Bo 30 de thi tieng anh lop 11 moi giua ki 2 co dap an nam 2023

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo Đề thi Giữa kì 2 Môn Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11 Thời gian làm bài 60 phút (Đề 1) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the othe[.]

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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Mơn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A sugar B consume C trans-fat D obesity Question 2: A vitamin B mineral C diet D fitness

Question 3: A medicine B remedy C exercise D obesity Question 4: A balanced B yoga C fatty D natural

Question 5: A vegetable B hygiene C sugary D longevity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 6: Children often get vaccinated in order to be immune to fatal diseases

A susceptible B vulnerable

C allowed D resistant

Question 7: This kind of fruit helps to boost the immune system A decrease B reduce

C increase D maintain

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A Living standard B Longevity

C Life skills D Lifeline

Question 9: Here are some principles for people to stick to if they want to stay healthy

A rules B principals

C laws D duties

Question 10: We should consume healthy food and exercise regularly A store B purchase

C buy D eat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 11: Hoa reminded Lan some groceries on the way home A buying B to buying

C buy D to buy

Question 12: My friend suggested on a yoga course to lose weight A enrolled B enroll

C enrolling D to enroll

Question 13: Tom and Ken admitted to submit the assignments the day before

A to forget B to forgetting

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Question 14: The mother told her two daughters too much fast food A not to eat B to not eat

C to eat not D not eat

Question 15: The doctor said to Mr Black that if he ate lots of fatty food, he increase his chance of developing heart disease

A will be B will

C would be D would

Question 16: My yoga instructor asked me to close my eyes, breathe slowly and deeply, and about my problems

A not thinking B to think not

C not to think D not think

Question 17: The patient admitted his doctor's advice A to not follow B not to following

C to follow not D to following not

Question 18: Le's friend suggested some games to relax because they had studied for three hours

A playing B play

C to play D played

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A to him drink B to drink him

C him drink D him to drink

Question 20: Lan said that if I wanted to try natural remedies, I find useful information on the Internet

A will B can

C could D am able to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of healthy lifestyle and longevity

Question 21: Nam: What do you personally do to keep fit? - Lan: A I think keeping fit is necessary for everyone

B As far as I know, more and more people exercise to keep fit

C Fitness centres are mushrooming

D I just do morning exercise and maintain a balanced diet

Question 22: Lan: Do you think it's important for young people to keep fit? - Nam:

A Why do they need to keep fit?

B It's very important for old-aged people to have a healthy lifestyle

C I do think so As the main labour force of the country, they must be strong

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Super Size Me is a 2004 film by Morgan Spurlock, in which he documents his experiment to eat only McDonald's fast food three times a day, every day, for thirty days

Spurlock made himself a short list of rules for the experiment, including an obligation to eat all of the three meals he ordered He also had to ‘Super Size’, which means accepting a giant portion every time the option was offered to him He ended up vomiting after the first Super Size meal he finished, after taking nearly twenty minutes to consume it

After five days Spurlock put on almost 5kg, and he soon found himself feeling depressed, with no energy The only thing that got rid of his headaches and made him feel better was another McDonald's meal, so his doctors told him he was addicted More seriously, around day twenty, he started experiencing heart palpitations and one of the doctors detected liver problems However, in spite of his doctor's advice, Spurlock continued to the end of the month and achieved a total weight gain of 11kg His body mass index also increased from a healthy 23.2 to an overweight 27

It took Spurlock fifteen months to recover from his experiment and return to his original weight, but the film also had a wider impact Just after its showing in 2004, McDonald's phased out the Super Size option and healthier options like salads appeared on the menu Unfortunately, McDonald's denied the connection between the film and the changes, but it is interesting to note how closely they coincided with the release of the film

Question 23: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A An experiment with McDonald's fast food

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C Connection between fast food and heart diseases

D How fast food trigger liver damage

Question 24: Which of the following is TRUE about Morgan Spurlock? A He had to eat Super Size meal once a week

B He had to eat Super Size meal twice a day

C He had to eat Super Size meal three times a week

D He had to consume Super Size for three meals a day

Question 25: In paragraph 2, the word "giant” is closest in meaning to

A light B balanced

C big D healthy

Question 26: Which of the following could get rid of Spurlock's headaches?

