LE TAN BE SECONDARY SCHOOL NAME CLASS CANDIDATE NUMBER DATE THE MID TERM TEST SCHOOL YEAR 2022 – 2023 GRADE 6 Allowed Time 60 minutes SUPERVISOR’S SIGNATURE 1 SUPERVISOR’S SIGNATURE 2 PAPER NUMBER COD[.]
LE TAN BE SECONDARY SCHOOL NAME:……………………… … CLASS:……………………… … CANDIDATE NUMBER: ……… DATE: ……………………… … THE MID-TERM TEST SCHOOL YEAR: 2022 – 2023 GRADE Allowed Time: 60 minutes SUPERVISOR’S SUPERVISOR’S SIGNATURE SIGNATURE PAPER NUMBER CODE NUMBER ………………………………………………………………………………………………… MARKS EXAMINER’S REMARKS NUMBER OF PAPERS EXAMINER’S EXAMINER’S CODE SIGNATURE SIGNATURE NUMBER PAPER NUMBER ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC I Choose the word having a different stress pattern: (0.5pt) A modern B weather C other D hotel A cinema B unfriendly C restaurant D interesting II Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others (0.5pt) A work B swimming C twenty D answer A prefers B visits C stops D sits III Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence (3.0 pts) Hoa: “How many cafés are there in your town?”-Tu: “ ” A There are some cafés in my town B Yes, there are C There aren’t any cafés in my town D A and C are correct Dung: “Is your house small or big?”- Trung: “ ” A It’s quite small B Yes, it is C No, it isn’t D I like it I usually early in the morning A relax B get up C invite D go They like to _ with family members in their free time A have B finish C chat D start This ruler is than that one A longer B more long C long D long more 10 _ dogs are there? A How much B How old C How D How many 11 She _ her teeth after every meal A relaxes B gets C brushes D washes 12. _ they go to school every day? A How B What C Where D Who 13 The children get up 6.45 a.m A in B on C at D for 14 Her daughter sometimes helps the housework A in B with C at D for 15 Imagine a five –star hotel with food A friendly B ugly C fantastic D dirty 16 I think climbing is exciting sport A a B an C the D ɸ IV Look at the signs Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5 pt) 17 What does this sign mean? A Don’t drink B Don’t eat C No food D Drink allowed 18 What does this sign mean? A Roundabout B No turning right C No entry D No parking V Read the passage Then choose the correct answer (2.0 pts) Our town is very good for food! There(19) a nice Turkish restaurant (20) an Italian café, too If you like (21) , there’s a sports center, and there’s a nice park – (22) ’s a good place for football There’s a (23) hotel for visitors to the town And there’s (24) small cinema with new films every week, but there (25) a theatre There’s a very good school (26) our town – I’m a student there and I’m very happy! 19 A is B are C ‘re D aren’t 20 A or B and C or D but 21 A sports B coffee C shopping D climbing 22 A they B it C you D we 23 A three star B three stars C three-stars D three-star 24 A a B an C the D ɸ 25 A is B are C isn’t D aren’t 26 A in B with C at D for VI Read the passage, then finish the tasks below (1.5pts) More than 2.000 people work on Oasis of the Seas, and there are cabins for 6.360 passengers That’s a lot of people, and they eat a lot of food in the ship’s twenty cafés and restaurants There are 250 chefs! It’s the first ship with a park It’s called Central Park and it’s got fifty real trees and 12.000 plants If you like sports, there are also five swimming pools and there’s an exciting sports area with a climbing wall If you prefer reading, there’s a library, but relax- there isn’t a school on the ship A Read then Decide True or False (1.0 pt) 27 There is a school on the ship 28 There are some swimming pools on the ship 29 There is one café and one restaurant on the ship 30 There is a boring sports area on the ship B Choose the best answer to each of the following question (0.5 pt) 31 Is it the only ship with a park? A No, it isn’t B Yes, it is C Yes, there is D No, there isn’t 32 What’s in the sports area? A a library B a square C a school D a climbing wall VII Supply the correct tenses or word forms: (1pt) 33 Sam football after school every day (not, play) 34 Our lesson at 4.30 (finish) 35 My best friend is very (friend) 36 Climbing is really (danger) VIII Use the suggested words to arrange the complete sentences (0.5pt) 37 your mum / Does / English / speak ? 