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GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2 points / 0.25 each Choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each space in the following passage.. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2 points / 0.25 each Choose the corre

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-0971.192.688 -Mua toàn bộ đề 70 đề và đáp án tuyển sinh lớp

call: 0971.192.688

BỘ ĐỀ NĂM HỌC

2017 – 2018

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 01

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A market B depart C card D scare

2 A entrance B paddy C bamboo D banyan

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. The children have to come back before dark, ?

A haven’t they B have they C don’t they D do they

5. If the product were not safe, we it

A don’t sell B sold C would not sell D will sell

6. The people live next door to us are very nice

7. “Are you doing anything on Friday?” “ ”

A I agree B No problem C Not really D Why not?

8. The new instructions are the old ones

A more difficult B difficult as C difficult than D more difficult than

9. If you want to learn something, you had better pay in class

A attention B respect C care D notice

10. “Have you been in Tokyo long?” “ ”

A Yes, three years ago B Yes, about three years

C Yes, since three years D Until the 30th of June

11. The restaurant is open on weekends, not on holidays

12. Although he loved his country, most of his life abroad

A he spent B so he spent C but spent D but he spent

13. The man _ is talking to Mrs Lan is my father

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. He is very kind, so everyone likes her so much

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage (17) the world’s energy resources have taken many millions of years to produce; weare quickly beginning to (18) these supplies Recently a UN committee reported (19) _the world’s oil and gas supplies would last about 100 years if used (20) _ The report stated that

(21) would be enough oil and gas for a century only if the present demand could becontrolleD If the demand continued to (22) , the report said that fuel supplies would (23)

for less than forty years According to the report, governments must now take steps to controlthe amounts of fossil fuel (24) _ are used

17 A Although B Despite C In spite of D Due to

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21 A it B this C they D there

22 A grow B decrease C reduce D enlarge

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 Food and clothing are of life (necessary)

2 She can find no to her financial troubles (solve)

3 All to Washington are delayed because of the bad weather (fly)

4 The of their house left them no place to live (destroy)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each)

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

Brazil, the largest country in South America and the fifth largest country in the world, is located

in the eastern half of South American The people of Brazil are famous for their outgoing, friendly and fun-loving nature Brazilian women are considered to be among the best dressed in the world

Brazil is a federal republic with 23 states The capital city is Brasilia Portuguese is the official language and it is spoken with a distinct Brazilian accent Brazil has a population of over 138 million, which is made up of people of many different races and ethnic groups

A number of industrial products are produced in Brazil, including cars, chemicals, ships, machines and military weapons Mining is also an important industry Agriculture is another important industry Many crops are exported including coffee (Brazil is the largest coffee grower in the world), cotton, soybeans, sugar, cocoa, rice, corn and fruit

5. Brazil is the biggest country in South American

6. Brazilian people are well-known for their friendliness

7. The official languages in Brazil are Spanish and English

8. The most significant agricultural products in Brazil is tea

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. The man is my father He is sitting beside my mother (Combine the sentences, using a suitable

relative pronoun)

=> The man who

10. He has done all the exercises in that book (Change the sentence into the passive voice) => All the exercises

11 They had reviewed the lessons carefully, so they did the test very well (Rewrite sentence using because) => Because

12. He asked me: “Do you want me to go with you?” (Change the sentence into reported speech) => He asked me

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 02

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each):

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

2 A involved B decided C explained D swallowed

3 A machine B cheap C teacher D child

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. All members in her family are aware of saving _

A energize B energetic C energy D energetically

5. Mrs Hoa is a Buddhist She goes to to pray

A church B pagoda C temple D mosque

6. Last night, we our children to the biggest zoo in town

7. He finished his exercises on time

A His exercises were finish on time B His exercises were finished on time

C His exercises are finished on time D His exercises was finished on time

8. This test must be done

A care B careful C carefully D none is correct

9. I just had to take the dog out of the awful weather

A although B despite C even though D in spite

10. Going swimming in the summer is very interesting, it?

11. They enjoyed football after school

A to play B playing C played D play

12. Jeans all over the world

13. They have lived in Ho Chi Minh City three years

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. The village which he was born is in the southwest of EnglanD

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

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whether we are pleased of angry, for instance.

17 A reasons B ways C rules D tests

18 A talks B languages C systems D sounds

19 A important B expensive C simple D easy

20 A word B vocabulary C grammar D structure

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 Ba Na is a famous _ resort (mountain)

2 Look at the _ Rain Bi looks handsome (advertise)

3 Our are friendly to visitors (village)

4 At the _ to the village, we saw the accident (enter)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

I lived in the Middle East for a while, and when I went out, I had to obey the local custom of wearing something over my head and wearing a dress that covered my whole body At first, I found it a real nuisance, but after a while, I got used to it and even started to like it You feel really secure, and also you don't have to worry about what to wear all the time

5. The writer lives in the Middle East now

6. She was very annoyed at the costume

7. She felt confident and safe when she wore the costume

8. She didn’t have to think of what to wear every day

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. My friend Tom can compose songs Tom sings Western folk songs very well

 My friend Tom who

10. We can’t drive our car because of the heavy fog  The heavy fog

11. It is said that he is a secret agent  He is

12. He is sorry that he didn’t go to the party yesterday  He wishes

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 03

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each):

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A mechanic B machine C character D chemical

2 A needed B planted C decided D stayed

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. Don't disturb me I've got work to do