A salad B a McDonald's meal

C a pain killer D nothing

Question 27: According to the passage, all of the following are the results of the experiment EXCEPT

A Spurlock put on weight

B the experiment affected his heart

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D he became fairly relaxed and energetic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 28: ‘I'll buy you a new bicycle if you stop eating junk food,' said Lam's mother

A Lam's mother promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food

B Lam's mother promises to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food

C Lam's mother will promise to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food

D Lam's mother had promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food

Question 29: 'You will boost your immune system if you exercise regularly,' said Tam

A Tam says that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly

B Tam said that we'd boost our immune system if we exercised regularly

C Tam said that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly

D Tam said that we boost our immune system if we exercised regularly

Question 30: 'Mai will recover quickly if she follows the doctor's advice, said Mai's father

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B Mai's father said she will recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice

C Mai's father said she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice

D Mai's father says she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 31: I thought I should ask the doctor about going on a diet I went to the surgery

A Having been on a diet, I went to the surgery

B I went to the surgery, so I asked the doctor about going on a diet

C I asked the doctor about going on a diet, so I went to the surgery

D I went to the surgery in order to ask about going on a diet

Question 32: I had to lose some weight I went on a strict diet A I had to lose some weight after I went on a strict diet

B I went on a strict diet in order to lose some weight

C I had to lose some weight before I went on a strict diet

D I had to lose some weight even when I went on a strict diet

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A Many people take up sports so as to keep fit

B Many people want to keep fit so as to take up sports

C Many people want to keep fit in order to take up sports

D Although people want to keep fit, they take up sports

Question 34: I want to stay healthy I try to eat lots of fruit A Although I try to eat lots of fruit, I stay healthy

B I stay healthy though I eat lots of fruit

C I try to eat lots of fruit in order to stay healthy

D I eat lots of fruit, but I stay healthy

Question 35: I didn't want to catch a cold I wore a warm coat and a scarf A I wore a warm coat and a scarf though I didn't want to catch a cold

B I wore a warm coat and a scarf, so I didn't want to catch a cold

C I wore a warm coat and a scarf, but I didn't want to catch a cold

D I wore a warm coat and a scarf in order not to catch a cold

Đáp án

1A 2C 3D 4B 5C

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11D 12C 13B 14A 15D 16C 17B 18A 19D 20C 21D 22C 23A 24D 25C 26B 27D 28A 29B 30C 31D 32B 33A 34C 35D

(Đề 2)

Question 1: A scholar B technique C archaeology D achievement

Question 2: A ancient B concern C associate D special

Question 3: A itinerary B abundant C elegance D landscape Question 4: A tomb B dome C mosaic D poetic

Question 5: A numerous B luxury C perfume D moment

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C view D scenery

Question 7: When I'm on holiday, I enjoy A getting sunburnt B getting sunstroke C having a sunbath D sunbathing

Question 8: The most popular destinations for holidays are Spain, Italy, and Greece

A charter B package C packed D packet

Question 9: When you are staying at a popular resort, there are plenty of to go on

A excursions B expeditions C pilgrimages D sightseeing

Question 10: One day when I'm rich and famous, I'm going to go on a round-the-world

A cruise B sail

C self-catering D survival

Question 11: You can save money by choosing a holiday A do-it-yourself B self-catering

C self-study D survival

Question 12: My favourite part of England is Cornwall There's some absolutely beautiful there

A nature B signs C scenery D views

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C on the beach D by the shore

Question 14: There's a path that out of the village to a beautiful 14th-century church

A follows B moves C takes D leads

Question 15: Costa Rica is one of the most beautiful places I have ever visited Wherever you go, you can see the of volcanoes, some of which are still alive

A tops B heads C mouths D ends

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions

Question 16: The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's unique beauty

A successful B agreeable C tasteful D fitting

Question 17: My Son Sanctuary is a large complex of religious relics comprising more than 70 architectural works such as towers, temples, and tombs

A royal B precious C holy D valuable

Question 18: In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can also enjoy mountain climbing

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Question 19: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and experience other activities