38 to bed / you / What time / / go ? IX Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning as the given ones (0.5 pt) 39 They are chairs →What ? 40 She likes shopping →She’s KEY I Choose the word having a different stress pattern: (0.5pt) A modern B weather C other D hotel A cinema B unfriendly C restaurant D interesting II Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others (0.5pt) A work B swimming C twenty D answer A prefers B visits C stops D sits III Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence (3.0 pts) Hoa: “How many cafés are there in your town?”-Tu: “ ” A There are some cafés in my town B Yes, there are C There aren’t any cafés in my town D A and C are correct Dung: “Is your house small or big?”- Trung: “ ” A It’s quite small B Yes, it is C No, it isn’t D I like it I usually early in the morning A relax B get up C invite D go They like to with family members in their free time A have B finish C chat D start This ruler is than that one A longer B more long C long D long more 10 _ dogs are there? A How much B How old C How D How many 11 She _ her teeth after every meal A relaxes B gets C brushes D washes 12. _ they go to school every day? A How B What C Where D Who 13 The children get up 6.45 a.m A in B on C at D for 14 Her daughter sometimes helps the housework A in B with C at D for 15 Imagine a five –star hotel with food A friendly B ugly C fantastic D dirty 16 I think climbing is exciting sport A a B an C the D ɸ IV Look at the signs Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5 pt) 17 What does this sign mean? A Don’t drink B Don’t eat C No food D Drink allowed 18 What does this sign mean? A Roundabout B No turning right C No entry D No parking V Read the passage Then choose the correct answer (2.0 pts) Our town is very good for food! There(19) a nice Turkish restaurant (20) an Italian café, too If you like (21) , there’s a sports center, and there’s a nice park – (22) ’s a good place for football There’s a (23) hotel for visitors to the town And there’s (24) small cinema with new films every week, but there (25) a theatre There’s a very good school (26) our town – I’m a student there and I’m very happy! 19 A is B are C ‘re D aren’t 20 A or B and C or D but 21 A sports B coffee C shopping D climbing 22 A they B it C you D we 23 A three star B three stars C three-stars D three-star 24 A a B an C the D ɸ 25 A is B are C isn’t D aren’t 26 A in B with C at D for VI Read the passage, then finish the tasks below (1.5pts) More than 2.000 people work on Oasis of the Seas, and there are cabins for 6.360 passengers That’s a lot of people, and they eat a lot of food in the ship’s twenty cafés and restaurants There are 250 chefs! It’s the first ship with a park It’s called Central Park and it’s got fifty real trees and 12.000 plants If you like sports, there are also five swimming pools and there’s an exciting sports area with a climbing wall If you prefer reading, there’s a library, but relax- there isn’t a school on the ship A Read then Decide True or False (1.0 pt) 27 There is a school on the ship False 28 There are some swimming pools on the ship True 29 There is one café and one restaurant on the ship False 30 There is a boring sports area on the ship False B Choose the best answer to each of the following question (0.5 pt) 31 Is it the only ship with a park? A No, it isn’t B Yes, it is C Yes, there is D No, there isn’t 32 What’s in the sports area? A a library B a square C a school D a climbing wall VII Supply the correct tenses or word forms: (1pt) 33 Sam DOESN’T PLAY football after school every day (not, play) 34 Our lesson _FINISHES _ at 4.30 (finish) 35 My best friend is very FRIENDLY (friend) 36 Climbing is really DANGEROUS (danger) VIII Use the suggested words to arrange the complete sentences (0.5pt) 37 your mum / Does / English / speak DOES YOUR MUM SPEAK ENGLISH ? 