A a lot B a great deal C many D much

5. We avoid our environment

A polluted B polluting C to pollute D pollute

6. They often go to to pray because their religion is Islam

A mosque B temple C shrine D church

7. "Where are you going?" he asked her  _

A He asked her where she is going B He asked her where you were going

C He asked her where was she going D He asked her where she was going

8. The meeting is cancelled Mr Tan’s plane was late

A while B because C although D with

9. The meeting will be held Thursday

10. Please me any time if you need help

A will call B calls C call D calling

11. They are very and have no time for a hobby

12. I think you’d rather to the mountains for your holiday

13. We don't allow passengers in this part of the building

A smoke B to smoke C smoking D smoked

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. This chair, that has been broken for weeks, must be repaired

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

These days it is impossible to open the newspaper (17) _ reading about the damage we aredoing to the environment The earth is being threatened (18) _ the future looks bad. (19) _can each of us do?

We cannot clean (20) _ our polluted rivers and seas overnight Nor can we stop the (21)

_ of plants and animals But we can stop adding to the problem (22) _ scientists look foranswers

It may not be easy to change your lifestyle completely but some steps are easy to take cut downthe amount of driving you do, or use as little plastic as possible It is also easy to save (23) _

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17 A with B without C and D but

21 A appear B appearance C disappear D disappearance

22 A where B during C while D within

23 A water B energy C money D health

24 A adds B increases C reduces D supplies

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 It was an day (enjoy)

2 Thanks to television, people can get the latest around the world quickly (inform)

3 The Internet has developed and became part of our daily life (increase)

4 Because of his driving, he caused an accident (care)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

There are great round holes on the moon They look like big lakes They are called craters There are more than 30,000 craters on the moon There are also high mountains The highest mountains on the moon are about 26, 000 feet or 8,000 meters high

And here is something very interesting to know: on the moon you weigh one sixth of what you weigh

on earth If you weigh 50 kilos, on the moon you will weigh only a little more than 8 kilos You will be able

to jump very high, even higher than an Olympic Champion You can take very long steps as well And… Maybe you won’t sleep very well because one day on the moon lasts for two weeks

5. The great round holes on the moon look like big lakes

6. The highest mountains on the moon are about eight thousand meters high

7. You can’t jump high on the moon because you are heavy

8. The day on the moon lasts for fourteen days

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9 We got wet in the rain; we forgot to bring along our raincoats (Join two sentences into one using because)

=> Because

10 The woman is my mother She is talking to Ms Thao (Combine sentences using relative pronoun) => The woman

11 The children are interested in watching cartoons on TV (Rewrite sentence, keep meaning as the root one) => The children love

12 This boy can swim very well (Rewrite sentence, keep meaning as the root one) => This boy is

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 04

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each):

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. He is very lonely He doesn’t have _ friends

5. Susan has been learning the piano _ two years

6. The Nile is _river in the worlD

A long B longer C the longest D the lengthy

7. The old man you wanted to see was away on holiday yesterday

8. Charlie said, "I'm thinking of going to live in Canada"

A Charlie said that I was thinking of going to live in Canada

B Charlie said that I am thinking of going to live in Canada

C Charlie said that he was thinking of going to live in Canada

D Charlie said that he is thinking of going to live in Canada

9. I don’t like using the Internet because it has some

A benefits B advantages C limitations D disadvantages

10. The next stage of the of television is interactive TV

A revolution B resolution C development D invention

11. Mary suggested that they together

A should go B goes C went D will go

12. If we plant more trees along the streets, we the amount of pollution in the atmosphere

A reduce B reduced C will reduce D would reduce

13. They were that he refused to help them

A surprising B surprised C surprisingly D surprise

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. The taxi driver told me that he will take me to the hotel

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Garbage is a (17) _ problem in the United States Every year, Americans produce about

308 billion pounds A lot of the garbage goes (18) _the landfills But many landfills do not haveroom (29) all the garbage One (20) to the garbage problem is recycling Half of all thegarbage in the U.S can be (21) and reused Recycling helps the landfills problem and (22)

enough energy too When people recycling newspapers, they save (23) when theyrecycling glass, plastic, or cans They save oil and electricity Recycling is good for (24) _

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20 A talk B tell C answer D ask

21 A reused B recycled C product D reduced

22 A save B saving C to save D saves

23 A water B paper C electricity D trees

24 A everything B nobody C something D someone

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1. She was ………. pleased that she passed the exam (extreme)

2. I want to see the ………. of environment from the local authority (protect)

3. I’m very ………. because they use electricity to catch fish (worry)

4. If we go on littering, the environment will become ………. polluted.(serious)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

It was the first time Jim went to HCM city with his parents When the plane landed at Tan San Nhat airport, the day was fine There was s bright sun, and the sky was cloudless and blue It is said that HCM city is the city of sunshine

They took a taxi to the Rex Hotel, a very big hotel in the city center After checking in, they went upstairs to their room on the fifth floor Jim was happy to see the sight of the city Through the window

of the bedroom, he could see the beautiful picture of the city It was marvelous to see the city sparkling

in colorful light at night

Jim visited many of the places of interest such as Nha Rong Harbor, Dam Sen Park, Suoi Tien and Saigon Water Park HCM city is famous for shopping malls Jim bought a lot of souvenirs for his friends at Saigon Tourist Centre The next evening, the whole family walked along the streets, then came into a well-known vegetarian restaurant to enjoy delicious food It was really wonderful

