Steve, give him my best wishes A over B up C into D to 19 I read the contract again and again avoiding making spelling mistakes A with a view to B In view of C by means of D in terms of 20 These days, more and more teenagers a crime at the early age A make B commit C have D 21 You should before buying because it is very expensive A cost an arm and a leg B take it for granted C pull your leg D take it into account 22 After reading the letter, it on the table A leaving B and leaving C she left D and she left 23 Our father suggested _to Danang for this summer holiday A going B to go C go D to going 24 Nothing seems to bother Colin No matter what happens, he always seems to remain as cool as _ A cool feet B ice-cream C cucumber D Eskimo 25 Without your help, I the technical problem with my computer the other day A wouldn't solve B couldn't have solved C could solve D can's solve 26 This part of the country is famous its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine A about B with C of D for 27 Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual's personality is A by the age of five it is quite well established B quite well established by the age of five C well established quite by the age of five D by the age of five and quite well established 28 The Government has brought a new law in an effort to prevent further environmental deterioration A in B about C up D on 29 Don't forget to say goodbye to the _ before leaving the office A interviewer B interviewing C interviewee D interview 30 The US president Barack Obama an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership A delivered B paid C offered D gave 31 Candidates are requested to the form to the admissions officer by July 25th A fill out B show up C pass over D hand in 32 The firefighters7 single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire was A respecting B respective C respectful D respectable 33 The university administrations are introducing new measures to that the enrolment process runs smoothly A maintain B improve C facilitate D ensure 34 Sorry for being late I was in the traffic for more than an hour A carried on B held up C put off D taken after 35 She was tired and couldn't keep the group A up with B up against C on to D out of Part Questions from 36 to 45 (2 points - 0.2/ each) Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence 36 All houses in that village are ……………………… …… decorated (beauty) 37 Mexico achieved ……………………… …… from France totally in 1954 (depend) 38 We were shocked by the ……………………… …… of the staff of that firm (friend) 39 There were more than fifty ……………………… …… in the race this morning (compete) 40 The health report stresses the ……………………… …… of fresh food in a diet (important) 41 He has been criticized for his ……………………… …… in foreign affairs (experience) 42 Reduction in government spending will ………………… ………….further cuts in public services (necessary) 43 She is the most ……………………… …… girl in my class (attract) 44 There's been a big ……………………… …… in the children's behaviour (improve) 45 He was ……………………… …… in politics and he never votes for any parties (interest) Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50 (1 points - 0.2/ each) Each of the following sentences has an error Find the errors and correct them 46 Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called 47 My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem 48 The little boys mother bought him a five - speeds racing bicycle for his birthday 49 He was too exhausted that he couldn’t even stand on his feet 50 The governor, with his wife and children, are at home watching the election returns on TV Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55 (1 point - 0.2/ each) Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition 51 Will you take responsibility …………….…… arranging the food? 52 Your shoes are similar …………….…… mine but they are not exactly the same 53 This reference book is …………….…… far the best on the subject 54 He said he was sorry …………….…… the situation but there was nothing he could 55 The skirt …………….…… the vest You can’t buy them separately SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS) Part Questions 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each) Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19 th century The invention of the railways (56) this possible The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education The seaside was a place to be (57) of illness, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water Also to (58) their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from the library At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (59) work However, in 1871, the government introduced four ‘Banking Holiday’ – national holiday days This (60) people to have a day or two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside At first, they went on day-trips, taking (61) of special cheap tickets on the railways By the 1880s, rising incomes (62) that many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (63) them Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating icecream Cheap entertainment was (64) offer and holidaymakers went to have fun Today the English seaside (65) popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year 56 A. got B. had C. let D. made 57 A. recovered B. improved C. cured D. remedied 58 A. add B. increase C. raise D. spread 59 A. from B. out C. off D. away 60 A. allowed B. provided C. opened D. offered 61 A. opportunity B. advantage C. profit D. benefit 62 A. meant B. resulted C. produced D. caused 63 A. board B. accommodate C. lodge D. cater 64 A. on B. to C. in D. for 65 A. stays B. continues C. lasts D. remains Part Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each) Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen to helium The Sun has existed in its present state for about four billion six hundred million years and is thousands of times larger than the Earth