ENTRANCE EXAM 01 PART A PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others 1 A books B clubs C hats D stamps 2 A proud B about C around D w[.]
ENTRANCE EXAM 01 PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others A books B clubs C hats D stamps A proud B about C around D would A passed B watched C played D washed II Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A happy B people C exchange D picture A again B table C teacher D happen PART B: VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences I dislike (watch) _documentary, but my father love it Mai spends most of the time (wander) _on the internet The last time I (go) _to England months ago At this time yesterday I and Thu (listen) _to music 10 If you get up early, you (not be ) _late II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11 Stop, Nam It’s _ to be near the stove (danger) 12 If we continue littering, the environment will become _polluted (serious) 13 My brother is a _driver He’s never had any accidents (care) 14 The flowers were _arranged by my mother (beauty) 15 We all know that pesticides are _for the environment (harm) III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16 I live 12 Le Lai street A at B in C on D from 17 Rice in our country A grow B grew C is grow D is grown 18 Ha wishes he .around the world A can travel B could travel C travels D traveling 19 You’ve lived in this city since 1998, ? A haven’t you B didn’t you C did you D have you 20 The man is talking with An is my brother A whom B whose C which D who 21 If I knew her address, I write to her A will B will be C would D won’t 22 He laughed when he was watching “Tom and Jerry” on TV A happy B happily C happiness D unhappy 23 I suggest a picnic on the weekend A to have B having C had D have 24 Solar energy doesn’t cause A pollution B polluted C pollute D pollutant 25 Nam: “Would you like some orange juice, Linh? Linh: “ ” A Yes please B I’m very thirsty C Yes, I would D Yes, I PART C: READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box because - to - where - these - sold Recently shopping online has become very popular (26) of the vast availability of internet Online shopping is one kind of E-business (27) one consumer can directly shop over the internet Ebay and Amazon are the most popular and trusted website for shopping online Millions of products are (28) all over the world through this E-business model Nowadays, most of the people are very busy Going to the market or supermarket takes them a lot of time so they prefer (29) shop online They just stay at home, open the computer and choose the goods they want Besides (30) advantages, shopping online has got many disadvantages as well II Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D Sydney is Australia’s most exciting city The history of Australia begins here In 1788 Captain Arthur Philips arrived in Sydney with 11 ships and 1624 passengers from Britain (including 770 prisoners) Today there are about 3.6 million people in Sydney It is the biggest city in Australia, the busiest port in the South Pacific and one of the most beautiful cities in the world In Sydney, the buildings are higher, the colors are brighter and the nightlife is more exciting There are over 20 excellent beaches close to Sydney and its warm climate and cool winter have made it a favorite city for immigrants from overseas There are two things that make Sydney famous: its beautiful harbor, the Sydney Harbor Bridge, which was built in 1932 and the Sydney Opera House, which was opened in 1973 31 Where did Captain Arthur Philips arrive in 1788? A South Pacific B Sydney Harbor C Britain D Sydney 32 Which of the following should be the title of the reading passage? A Sydney’s Opera House B An introduction of Sydney C Sydney’s beaches and habors D The history of Sydney 33 Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sydney? A Sydney is one of the most beautiful cities in the world B Sydney is not a favorite city for immigrants from overseas C Sydney is the most exciting city in Australia D Sydney is the busiest port in the South Pacific 34 How many beaches are there close to Sydney? A 11 beaches B over 20 beaches C nearly 20 beaches D 770 beaches 35 When was the Sydney Harbor Bridge built? A 1788 B 1624 C 1973 D 1932 III Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage On March 11, 2020, the World Health Organization announced that the COVID-19 virus was officially a pandemic after barreling through 114 countries in three months and (36) over 118,000 people And the spread wasn’t anywhere near finished COVID-19 is caused by a (37) coronavirus - a new coronavirus strain that has not been previously found in people Symptoms include respiratory problems, fever and cough, and can lead to pneumonia and death Like SARS, it’s (38) through droplets from sneezes The first reported case in China appeared November 17, 2019, in the Hubei Province, but went unrecognized Eight more (39) appeared in December with researchers pointing to an unknown virus Many learned about COVID-19 when ophthalmologist Dr Li Wenliang defied government (40) and released safety information to other doctors The following day, China informed WHO and charged Li with a crime