5. He went to Ho Chi Minh City by air

6. Their room was on the sixth floor

7. Jim visited many places and bought a lot of souvenirs

8. This is the first time he has gone to HCM City

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. I lived in Germany when I was a child

=> I used

10. I began learning Chinese two years ago => I have

11. The police have just released John => John

12. We spent two hours getting to London => It took

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 05

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each):

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

2 A complain B lake C save D sample

3 A gemstone B measure C television D pleasure

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. He’s not really interested in _ on the farm

A to work B work C working D worked

5. Could you _ me how to use this mobile phone?

A was doing B show C explain D give

6. When you phoned me, I _ my homework

A was doing B did C am doing D have done

7. The air is polluted _ there is too much traffic

A because B therefore C however D but

8. Can you help me find the man _ saved the girl?

A which B who C whom D whose

9. Lan didn’t come to the party because she had to look _ her youngest brother

A at B for C forward D after

10. We felt _ when the New Year’s Eve was coming near

A excitement B excited C excitedly D exciting

11. Tet is a festival _ occurs in late January or early February

A What B which C when D where

12. The children have to come back before dark, _?

A haven’t they B do they C don’t they D have they

13. They enjoy _ computer games

A play B to play C played D playing

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. They told us that they enjoyed to listen to Pop music in their free time

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

The Director

L & P Transport Company

79B Nguyen Hue Boulevard

Ho Chi Minh City

I’m writing about the short stop that your trucks (17) around my house on their way tothe north When the trucks of your company have a short (18) there, the drivers have left lots ofgarbage on the ground (19) _ their refreshment When the trucks leave the place, the ground is

(20) _ of trash and a few minutes later there is bad smell and flies all over the place I myself,

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I am looking forward to hearing from you and (24) positive response from your company.

18 A break B relax C advertise D entertain

19 A after B before C between D with

20 A crowded B filled C fond D full

21 A as long as B as well as C as soon as D as far as

22 A clean B cleaning C to clean D cleaned

23 A Although B If C Because D Unless

24 A see B to see C seeing D saw

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 We all looked _ after the summer holidays (health)

2 I find that this magazine is very (inform)

3 In recent years, there has been many in science (develop)

4 The plane arrived _ after a violent storm (safe)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

John Brown is a lecturer He went to university in 1982, and was one of the best students at that time In 1990, he became a professor He has been a senior lecturer since then He is very well-known in his teaching career He has written five books about education, including a book “How to teach deaf children” in 1995 He has been to Thailand, the Philippines, and Vietnam to give lectures dealing with

“disabled students and integrated education” He was married to his assistant, Linda They have two children In the 1990s, they lived in the suburbs of London They are now living

in the center of the city In fact, they have lived there since 2000

5. When Mr John Brown went to university, he was the best student

6. He has written five books about entertainment

7. They are now living in the suburbs of London

8. He got married to one of his best students

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each)

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. Lan is taller than me

=> I am not

10. I don’t have a computer => I wish

11. She said “we must leave here for Hanoi tomorrow.” => She said

12. I am tired, so I can’t continue to learn => If

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 06

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. I'd like _ somewhere different for a change

5. The men and animals you saw on TV last night are in Africa

A who B that C which D none is correct

6. One of the most important for Vietnamese people is Tet

A celebrated B celebrations C celebrating D celebrat

7. Lan can’t go to the movie with us tonight because she has to _ her little sister

A look up B look after C look out D look for

8. She cleaned the house _ cooked dinner before her parents came home

9. –“What are you looking _?” –“My picture book I’ve lost it”

10. We were very _ that you won’t the first prize

11. Hurry up! Don’t walk otherwise we’ll be late for class

12. Peter will be here soon, ?

A will he B won’t he C is he D isn’t he

13. “I have something to show you now,” he said to me

A He told me that he has something to show me then

B He told me that he had something to show you then

C He told me that he had something to show you now

D He told me that he had something to show me then

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. The country who won the 1998 Tiger Cup is Singapore

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

We are all destroying the earth The sea and the rivers are too dirty to swim There is so (17)

_ smoke in the air that it is unhealthy to live in many of the world’s cities In one well- knowncity, for example, gases from cars (18) _ the air so much that the policemen have to wear oxygenmasks

We have cut down so many (19) _ that there are now vast areas of wasteland (20)

_ over the worlD As a result, farmers in parts of Africa can’t (21) _enough to eat In

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17 A a little B much C many D a few

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 He drives his car _ and he often has accident (careless)

2 It was _ last night (rain)

3 Paris is _ for the Eiffel tower (fame)

4 They seem to be _ We dislike them (friendly)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

A week ago, Huy's family went for a picnic in the country It was early spring, so they thought it was too cold to go to the seaside They set off early after breakfast and drove about forty-five kilometers into the country until they came to this favorite place Huy and his sister went into the woods to pick wild flowers Huy's parents sat quietly, fishing by the stream At 4.30 pm they put the plates, cups, saucers and other things back into the basket and went back to their car They got home at 5.00 p.m

5. Huy's family went for a picnic seven days ago

6. They went to the country by train

7. They came back home at 5.00 p.m

8. It's about 50 km from their house to the countryside

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. They began collecting stamps in 2005

 They have

10. She doesn’t have enough money for her schooling  She wishes

11. Her face is so funny that she always makes me laugh  She has such

12. Tuan lives on Trang Tien Street He studies in my class  Tuan, who

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 07

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A arrive B prison C sight D fine