By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the Sun’s life will be like About five billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter The surface temperature will fall The higher temperature of the center will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions The outer regions of the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun The Sun will then be a red giant star Temperatures on the Earth will become too high for life to exist Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink After it shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will become a white dwarf star The Sun may throw off huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat Such a star is called a black dwarf After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold If any atmosphere remains there, it will have frozen over the Earth’s surface 66 It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun A is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf B will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years C has been in existence for 10 billion years D is rapidly changing in size and brightness 67 What will probably be the first stage of change for the Sun to become a red giant? A Its surface will become hotter and shrink B It will throw off huge amounts of gases C Its central part will grow smaller and hotter D Its core will cool off and use less fuel 68 When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will the atmosphere be like on the Earth? A It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun B It will become too hot for life to exist C It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions D It will freeze and become solid 69 When the Sun has used up its energy as a red giant, it will A get frozen B cease to exist C stop to expand D become smaller 70 Large amounts of gases may be released from the Sun at the end of its life as a A black dwarf B white dwarf C red giant D yellow dwarf 71 As a white dwarf, the Sun will be A the same size as the planet Mercury B around 35 million miles in diameter C a cool and habitable planet D thousands of times smaller than it is today 72 The Sun will become a black dwarf when A the Sun moves nearer to the Earth B it has used up all its fuel as a white dwarf C the core of the Sun becomes hotter D the outer regions of the Sun expand 73 The word “there” in the last sentence of paragraph refers to A the planet Mercury B the core of a black dwarf C our own planet D the outer surface of the Sun 74 This passage is intended to A describe the changes that the Sun will go through B present a theory about red giant stars C alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun D discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future 75 The passage has probably been taken from A a scientific journal B a news report C a work of science fiction D a scientific chronicle Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points- 0.2/ each) Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap People have been playing (76) …………….…… marbles for thousands of years The first marbles were probably (77) …………….…… river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely, rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness (78) …………….…… very old clay marbles have been found in both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C Harder and (79) …………….…… durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay marbles, which crack very easily So (80) …………….…… the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles made of agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and ( 81) …………….…… play flowered Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern part of Germany Shortly after, handmade glass marbles (82) …………….…… in the same part of Europe For the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundreds of games flourished in both Europe and America Marble players developed their (83) …………….…… vocabulary for different sizes and materials of marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played and the way marbles were (84) …………….…… in the games For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the (85) …………….…… popular and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie SECTION IV WRITITNG (4 points) Part 1: Questions 86 – 90 (1 points- 0.2/ each) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it 86 It will be impossible to avoid pollution if we don’t find other fuels We can’t 87 I’m sure you were surprised when you heard the new You must 88 She doesn’t enjoy travelling any more No 89 You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches In case 90 In spite of not speaking Vietnamese, Mr Anderson decided to settle in Hanoi Although Part 2: Questions 91 – 95 (1 points - 0.2/ each) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the given word Do not change the given word 96 We’d better leave them a note, because it’s possible they’ll arrive later (case) We’d better leave them a note …………………………………………………………… later 97 The last Olympic Games were held in Seoul (took) The last Olympic Games …………………………………………………………… Seoul 98 In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club (regrets) I had …………………………………………………………… the club in the end 99 The company has decided to replace this model (intention) It’s the …………………………………………………………… this model 100 They suspended Jack for the next two matches (banned) @ Jack …………………………………………………………… in the next two matches Part Essay writing (2 points) “These days, many children have difficulty paying attention and concentrating in their classes at school.” What are the reasons for this? How can it be dealt with? You should write at least 200 words …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… -The …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… end - ... PHÒNG GD&ĐT SA THẦY ĐỀ DỰ BỊ ĐIỂM BẰNG SỐ BẰNG CHỮ KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) Ngày thi: 27/12/2019