A unbreathable B heartbreaking C awe-inspiring D unforgettable

Question 20: They can enjoy the -comfort and elegance of five-star hotels and luxury cruise ships

A style B convenience C standard D grace

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great wonders of the world The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the Pharaoh It is the largest single structure in the world The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an incredible engineering feat The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations

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Question 21: The word “intersecting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A crossing B aligning C observing D cutting

Question 22: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolise? A Architects' plans for the hidden passages

B Pathways of the great solar bodies C Astrological computations

D Dates of important events taking place throughout time

Question 23: The word "prophesied” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A affiliated B precipitated C terminated D foretold

Question 24: Extraterrestrial beings are A very strong workers

B astronomers in the ancient times C researchers in Egyptology

D living beings from other planets

Question 25: What is the best title for the passage? A Symbolism of the Great Pyramid

B Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid C Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

D Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

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Question 26: “I'm not hot I'm absolutely roasting” – “ ” A You lucky thing! I'm sure you'll enjoy it

B Let's go and cool down in the sea C You'll get a lovely suntan

D Maybe you've got a sun stroke

Question 27: “Why don't you take your T-shirt off?” – “ ” A That sounds like a good idea

B Yes, let's take it off

C No, of course not It's boiling here D Because I don't want to get sunburnt

Question 28: “ ” – “That's a good idea! Then we'll still have a couple of hours left.”

A I'd like to suggest we see the Imperial first Then we'll have more time for the second attraction

B Why don't we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction

C What do you think about we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction

D How about see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction

Question 29: “ ” – “I'd like to see a cultural one.”

A Would you like to visit a natural or a cultural world heritage site? B Which site is worth visiting in Hue? The Citadel or the Royal Tombs? C Would you like to go to Tomb of Minh Mang or the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty?

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Question 30: “Can you recommend a good guest house in this area?” – “ ”

A I know I prefer a B and B round the corner B Yes, there's a nice B and B round the corner C Wow! It's very kind of you to ask me

D Let's stop at the first hotel we find Đáp án 1D 2B 3D 4A 5B 6C 7D 8B 9A 10A 11B 12C 13A 14D 15A 16B 17C 18B 19C 20D 21A 22D 23D 24D 25C 26B 27D 28B 29A 30B

(Đề 3)

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Question 1: A organiser B comfortable C technology D populated

Question 2: A presentation B pessimistic C residential D innovative

Question 3: A renewable B sustainable C insfrastructure D environment

Question 4: A familiar B generate C assignment D pollutant Question 5: A overcrowded B inhabitant C geography D convenient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 6: Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people It offers a healthy climate, a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces

A healthy B prosperous C modern D green

Question 7: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS

A new cure B important therapy

C sudden remedy D dramatic development

Question 8: They design and carry out projects aiming to reduce fossil fuel consumption, find renewable fuels for public transport, and promote other clean air efforts

A inexhaustible B recyclable C green

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 9: If I take the pessimistic viewpoint, Tokyo won't be a safe place to live in

A negative B optimistic C optical D neutral

Question 10: To reduce carbon emissions into the atmosphere, ways to limit the use of private cars must be found

A public B personal C common D shared

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 11: “What if I quit more than 3 sessions?” – “ ” A You won't take the final exam

B You wouldn't take the final exam

C You wouldn't be able to take the final exam D You can't take the final exam

Question 12: “ ” – “Yes, I love it here Everything I want is only five minutes away.”

A It's convenient to live here, isn't it? B It's comfortable to live here, isn't it? C It's inconvenient to live here, isn't it? D It's uncomfortable to live here, isn't it?

Question 13: “City dwellers are always so busy, aren't they?" – " ” A No, they aren't Everybody's rushing about all the time

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C I'm not sure Everybody's rushing about all the time D Yes, everybody's rushing about all the time

Question 14: “ ” – “London's so big It took me ages to find my way round.”

A What about London? B What was London? C How was London? D How about London?