2 A stopped B lived C played D arrived

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. The Ao dai is the _ dress of Vietnamese women

A traditionally B tradition C traditional D traditionalist

5. He may miss the train _ he doesn’t hurry

6. Mai _ in Ho Chi Minh City for five years now

A lives B live C is living D has lived

7. I’d love to go to the party _ I have to finish my homework

8. Let’s _ the television I want to read a book

A go on B turn off C turn on D go off

9. Tom and Mary don’t like news, _?

A do they B don’t they C did they D won’t they

10. If Ba _ rich, he would travel around the world

11. She _ whether I liked pop music

12. That is the man _ helped me last week

13. Would you mind _ the door, please?

A open B opening C to open D opened

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. Tet is a festival who occurs in late January or early February

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Although there are many (17) _through out the year Tet (18) _the lunar New Yearholiday is the most (19) _celebration for Vietnamese people Tet is a festival (20) occurs

in late January or early February It is a time for families (21) _ and decorate their homes andenjoy (22) food such as sticky rice cakes Family members (23) live apart try to betogether (24) Tet

17 A celebrations B activities C information D news

19 A beautiful B important C interesting D interested

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24 A in B on C at D for

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 We were really _ by the beauty of your city (impress)

2 We usually watch the news on TV because it’s very _ (inform)

3 We enjoy the _ atmosphere in Vietnam (peace)

4 The tour around your country is _ cheap (surprise)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each)

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

Hi I am a student of a secondary school in Hanoi I am in grade 9 I always wear school uniform on school days: a white shirt and dark blue trousers But on weekends, I usually wear casual clothes, such as an open-neck shirt or a T-shirt, jeans and sport shoes because they are very comfortable and convenient and I can play football, ride a bicycle or go somewhere easily My favorite colors are red and blue

5. He is a student at a university in Hanoi

6. He sometimes wears school uniform

7. He likes wearing casual clothes because they are comfortable

8. He likes strong colors such as red and blue

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each)

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. Although he had enough qualifications, he didn’t get the job

 Despite

10. “I am taking the 5.30 train tomorrow.” Minh said  Minh said

11. Health is more important than money  Money isn’t

12. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday  He suggested

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………

………

………

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 08

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A campus B publish C supply D difficult

3 A wanted B shouted C helped D needed

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. It’s very kind _you to help me

5. Let’s have a drink, _?

A shall we B will we C shall you D do we

6. They didn’t go on a picnic _the weather was awful

A so B although C because D because of

7. Do you know the lady _ son is standing over there?

8. This newspaper is _every day It’s a daily newspaper

A publishing B published C publishes D to publish

9. We are talking about the preservation of _resources

A natural B nature C naturally D naturalize

10. Everyone must take part in _forests and increase forestation

A protect B protecting C protection D protected

11. _we know her address, we will call you

12. My house _in 1986

A is built B was building C was built D has been built

13. The doctor _me not to stay up too late at night

A advised B suggested C insisted D forced

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. He was punished because he did the test careless yesterday

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Public transport (17) _ London is expensive The fare depends on the length of the (18)

_; you can not buy books or tickets in advance Children under sixteen pay half, (19) _children under five travel free But (20) _ some buses you pay the drivers Most London (21)

_ are double-deckers On the underground railway (or tube) you (22) _ your ticket from amachine or at the (23) _ of the journey Not all trains from one platform go to the same place, sowatch the signs The (24) _ train leaves at about 00.15

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23 A last B finish C end D after

24 A lateness B lately C later D latest

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1. The song is ……… to me (interest)

2. The teacher gave his students ……… to leave the classroom (permit)

3. The Saigon Giaiphong is a ……… newspaper (day)

4. Thousands of people have been made ……… by the war (home)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each):

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or

FALSE

Air pollution is a cause of ill-health in human beings In a lot of countries there are laws limiting the amount of smoke which factories can produce Although there isn’t enough information on the effects of smoke in the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution causes lung diseases

The gases from the exhausts of cars have also increased air pollution in most cities The lead in petrol produces a poisonous gas which often collects in busy streets surrounded by high buildings Children who live in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think as quickly as other children and are clumsy when they use their hands There are other long-term effects of pollution If the gases in the atmosphere continue to increase, the earth’s climate may become warmer A lot of the ice near the poles may melt and may cause serious floods

5. Air pollution causes lung diseases

6. Lead is a harmful chemical element

7. If the gases in the atmosphere increase, the earth’s climate may become cooler

8. Ice melt from the poles can kill anything it passes

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. No one in the group is younger than Mai

 Mai is

10. “Where are you going on your holidays?” I asked them  I asked them

11. He is tired, so he couldn’t score any goals  If he

12. It takes Minh 2 hours to do his homework every day  Minh spends

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 09

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

3 A worked B stopped C loved D laughed

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. I finished _the book and went to bed

A reading B to read C read D to be read

5. The meeting will in London next week

A be held B be hold C is held D are hold

6. I wish you so fast It makes me nervous

A drive B won’t drive C can’t drive D weren’t driving

7. Bill asked where _ from

A do I come B I come C did I come D I came

8. The weather was bad, _ we didn’t go on a picnic

9. If you study at The Brighton Language Center –UK , you can live in a _on campus

A dormitory B mobile room C hotel D.private room

10. Have you read this article the website?

11. Air _ is now a serious problem in the world

A pollutes B polluted C pollute D pollution

12. Jean cloth is very strong and hardly

A wear out B put on C go up D wear on

13. Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight? - _

A I’d love to B No, thanks C I go home now D Never mind

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. The lesson t ha t we are learning no w is very i n t e r e s te d b u t difficult