Li died from COVID-19 just over a month later Without a vaccine available, the virus spread beyond Chinese borders and by mid- March, it had spread globally to more than 163 countries On February 11, the infection was officially christened COVID-19 36 A infecting B abusing C pressing D finishing 37 A stable B novel C unsure D broken 38 A revealed B exposed C gathered D spread 39 A regions B items C cases D sites 40 A sentences B orders C alphabets D letters PART D: WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 She went to bed early because of her sickness Because _ 42 Practice speaking English everyday or you can’t improve your English If 43 He has been studying English for years He started _ 44 People speak English all over the world English 45 “I want to be a teacher” Mary said Mary said that II Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given 46 What about using gas instead of burning coal? (suggest) I _ 47 I don’t find it difficult to stay up late now (used) I 48 “Please, open the window, Nam” said his brother (asked) Nam’s brother 49 You should learn harder in Math for the next exam (ought) You 50 The question of the test wasn’t as hard as I thought (than) The question _ ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others B D C II Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each C A PART B: VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences 6.watching 7.wadering 8.went 9.were listening 10.won’t be II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11.dagerous 12.seriously 13.careful 14.beautifully 15.harmful III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.D 21.C 22.B 23.B 24.A 25A PART C: READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box 26 because 27 where 28.sold 29.to 30 these II Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 31.D 32.B 33.B 34.B 35.D III Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage 36.A 37.B 38.D 39.C 40.B PART D: WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 Because she was sick, she went to bed early 42 If you don’t practice speaking English every day, you can’t improve your English 43 He started studying English years ago 44 English is spoken all over the world 45 Mary said that she wanted to be a teacher II Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given Don’t change the word given 46 I suggest using gas instead of burning coal 47 I am/get used to staying up late 48 Nam’s brother asked him to open the window 40 You ought to learn harder in Math for the next exam 50 The question was easier than I thought ENTRANCE EXAM 02 PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others A smile B kind C polite D silly A watched B cooked C finished D managed A too B food C blood D soon II Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A cover B injection C condition D contact A weather B typhoon C highland D ladder PART B : VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences My brother (listen) _ to music every night Yesterday when I came to see Peter, he (do) _ his homework Mr Mathew wishes all students (be) _ always strong to study better So far, Mr John (write) _ one hundred books 10 Tim always (blame) _ his faults on the others II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11 Elvis Presley was a _ pop singer (FAME) 12 This road is much _ than I thought (LENGTH) 13 If you want to _ your English, we can help you (IMPROVEMENT) 14 Fashion _ want to change the traditional ao dai (DESIGN) 15 Women nowadays have more _ to participate in social activities.(FREE) III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16 My house _in 1986 A is built B was building C was built D has been built 17 The doctor _me not to stay up too late at night A advised B suggested C insisted D forced 18 Tomorrow we'll go to Noi Bai Airport to meet Maryam, comes from Malaysia A who B whom C whose D that 19 We have learnt English 2001 A for B since C in D during 20 It's very hot today I wish I _on the beach now A am B was C were D had been 21 When he lived in the city, he _to the theater twice a week A uses to go B has gone C used to go D was going 22 Nobody went to the party, _? A does he B they C didn’t they D did they 23 It is nearly months _he visited his parents A while B during C since D when 24 If we _enough time, we’ll study this exercise more carefully A will have B have C had D would have 25 - Thank you very much.- A Welcome you! B Don’t mention it C That’s good! D Nothing impossible! PART C: READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box say English during learning picked When I first started (26) _ English ten years ago I could hardly (27) _a word “hello”, “goodbye”, “thank you” was just about it! I went to classes two evenings a week and I was surprised at how quickly I made progress (28) the course we learned lots of vocabulary and studied grammar rules The thing I enjoyed most was being able to practice (29) _ with the other students in my class After two years I went to England to a language school It was in Cambridge I did a three – week course at a very good school and I stayed with a local family It was a fantastic experience and I (30) up a lot of new language from speaking with my host family