Question 15: “Most cities aren't safe places to live, are they?" – " ” A No, I'm afraid There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'

B Yes, they are There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’

C Well, the opposite is true There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’ D On the contrary There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

MARRAKECH

Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine – without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (106) from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F

Marrakech is a city of (107) beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting with the snow-covered (108) of the Atlas Mountains in the distance For tourists, there's the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation, such as Hotel La Momounia, (109) as one of the top hotels in the world

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centuries ago And forget about shopping malls – for perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (113) the ‘souks’, open-air market places where you'll almost (114) find something to take back home

For those who want to (115) sport Marrakech has plenty to offer In addition to golf and tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the views of the surrounding area are quite spectacular Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated swimming pool and dream of your next visit

Question 16: A travel B trip C flight D voyage Question 17: A big B great C large D high

Question 18: A peaks B hills C heads D surfaces

Question 19: A thought B regarded C believed D guessed Question 20: A Because B However C Despite D Although Question 21: A Spectators B Viewers C Sightseers D Onlookers Question 22: A several B plenty C other D all

Question 23: A work out B put up with C head for D make up for Question 24: A likely B certainly C probably D possibly

Question 25: A do B exercise C take off D go in

LESSONS FROM CURITIBA

Urban planning deals with the physical, economic, and social development of cities Today urban populations are increasing rapidly, and growing cities are putting enormous pressure on the environment For this reason, the type of urban planning found in Curitiba, in southern Brazil, is more important than ever

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problems as many other cities all over the world, namely overcrowding, pollution, and an increased demand for services, transport, and housing How, then, did Curitiba address these problems?

By the 1940s the population of Curitiba had grown to about 150,000 as immigrants from countries such as Japan, Syria, and Lebanon came to work in agriculture and industry These people needed both housing and transportation Curitiba's leaders realised that it was not sensible to deal with these problems separately Consequently, they employed a French planner and architect, Alfred Agache, to find an overall solution Agache studied all aspects of the problem He designed a scheme which gave priority to public services such as sanitation and public transport At the same time, the scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop, and reduced traffic congestion This was the first scheme to address several problems of growing cities at the same time Unfortunately, some parts of his plan were not completed The result, as described below, was that his scheme only served Curitiba for another 20 years

By the 1960s, the population of Curitiba had grown to about 430,000 inhabitants, so the city had to rethink its needs In order to do this, the mayor put together a team of architects and town planners led by Jaime Lerner This team produced the Curitiba Master Plan This consisted of taking Agache's original plan and adding wide, high-speed roads which crossed the smaller streets Their proposals also included plans to minimise urban growth, reduce city centre traffic, and preserve the city's historic district It is clear that the Curitiba Master Plan was one of the first attempts to integrate all aspects of city planning

This integrated approach to urban design was maintained throughout the 1980s as Curitiba's population grew to almost one million inhabitants Environmental facilities were added, such as a recycling programme for household waste, and parks and 'green' spaces were protected from development However, good transportation remained central to the planning

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changes will continue be the population of Curitiba increases, but its city planners are continually searching for solutions to the problems Question 26: What aspect of development does urban planning NOT deal with?

A physical development B technical development C economic development D social development

Question 27: How many problems are mentioned in the passage as commonly shared by many cities?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

Question 28: What was the main cause of the increase in Curitiba's population Delore the 1940s?

A immigrants from rural areas B workers in business park

C immigrants from neighbouring countries D immigrants from Japan, Syria, and Lebanon

Question 29: In what ways was Agache’s approach different? A His scheme gave priority to public services

B His scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop

C His scheme reduced traffic congestion

D His scheme addressed several problems at the same time Question 30: What did the Curitiba Master Plan do?

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B reduced urban growth C prohibit city-centre traffic D all of the above

Đáp án 1C 2D 3C 4B 5A 6B 7D 8A 9B 10A 11D 12A 13D 14C 15A 16C 17B 18A 19A 20D 21C 22A 23C 24C 25B 26B 27D 28D 29D 30D

(Đề 4)

Question 1: A dweller B overcrowded C network D waste

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Question 4: A upgrade B presentation C description D consumption

Question 5: A disposal B optimistic C population D occupy Mark the letter A, B, G, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: Local authorities should find ways to limit the use of private cars and encourage city to use public transport

A commuters B planners C dwellers D people

Question 7: To get ready for the presentation, we can start preparing the slides while Jeremy will do the