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Long ago a lot of people (17) _ the moon was a god Other people thought it was just alight in the sky And other thought it was a big (18) _ cheese

The telescopes were made And men saw that the moon was really another world They wondered

(19) _ it was like They dreamed of going there On July 20th, 1969, that dream came (20)

_ Two American men landed on the moon (21) _ names were Neil Armstrong and EdwinAldrin

The first thing the men found was that the moon is covered (22) _ dust The dust is sothick that the men left footprints where they walked Those were the first marks a living thing had evermade on the moon And they could (23) _ there for years and years There is no wind or rain to

Trang 20

17 A thought B guessed C told D said

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 Sports are very good for our (healthy)

2 Rubber trees are very for making elastic things (use)

3 Last night the singer sang very (good)

4 All the pupils have done the exercises (easy)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each)

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

“Many people still believe that natural resources will never be end up Actually, the world’s energy resources are limited Nobody knows exactly how much fuel is left However, we also should save them economically and try to find out alternative sources of power According to Proffessor Marvin Burnham of the New England Institute of Technology, we have to start conserving coal, oil and gas before it is too late; and nuclear power is the only alternative

However, many people do not approve of using nuclear power because it is very dangerous What would happen if there was a serious nuclear accident? Radioactivity causes cancer and may badly affect the future generation

The most effective thing is that we should use natural resources as economical as possible”

5. Natural resources will never be end up

6. We don’t know exactly how much fuel is left

7. All people agree to use nuclear power as an alternative energy

8. Natural resources should be used as much as possible

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each):

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. “Are you coming to the party tonight?”

=> Peter asked me

10. They built the church in the 18th century => The church

11. She does not buy the new house because she does not have enough money => If she

12. We spend 2 hours watering the flowers every day => It takes

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………

………

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 10

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

3 A remembered B lived C played D stopped

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. The _ language in Malaysia is Bahasa Malaysia

A national B nation C international D internationally

5. It is an _journey

A interest B interesting C interestingly D interested

6. Lan is _ that you are working hard

A pleasant B pleasant C pleased D pleasing

7. They haven’t seen this film, ?

A do they B They have C don’t they D have they

8. Viet Nam has a tropical _

A temperature B weather C degree D climate

9. My parents our grandfather last week

A visit B visited C have visited D visits

10. I’ve _my glasses everywhere but I can’t find them anywhere

A looked after B looked at C looked for D looked into

11. If you study hard, you _ pass the exam

A would B will C must D should

12. My father said I learn harD

A have to B must C had to D can

13. _ the weather is predicted not to be good today, they decide to go swimming

A because of B although C In spite of D since

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. Mrs Lien which sings very well is my English teacher

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Before newspapers were (17) _ town criers would go through city streets ringing a bell.They shouted the (18) _ news as they were walking In Vietnam people love reading newspaperand magazines The Kien Thuc Ngay Nay is one of the most (19) _ magazines and is widely read

by both teenagers and (20) _ Thanks to TV (21) _ can get the latest information andenjoy interesting programs in an inexpensive and (22) _ way Nowadays, viewers can watch avariety of local and international programs on different channels The next stage in the (23) _ of

TV is interactive TV Viewers are able to ask questions about the show by using their (24) _control

17 A invented B written C published D sold

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21 A readers B inventors C people D viewers

22 A fast B effective C convenient D doesn’t say

23 A development B develop C developing D developed

24 A board B remote C appliance D automatic

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 English is fun, so we are _ in learning it (interest)

2 The teacher advised us to do the test _ (careful)

3 He had a _time on his space trip (wonder)

4 Tet holiday is the most important _for Vietnamese people (celebrate)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

For many centuries, poets, writers and musicians have mentioned the Aodai in poems, novels and songs The Aodai is the traditional dress of Vietnamese women Traditionally, it was frequently worn by

both men and women The design and material used for men were different from those used for women.Nowadays, women usually wear it, especially on special occasions However, many Vietnamese womentoday often prefer to wear modern clothing at work, because it is more convenient .Now fashion

designers want to change the traditional Aodai Some have printed lines of poetry on it; so it looks

modern and fashionable Others have added traditional designs and symbols such as suns, stars, crosses

and stripes to the Aodai which is both traditional and fashionable.

5. The design and material used for men and women are the same

6. By tradition, both men and women used to wear the Aodai

7. Nowadays, the Aodai is often worn by women on special occasions

8. The traditional Aodai has been changed by musicians on these days

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. Hanoi will be partially cloudy It is the capital city of Viet Nam

=> Hanoi, which

10. “What will you do to help your mother?” they asked him

=> They asked him

11. She doesn’t have time to revise the lesson

=> She wishes

12. They have just produced a new kind of plants

=> A new kind of plants

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-0971.192.688 -ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 11

A PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A method B death C think D those

2 A nature B natural C explain D nation

3 A climb B suburb C doubt D comb

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4. We have written to each other _ last Christmas