and with other students from all over the world I really improved my pronunciation as well When I got back to Spain, I was so much more confident I could actually hold a conversation with my teacher in English II Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 The invention of the phonograph happened quite by accident Thomas Edison moved to Menlo Park, New Jersy in 1876, where he established an industrial research laboratory There, Edison was working on a carbon telephone transmitter to improve the existing Bell telephone system In that laboratory a year later, Edison invented the phonograph while he was trying to improve a telegraph repeater He attached a telephone diaphragm to the needle in the telegraph repeater; in this way, he was able to reproduce a recording that could be played back After he made some improvements to the machine, he tested it He recited “Mary Had a Little Lamb” into the machine and played his voice back to a very surprised audience 31.What is the best title for the passage? A Thomas Edison’s many inventions B Improvements in telephone and telegraph C The History of Menlo Park D An accidental invention 32.In what year did the invention of phnograph occur? A 1876 B 1877 C 1878 D the article does not say 33.What was Edison working on when he created the phonograph A A telegraph repeater B A telegraph diaphragm C A telephone repeater D A telephone diaphragm 34.According to the passage, how was the phonograph made? A With a telephone needle and a recorder B From a recording of a telegraph C With only a telegraph repeater D From a combination of telephone & telegraph part 35.According to the passage, how did Edison test his new invention? A He made improvements to the machine B He used a carbon transmitter C He read a children’s rhyme D He produced the audience voice III Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage Today, computer companies sell many different programs for computers First, there are programs for doing math problems (36) _, there are programs for scientific studies Third, some programs are like fancy typewriters They are often used by writers and business people Other (37) _are made for courses in schools and universities And finally, there are programs for fun They include word games and puzzles for children and adults There are many wonderful new computer programs, but there are other reasons to like (38) _ Some people like the way computers hum and sing when they (39) _ It is a happy sound, like the sounds of toy and childhood Computers also have lights and pretty pictures And computers even seem to have personalities That may sound strange, but computers seem to have feelings Sometimes they seem happy, sometimes they seem angry It is easy (40) _they are like people 36 A Two B Second C Twice D Double 37 A programs B people C students D typewriters 38 A programs B reasons C games D computers 39 A work B have worked C are working D worked 40 A to think B thinking C for thinking D that thought PART D: WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 Millions of people watch this popular TV program every week ÒThis popular TV program _ 42 Although her leg was broken, she managed to get out of the car ÒIn spite of _ 43 I spend three hours doing my homework every day Ò It takes _ 44 "Where you live?", asked Nam Ò Nam asked me _ 45 Unless he phones immediately, he won’t get any information Ò If he _ II Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given Don’t change the word given 46.Would you turn off the lights, please? (MIND) 47.Mr Cuong likes playing basketball in the morning (INTERESTED) 48.You must study English every day (HAVE TO) 49.The book is very interesting My father bought it yesterday (WHICH) 50.My brother looked after our children when we were away (TOOK) ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others D D C II Choose the word (A, B, C or D)whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A B PART B : VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences listens was doing 8.were has written 10 is always blaming II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11.famous 12.longer 13 improve 14 designers 15 freedom III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16.C 17 A 18 A 19 B 20 C 21.C 22.D 23 C 24 B 25 B PART C: READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box 26.learning 27 say 28.during 29.English 30 pick II.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 31 D 32 B 33 A 34 D 35 C III.Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage 36 B 37 A 38 D 39 C 40 A PART D : WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 This popular TV program is watched by millions of people every week 42 In spite of her broken leg, she managed to get out of the car 43 It takes me three hours to my homework everyday 44 Nam asked me where I lived 45 If he doesn’t phone immediately, he won’t get any information II Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given Don’t change the word given 46.Would you mind turning off the lights ? 