A speaking B telling C talking D speech

Question 8: Located about 60 km southwest of Seoul, this eco city has been planned around a central park and designed so that every resident can walk to work in the business

A district B area

C location D organisation

Question 9: The waste system here is also innovative There are no rubbish trucks or waste bins in the street

A dump B disposal C landfill D throwaway

Question 10: London is a/an city It's a melting pot for people from all parts of the world

A international B national

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Question 11: This is the right DVD, ? A isn't this B is this

C isn't it D is it

Question 12: I'm not the only one, ? A aren't I B am I

C am not I D are not I

Question 13: Let's go out tonight, ? A shall we B will we

C could we D would we

Question 14: Don't forget to write to me soon, ? A would you B could you

C can you D will you

Question 15: Nothing frightens you, ? A does it B doesn't it

C do they D don't they

Question 16: You are expected to fasten the seatbelt you are driving A when B if

C whenever D all are correct

Question 17: If you need help, me! A will tell B let's tell

C let tell D tell

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A tend B will tend

C have tended D would tend

Question 19: If you see Karen, you ask her to call me? A shall B will

C do D would

Question 20: If you bully someone, you them to do things against their will

A will force B forced C force D would force

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 21: Won't (A) you be a lot (B) happier if (C) Dad came home (D) this weekend?

Question 22: Should Jade gets (A) to interview (B) a famous politician, she will (C) ask lots of (D) difficult questions

Question 23: If (A) her condition should (B) improve (C), we inform (D) you immediately

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 24: “ ?" – "It's ten minutes' walk from here.” A How long does it take to get to the town centre?

B Can you show me the way to the town centre? C How far is it from here to the town centre? D How can we get to the town centre?

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B I don't agree It's dull C It's interesting, wasn't it? D I'm sorry not

A NEW CAPITAL

When the new state of Pakistan was founded in 1947, Karachi acted as the capital city However, it was difficult for Karachi to remain in this role due to a number of drawbacks such as the climate and the state of the existing buildings Rather than try to overcome these drawbacks, the government decided to create a new capital city In 1959, a commission was established to investigate the possible locations of this new city The advisor appointed to the commission was Dr Doxiadis, a famous architect and city planner

Dr Doxiadis and his colleagues looked at the various locations They then produced a report suggesting two possible areas: one just outside Karachi and the other to the north of Rawalpindi Both locations had advantages as well as disadvantages Which site was it to be?

The choice between these two options was made after consideration of many factors, such as transportation, the availabilities of water, economic factors, and factors of national interest Finally, the site north of Rawalpindi was chosen and on the 24th February 1960, the new capital was given the name of ‘Islamabad’ and a master plan was drawn up This master plan divided the area into three different sections: Islamabad itself, neighbouring Rawalpindi, and the national park

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well-organised bazaars and shopping centres The new capital is a superb example of good urban planning

Question 26: Why was a commission founded in 1959? A to overcome the drawbacks of Karachi as a capital city B to create a new capital city for Pakistan

C to look into possibilities of the locations for a new capital city D to appoint an advisor for planning the new capital city

Question 27: How many places were suggested for the new capital city in the initial reports?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

Question 28: Which of the following factors was NOT considered when choosing the location for the new capital city?

A the climate and the state of the existing buildings B transportation and the availabilities of water C economic issues

D issues of pational interest

Question 29: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A Islamabad would serve cultural needs

B Rawalpindi would be the regional centre with industry and commerce C The national park would provide space for agriculture

D Islamabad would play the most important role of all Question 30: What does the passage primarily describe? A The history of the two capital cities of Pakistan

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C The reasons why Islamabad became the new capital city of Pakistan D The choice and development of Islamabad as the modern capital of Pakistan

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 31:You use your mobile phone a lot, so you have large phone bills

A If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you don't have large phone bills

B If you didn't use your mobile phone a lot, you wouldn't have large phone bills

C If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills

D If you won't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills

Question 32: I think you should tell your parents the truth A If I am you, I tell your parents the truth

B If I am you, I will tell your parents the truth C If I were you, I would tell your parents the truth D If I were you, I will tell your parents the truth