A for B since C until D before

5. They are that people have spoiled this area

A disappoint B disappointing C disappointment D disappointed

6. We should _ all the lights before going out

A turn on B turn over C turn off D turn up

7. They decided to go _ it was raining heavily

A and B but C though D since

8. Three thousand cars _ next year

A produced B were produced C will produce D will be produced

9. I to a party tonight Would you like to come, too?

A was going B am going C will go D go

10 She failed her driving test she didn’t have enough lessons

11. Although we live in a fairly society, there’s still a lot of poverty

12. If I were you, I do that

A don’t B can’t C won’t D wouldn’t

13. The guide walked so that most of the party couldn’t keep up with him

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14. He is enough strong to carry the heavy luggage

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Giang is a student from Thanh Hoa province He’s participating (17) _ a student exchangeprogram, and he is now in (18) United States It is the beginning of July now and he is stayingwith the Parker family on a farm 100 kilometers from Columbus, Ohio He’s going to be there till theend of August

Mr Parker (19) maize on his farm while Mrs Parker works part-time at a grocery store in anearby town They have two children: Peter the elder brother is (20) _ age as Giang, and Sam isthe younger one (21) _ is in primary school, a level lower than Peter’s

Since his (22) _, Giang has been learning a lot about life on a farm He has also been able to (23)

_ his spoken English As soon as he completes his homework, he helps feed the chickens and

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19 A raise B keep C feed D grows

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 She was because her mother was sick (happy)

2 Wearing casual clothes helps students have freedom of (choose)

3. Telephone is one of the greatest in 19th century (invent)

4 Van Cao is one of the most famous in Viet Nam (music)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each)

Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE There are about 3000 living languages in the world, but only six of them are the most important ones Two-thirds of the world’s population speaks those languages More than 400 million people speak English as their mother tongue Another 400 million speak it as a second language No one knows how many people speak it as a foreign language Chinese is the language with more speakers than English, but it is only the language for more than one billion Chinese people English is the official language on one-fifth of the land area in the world It is spoken in North America, Great Britain, Australia, and New Zealand In South Africa and India it is one of the official languages In many countries, the textbooks in universities are written in English More than three-fourths of the world’s mail is composed in English More than three-fifths of the radio stations broadcast programs in English More than half of the scientific and research journals are in English English is the language of international communication.

5. Chinese is one of the most important languages

6. 75 per cent of the world’s mail is in English

7. People in India speak English as their second language

8. In many countries, the textbooks in universities are written in English

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each)

Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. We are sorry that we don’t speak English well

=> I wish we

10. They have used paper money for thousands of years

=> Paper money

11. He asked her: “When will you leave here?”

=> He asked her when

12. This student is both careful and clever

=> This student is not

………

………

………

………

Trang 25

-0971.192.688 -………

………

Trang 26

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is

pronounced

differently from that of the others.

2 A stopped B lived C played D remembered

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 My parents our grandfather last week

A visit B visited C have visited D visits

5 The _ language in Malaysia is Bahasa Malaysia.

A nation B national C international D internationally

6 They haven’t seen this film, ?

A do they B They have C don’t they D have they

7 If you study hard, you pass the exam.

A would B must C will D should

8 My father said I learn har D

A have to B must C had to D can

9 Viet Nam has a tropical _.

A temperature B weather C degree D climate

10 It is an _journey.

A interesting B interest C interestingly D interested

11 I’ve _my glasses everywhere but I can’t find them anywhere.

A looked after B looked at C looked for D looked into

12 _ the weather is predicted not to be good today, they decide to go swimming

A because of B although C In spite of D since

13 Lan is _ that you are working hard.

A pleased B pleasant C pleasure D pleasing

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 She asked me where I buy that car.

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage It’s important to eat well, especially when you’re (17) If you’re at (18) , you

may go home for lunch and have a cooked meal of (19) or fish or vegetables or perhaps you

take some food with you to school , eat it in the lunch (20) a chicken and letture sandwich, with some fresh (21) , would be a light but healthy lunch Many people around the world eat plain, (22) rice two or three times a day

Students don’t often eat well when they’re revising for an exam , they eat chocolate and drink a

lot of black coffee And by the way, doctors say everybody should start the day with a healthy (23) It’s also good (24) you to drink a lot of water through the day

17 A studies B study C students D studied

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20 A timetable B classroom C lesson D time

23 A dinner B breakfast C lunch D supper

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1. He had a time on his space trip (wonder)

2. English is fun, so we are in learning it (interest)

3 Tet holiday is the most important for Vietnamese people (celebrate)

4 The teacher advised us to do the test (careful)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

For many centuries, poets, writers and musicians have mentioned the Aodai in poems, novels and songs The Aodai is the traditional dress of Vietnamese women Traditionally, it was frequently worn by

both men and women The design and material used for men were different from those used for women.Nowadays, women usually wear it, especially on special occasions However, many Vietnamese womentoday often prefer to wear modern clothing at work, because it is more convenient .Now fashion

designers want to change the traditional Ao dai Some have printed lines of poetry on it; so it looks

modern and fashionable Others have added traditional designs and symbols such as suns, stars, crosses

and stripes to the Ao dai which is both traditional and fashionable.

5. By tradition, both men and women used to wear the Ao dai

6. The design and material used for men and women are the same

7. Nowadays, the Ao dai is often worn by women on special occasions and at work

8. The traditional Ao dai has been changed by musicians on these days

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9. She doesn’t have time to revise the lesson

=> She wishes

10. Hanoi will be partially cloudy It is the capital city of Viet Nam

=> Hanoi, which

11. They have just produced a new kind of plants

=> A new kind of plants

12. “What will you do to help your mother?” they asked him

=> They asked him

Trang 28

I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is

pronounced

differently from that of the others.