47 Mr Cuong is interested in playing basketball in the morning 48 You have to study English everyday 49.The book which my father bought yesterday is very interesting 50 My brother took care of our children when we were away ENTRANCE EXAM 03 PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others A plays B stops C months D books A thanks B month C theater D brother A missed B stopped C pleased D washed II Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A questions B provide C agree D alone A arcade B invite C author D cartoon PART B: VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences My mother used (make) me clean the house in the morning My house ( build) at present If the weather ( be) sunny, we will go to Sam Son beach tomorrow I had a phone call while I (surf) the wed yesterday 10 She left school last year Since then she (work) as a waitress at a local pub II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11 Television is one of the cheapest forms of _ (entertain) 12 She has one of the biggest in Britain (collect) 13 Street noise is one of the of living in the city (advantage) 14 Thousands of people have been made by the war (home) 15 My teacher _me to take this examination (courage) III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16 I love this city! The sights of it make a deep on me A impress B impressed C impressing D impression 17 John: “Would you mind if I turned off the light?”Mark: “ ” A No, I wouldn’t B Yes, I wouldn’t C Yes, I don’t mind D No, I don’t mind 18 You can take part in sports activities or not, that depends on you It’s A optional B forceful C compulsory D required 19 The hospital building is divided four sections A in B into C to D about 20 Did he live in the country when he was young? A use to B used to C get used to D be used to 21 Tam wishes his father here now to help him A is B were C will be D would be 22 We were having dinner when the telephone A ring B ringing C rang D was ringing 23 She arrived four o’clock the afternoon A at / on B in / in C at / in D on / in 24 The cooker is displayed at Nguyen Kim Supermarket looks modern A why B which C who D whose 25 My father asked us too much time playing computer games A not to spending B did not spend C to not spend D not to spent PART C: READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box love means creates get improve When waste is sent to landfill, air cannot get to the organic waste Therefore as the waste breaks down it (26)……… a harmful greenhouse gas, methane, which damages the Earth's atmosphere However, when this same waste is composted above ground at home, oxygen helps the waste to decompose aerobically which (27) …………hardly any methane is produced, which is good news for the planet And what's more, after nine to twelve months, you (28)………a free fertiliser for your garden and plant pots to keep them looking beautiful Your compost is a nutrient-rich food product for your garden and will help (29)……… soil structure, maintain moisture levels, and keep your soil's pH balance in check while helping to suppress plant disease It will have everything your plants need including nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium and it will help buffer soils that are very acidic or alkaline Compost improves your soil's condition and your plants and flowers will (30)……… it! II Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 Britain is now a highly industrialized country and there are only 238,000 farms in the UK More and more farmers leave the land because they cannot earn enough money to survive Only large farms are economic and because of this, most British farms are big They usually grow cereals in the east of England and raise sheep and cows in the north of England and Scotland The small family farms often have to earn more money by offering bed and breakfast accommodation to tourists Farming methods in Britain have also changed Fields used to be quite small, divided by hedges which were sometimes a thousand years old and full of wild flowers and birds Many hedges were pulled up to allow farmers to use modern machinery Now most fields in England are large by European standards 31 British farmers give up working on their farms because A they don’t want to continue to live there B they are forced to leave the land C they can’t earn their own living by farming D they are bored of the farm work 32 Most British farms are big because A most British farmers are rich B farming is now industrialized C small farms are uneconomic D there are plenty of abandoned land 33 The small family farms often offer bed and breakfast accommodation to tourists A so as to improve their earnings B to show their friendship C so that the tourists will return in their farm the next time D because they want to have more tourists to their farms 34 Fields on British farms used to be A large forests B separated from each other by hedges C full of the tall plants D full of flowers grown by farmers 35 Which of the following sentences is NOT true? A Many hedges are pulled down for farmers to use modern machinery B Breeding farms are usually in the north of England C Cereals are usually grown in the east of England and Scotland D Most fields in England are now larger than they used to be III Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage I (36) _my teaching career nearly ten years ago I spent six years (37) _in a remote village