Question 33: My computer always crashes when a CD is inserted A If I insert a CD, my computer will crash

B If I insert a CD, my computer crashes

C If you want my computer to crash, insert a CD

D Unless you want my computer to crash, insert a CD

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B If water is heated long enough, it boils C If you heat water long enough, it boils D All are correct

Question 35: Plants and flowers can't live without water A If you water plants and flowers, they can't live

B If you water plants and flowers, they will live

C If you don't water plants and flowers, they can't live D Unless you water plants and flowers, they live

Đáp án 1B 2A 3C 4D 5A 6C 7C 8A 9B 10D 11C 12B 13A 14D 15A 16D 17D 18A 19B 20C 21D 22A 23D 24C 25A 26C 27B 28A 29D 30D 31B 32C 33B 34D 35C

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(Đề 5)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following sentences

Question 1: Mary: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony:" _”

A Not at all I've finished my job B Yes, you can use it

C Of course not I still need it now D Yes It’s all right

Question 2: Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?” - Trump: “ _” A I don't hope so B I don't hope so

C I hope not D I think not

Mark the letter A, B C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Question 3: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in 1991

A treated B dedicated C helped D started

Question 4: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger A at the target B in accident

C at stake D in comfort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences

Question 5: My father is in _ of 30 engineers and 80 workers A pressure B leadership

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Question 6: taken my parents’ advice, I wouldn't be a teacher now

A Had I B If I hadn’t

C If I would have D Could I have

Question 7: He is decorating his house _selling it A in order to B with a view to

C in order that D so that

Question 8: On _ he had won the first prize in the competition, he cried out with joy

A being told B having cold C telling D saying

Question 9: By the end of this March he here for 20 years A has been living

B will live

C will have been living D will be living

Question 10:The government is aiming _ 50% reduction unemployment

A at /of B in/ to C on/ at D at /in

Question 11: I am not going to study French and A so is he B neither is he

C he isn’t too D either isn’t he

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A weather-beaten B up-to-date C long-term D wide-range

Question 13: I believe nobody survived the plane crash _ A did I B didn’t they

C did they D did he

Question 14: they arrived they were told to go back A No sooner/when B Scarcely had/when

C Scarcely/when D Hardly/when

Question 15: Yuri Gagarin was the first person into space A has traveled B traveling

C traveled D to travel

Question 16: To preserve that _, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it

A civilize B civilization C civility D civil

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 17: A kite B bite C favorite D quite

Question 18: A coached B needed C wanted D beloved

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

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the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, which provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries (20) _, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising cost of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access

Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (21) on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public schools tend to reflect the financial capabilities of the communities in which they are located Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (22) abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support In (23) school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and maintain books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged

Question 19: A digit B amount C number D numeral

Question 20: A Otherwise B Therefore C Consequently D Nevertheless

Question 21: A rely B come C go D stay Question 22: A for B with C on D by

Question 23: A conflict B converse C contrary D contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the questions

Question 24: By the time Robert will finish writing the first draft of his paper, most of the other students will have completed their final draft A will finish B writing

C most D their

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A team leader

B his team members C attitude towards work D and that they work hard

Question 26: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner

A Each B cars C quickly D their

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer to each of the questions

An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today As technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions Many of more important air pollutants such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities

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the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level Carbon monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm

Question 27: What does the passage mainly discuss? A The economic impact of air pollution

B What constitutes an air pollutant

C How much harm air pollutants can cause

D The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere Question 28: The word "adversely" is closest in meaning to A negatively B quickly

C admittedly D considerably

Question 29: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that A water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled C the definition of air pollution will continue to change D a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities

Question 30: The word "these" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A the various chemical reactions

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D the components in biogeochemical cycles

Question 31: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?

A They function as part of a purification process

B They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants

C They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants D They have existed since the Earth developed

Question 32: The word "localized” is closest in meaning to A specified B circled

C surrounded D encircled

Question 33: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to

A beneficial B special C measurable D separable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the semtence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 34: People should not throw rubbish in the park People should not cut down the trees in the park

A People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park B People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park

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A The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as well

B Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there

C Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well