3 A happened B crossed C followed D fluttered

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 Sydney, _ has a population of more that three million is Australia's largest city

5 Tim: " I think you should go to school by bike" Mary: " _"

A thanks B No problem C Fine, thanks D That's a good idea

6 The teacher suggests _ something for the poor in our area

A us to do B we should do C we are doing D we will do

7 Ho Chi Minh City is the most interesting city in Vietnam; , it’s not the capital of the nation

A so B however C moreover D therefore

8 If I were you , I him as my nephew

A will have treated B am treating C would treat D will treat

9 He _ very hard recently

A has worked B is working C works D worked

10 Nga can’t go to the movies with us tonight because she has to _ little sister

A look up B look after C look out D look for

11 Lan doesn't play goft well, _?

A does she B doesn't she C did she D is she

12 They were that he refused to help them

A surprising B surprised C surprisingly D surprise

13 They enjoy _ computer games

A play B to play C played D playing

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 My uncle worked in that company for ten years now

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Our oceans are becoming extremely polluted Most of this (17) comes from the land,which means it comes from people Firstly, there is raw (18) , which is pumped directly intothe sea Many countries, both developed and developing, are guilty of doing this Secondly, ships dropabout 6 million tons of garbage into the sea each year Thirdly, there are oil spills from ships A ship has

an (19) and oil leaks from the vessel This not only (20) the water, but it also kills(21) life Next, there are (22) materials from factories without proper regulations,factory owners let the waste run (23) into the rivers, which then leads to the sea And finally,oil is washed from the land This can be the result of (24) or a deliberate dumping of waste

17 A water B pollution C garbage D ocean

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-0971.192.688 -18 A sewage B material C resource D sewing

19 A interest B environment C engine D accident

20 A pollutes B finishes C improves D purifies

21 A normal B human C animal D marine

22 A useful B waste C raw D product

23 A directly B slowly C quickly D carefully

24 A population B pollution C development D carelessness

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

25 Many have made lots of changes to The Ao dai (design)

26 Thousands of people have been made by the flood.(home)

27 I think the Internet is a device to get information (use)

28 We have read that on Tuoi Tre Newspaper recently (advertise)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

Vietnamese parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time glued to thetelevision and not enough time doing other activities such as sports and reading A survey recentlycarried out on people viewing habits does not disprove this It shows that young people in Viet Namspend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television, which works out over three hours every day.What is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more: an incredible 28 hours

a week We appear to have become a nation of addicts Just about every home in the country has atelevision and over half have two or more According to the survey, people nowadays don’t just watchtelevision sitting in their living-rooms; they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well

29 Parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time reading _

30 Vietnamese children spend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television _

31 We are all addictive to watching television _

32 Half families have more than one television at their home _

III WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

33 Nga is my closest frienD She lives next to my house (Combine the sentences, using a suitable

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A elementary B engineer C enable D energy

2 A disappointed B reason C resort D resolution

3 A ethnic B think C gather D earth

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 You should have a dictionary to _ the words that you don’t know their meanings

A look for B look up C look into D look after

5 Mrs Mc Cathy lives in a small flat _ having a lot of money in the bank

A although B in spite C despite D even

6 His car _ when he was only half way home

A broke down B got down C broke over D got over

7 _ to the Internet, we can get the latest information around the world

A Together B Apart C In addition D Thanks

8 _ , the chess players began the game

A Having taken the seats B After we had taken our seats

C Being taken the seats D Taking the seats

9 My mother always keeps candles in the room _ the lights go out

10 He works for a car factory _ main office is in Chicago

11 The new shopping plaza is advertised as a place _ you can find anything you want to buy

A where B which C from where D that

12 The plane was half an hour late _ I managed to come to the meeting in time

A In spite B Despite C In spite of this D All are correct

13 The letter was delivered _ it didn’t have enough postage

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 Why didn’t you came to my party last night?

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

When man first learned how to make a fire, he began to use fuel for the first time The first fuel heused was probably wood.As time (17) _, man eventually discovered that substances such as coal andoil (18) _ Coffee (19) _ very widely as a source of energy until the last century With thecoming of the industrial revolution, it was soon realized that production would double if coal was usedinstead of wood Nowadays, many of the huge factories and electricity generating stations (20) _unable to function if there was no coal In the last twenty or thirty years, however, the use of coal (21) _ As a result, there have been changes in the coal industry It (22) that more people (23) _ coal if oil and gas were not so readily available There is more than enough coal in the world forman’s needs for the next two hundred years if our use of coal (24) _ increase Unfortunately,however, about half of the world’s coal may never be used Mining much of it would be very expensive even

if it was possible to use new equipment

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-0971.192.688 -17 A passes B used to pass C would pass D passed

18 A are burning B would burn C have burnt D were burnt

19 A not used B didn’t use C not using D was not used

21 A doubles B had doubled C will double D has doubled

22 A believed B is believing C believing D is believed

23 A would use B used C use D will use

24 A didn’t B wouldn’t C doesn’t D shouldn’t

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

1 dark clouds appeared and it began to rain (fortunate)