where the villagers were very poor and the living standard was low Sometimes I was very disappointed (38) _bad living condition and low pay I was really homesick However, at that time with my youth enthusiasm, I tried my best to devote myself to the noblest career, which was "teaching" I loved my poor little students They (39) _living in poverty but they could not suffer from empty mind I am proud (40) _ myself to be a teacher, a hard working "boatman" taking my students to the "destination" of knowledge 36 A begin B had begun C have begun D began 37 A having taught B taught C teaching D to teach 38 A because of 39 A was 40 A on B because B were B of C so D despite C are D is C about D in PART D: WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41.Everyday she spends two hours learning English Everyday it takes _ 42.It’s two years since I last spoke to her I haven’t 43.I can’t remember the answers to these questions I wish 44.“I must go to Ha Noi tomorrow.” said Nam Nam _ 45.Can you use this computer? II.Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given Don’t change the word given 46.Do you know Lan’s address?” he asked me (whether) 47.They have decorated and cleaned their house for a week (started) 48.If we don’t protect the environment, our life will be badly affected (Unless) 49.The film was very amusing, so no one could stop laughing (such) 50.Mai is the tallest student in the group (No) ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others A D C II Choose the word (A, B, C or D)whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A C PART B : VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I.Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences to make is being built 8.is 9.was surfing 10 has worked II.Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11 entertainment 12.collection 13 disadvangtages 14 homeless 15 encouraged III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20.A 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 B 25 D PART C : READING I Complete the passage with the words in the box 26.creates 27 means 28.get 29 improve 30.love II Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 31 C 32 C 33 A 34 B 35 C III.Read and choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage 36 D 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 B PART D : WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 Every day it takes her two hours to learn English 42 I haven’t spoken to her for two years 43 I wish I could remember the answers to these questions 44 Nam said he had to go to Hanoi the following day/the day after/the next day 45 You can use this computer, can’t you? II Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence, using the word given Don’t change the word given 46 He asked me whether I knew Lan’s address 47 They started decorating and cleaning their house a week ago 48 Unless we protect the environment, our life will be badly affected 49 It /That was such an amusing film that no one could stop laughing 50 No student in the group is taller than Mai ENTRANCE EXAM 04 PART A : PRONUNCIATIONS I Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others A radio B play C ride D newspaper A now B mouse C couch D snow A children B lunch C teacher D headache II Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each A effort B subtract C primary D suffer A important B consider C holiday D semester PART B : VOCABULARYS AND GRAMMARS I Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets in the following sentences We (not have) good meal for three weeks He (go) to England two years ago Mr Lam usually (ride) an old man from District to District If I (study) medicine, I will become a doctor 10 Marie Curie(earn) physics degree before she took another degree in mathematics II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11.I’m very because they use electricity to catch fish (worry) 12.If the continues, what will happen? (pollute) 13.There are many throughout a year (celebrate) 14.Islam is Malaysia’s religion (office) 15.Passover of the Jewish people is a festival which celebrate from slavery.(free) III Choose the word / phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence 16.We _five lessons yesterday A have studied B studies C studied D study 17.When I was at secondary school, I _games with my neighbor A ’m used to playing B used to play C use to play D used to playing 18.You are not allowed to camp here without _ A decision B permission C preparation D protection 19.A nurse is a person _ looks after patients A what B she C who D which 20.We send letters _almost every part of the world with the help of computers ... working D worked 40 A to think B thinking C for thinking D that thought PART D: WRITING I Rewrite the following sentences so that keep the same meaning 41 Millions of people watch this popular TV program... time, we’ll study this exercise more carefully A will have B have C had D would have 25 - Thank you very much.- A Welcome you! B Don’t mention it C That’s good! D Nothing impossible!... books 10 Tim always (blame) _ his faults on the others II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences 11 Elvis Presley was a _ pop singer (FAME) 12 This road