38 to bed / you / What time / / go WHAT TIME DO YOU GO TO BED ? IX Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning as the given ones (0.5 pt) 39 They are chairs →What ARE THEY ? 40 She likes shopping →She’s _INTO/INTERESTED IN/KEEN ON SHOPPING _ THE MID-TERM TEST PLAN I School: LE TAN BE SECONDARY SCHOOL II Class: III Coursebook and unit range: FRIENDS PLUS (Unit 1-2) IV Test writer: NGUYỄN NGỌC PHI PHỤNG Test objectives: Students are able to master what they have learned in UNIT 1-2 including vocabularies, grammar points, structures, Language area/skills: Table Timing: 60 minutes Number of test items: 40 Scoring scheme: 10 Questions Tested aspects/ areas Score Weight 1-2 Stress (2x0.25) 0.5 5% 3-4 Pronunciation (2x0.5) 0.5 5% 5-16 Language/speaking (10x0.25) 3.0 30% 17-18 Sign (2x0.25) 0.5 5% 19-22 Word form (language) and Verb 1.0 10% tenses (4x0.25) 23-30 Cloze reading (8x0.25) 2.0 20% 31-36 Reading (6x0.25) 1.5 15% 37-38 Sentence writing (2x0.25) 0.5 5% 39-40 Transformation /writing (2x0.25) 0.5 5% Table of test specifications (Matrix): Knowledge comprehension Application Analysis, Synthesis Ord objectives Weight Writi MC Writing MC Writi MC Writ MC ng ng ing Stress I II P ronunciati on III Multiple choice ( options) IV V Sign Word form/ Verb tenses 0,5 = 5% 0,5 = 5% 3.0 = 30% 0,5 = 5% 1,0 = 10% VI Read the passage VII Read the passage VIII Rearrange IX 2.0 = 20 % 1,5 = 15% 0,5 = 5% Writing Total Questions 14 Content Areas (UNIT) 0.5 = 5% 10,0 = 100% Objectives 10 11 12 13 14 15 Stress (hotel) Stress (unfriendly) Pronunciation (answer) Pronunciation (prefers) Speaking Speaking Vocabulary (get up) Vocabulary (chat) Grammar (comparative) (longer) Vocabulary (how many) Vocabulary (brushes) Vocabulary (how) Prepositions (at) Vocabulary (fantastic) Prepositions (with) Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Application Application Application Application Comprehension Knowledge Comprehension Comprehension Knowledge Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Knowledge Comprehension Knowledge Tas k MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 Grammar (article) (an) Traffic, public Traffic, public Reading (is) Reading (and) Reading (sports) Reading (it) Reading (three-star) Reading (a) Reading (isn’t) Reading (in) Reading 2: True / False task Unit Sign Sign Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Knowledge Knowledge Knowledge Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC MC T/F 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Reading 2: True / False task Reading 2: True / False task Reading 2: True / False task Reading 2: Multiple choice Reading 2: Multiple choice Verb tense (plays)(simple present) Verb tense (finishes) Word form (friendly) Word form (dangerous) Rearrange Rearrange Transformation (make question) Transformation (be into/be interested in/ be keen on) Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Unit Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Comprehension Application Application Application Application Application Application Analysis Analysis T/F T/F T/F MC MC WF WF WF WF RW RW RW RW ... 5% 1, 0 = 10 % VI Read the passage VII Read the passage VIII Rearrange IX 2.0 = 20 % 1, 5 = 15 % 0,5 = 5% Writing Total Questions 14 Content Areas (UNIT) 0.5 = 5% 10 ,0 = 10 0% Objectives 10 11 12 13 ... 3.0 30% 17 -18 Sign (2x0.25) 0.5 5% 19 -22 Word form (language) and Verb 1. 0 10 % tenses (4x0.25) 23- 30 Cloze reading (8x0.25) 2.0 20% 31- 36 Reading (6x0.25) 1. 5 15 % 37-38 Sentence writing (2x0.25)... test items: 40 Scoring scheme: 10 Questions Tested aspects/ areas Score Weight 1- 2 Stress (2x0.25) 0.5 5% 3-4 Pronunciation (2x0.5) 0.5 5% 5 -16 Language/speaking (10 x0.25) 3.0 30% 17 -18 Sign