2 Every week, there are four from Hanoi to Nhatrang (fly)

3 Some designers have the ‘Aodai’ (modern)

4 The shoes are nice, but they are (comfortable)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

Once there were lots of pandas in the mountain of Western China.Today they are becoming extinct The reason is that they cannot find enough food.Pandas eat bamboo leaves They do not like another food.The bamboo grows very slowly It can take IQ years for a bamboo to grow from a seed to a big plant Some types of bamboo have seeds every 60 years Pandas must wait many years for their food to grow While the bamboo is growing, pandas do not have enough leaves to eat

Farmers are using more and more of the land on the mountain side to grow food for man The farmers put down the bamboo Bamboo leaves become less plentiful Pandas cannot find enough food to eat They starveand die

China and World Wildlife Fund (WWF) are trying to save the panda.In 1979 they began to set up special parks where pandas live One such park is the Wolong Reserve in Sichuan The Wolong Reserve has the highest number of pandas in the world.Scientists come here to study the panda’s eating and mating habits By learning more about the panda’s habits, scientists can save it from extinction

7 The favorite food for pandas is the bamboo leaves

8 Setting panda reserves in the mountains of China is a good way to save pandas

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

9 How long is it since you saw Tom?

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

2 A jeans B styles C students D labels

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 He had my watch _

A steal B to steal C be stolen D stolen

5 I knew him _I was a child

6 She arrived _ Thailand _ Saturday evening

A in- on B in- in C in- at D at -on

7 John hasn’t finish _ yet

A worked B working C works D to work

8 The train couldn’t run _ the snow

A because of B because C since D for

9 He was offered the job _ his qualifications were poor

A despite B in spite C whereas D even though

10 The damage which _ by the earthquake cannot be imagined

A was caused B caused C is caused D causes

11 We’ve run _ sugar Could you buy some more?

12 The teacher suggests that we _ harder on pronunciation

A worked B working C should work D to work

13 This is Mr Smith, _ son I’m studying with

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 I couldn’t keep to touch with him before because I’d lost his phone number

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Jeans are very (17) _ with young people all (18) _ the world Some people say thatjeans are the “uniform” of youth But they haven’t always been popular The story of jeans started almost twohundred years (19) _ People in Genoa, Italy, made pants The cloth (20) _ in Genoa wascalled “jeanos” The pants were called “jeans” In 1850, a salesman in California began (21) _ pantsmade of canvas His name was Levi Strauss (22) _ they were so strong, “Levi’s pants” became (23) - _ with gold miners, farmers, and cowboys Six years later, factory workers in the United States andEurope began (24) _ jeans Young people usually didn’t wear them

17 A rare B well-known C famous D popular

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-0971.192.688 -21 A selling B sold C to be sold D being sold

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

25 Mai was to look at the big statue of St Claus (Amaze)

26 The air in our city is worse and worse (Pollute)

27 We have to increase our (Friend)

28 This film gives me a good (Impress)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide

whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

I often hear or read about “natural disasters”- the eruption of Mount St Helen, a volcano in the state

of Washington; Hurricane Andrew in Florida; the floods in the American Midwest; terrible earthquakes allover the world; huge fires; and so on and so on But I’ll never forget my first personal experience with thestrangeness of nature- “the London Killer Fog” of 1952 It began on Thursday, December 4, when a high-pressure system (warm air) covered southern England.With the freezing- cold air below, heavy fog formed.Pollution from factories, cars, and coal stoves mixed with the fog The humidity was terribly high, there was

no breeze at all Traffic (cars, trains, and boats) stopped People couldn’t see, and some walked onto therailroad tracks or into the river It was hard to breath, and many people got sick Finally on Tuesday,December 9, the wind came and the fog went away But after that, even more people got sick Many of them

30 The heavy fog in London in 1952 is his unforgettable personal experience _

31 “London Killer Fog” lasted for seven days _

32 Some people could walk onto the railroad tracks or into the river _

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

33 They’ve built two department stores this year

=> Two department stores

32 Computers are used to design new models

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A sugar B settle C surprise D sentence

2 A helped B liked C watched D hated

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 Dad allowed Dora _to the party last night

5 He used to full time, but now he is a part time worker

A work B working C worked D to work

6 I wish I a lot of money

7 We him since 1999

A has known B know C have knew D have known

8 This report by Tom yesterday

A were written B was written C is written D are written

9 Hoa is sick today, she won’t go to school

10 If you want to attend the course, you the written examination

A had to pass B might pass C would pass D must pass

11 She said that she learning English with you

A like B to like C likes D liked

12.” You don’t know where Karen is, ?” “Sorry, I’ve no idea.”

A don’t you B do you C are you D aren’t you

13 Peter is one of men I’ve ever known

A nice B most nice C the nice D the nicest

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 I f it can r a in this afternoon, we w ill have to c an c e l our picnic

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

RIVERS

Rivers are one of the world’s most important natural resources Many cities are on large rivers, andalmost every country has at least one river that (17) an important part in the lives of its people.Besides transportation, rivers (18) food, water, for crops, water to drink, and opportunities forrecreation for people who live along their banks And (19) get water for crops, engineers sometimes(20) a damp across a river and let the water (21) a lake behind the damp Then people can usetheir water not only to irrigate fields (22) to make electricity for homes and industries

However the water often becomes polluted when cities on the river bank (23) in size and thenumber of industries increases We are learning about that (24) necessary to keep rivers clean if wewant to enjoy the benefit of the natural resources

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19 A so as B in order to C so that D in order that

21 A to become B become C becoming D became

22 A and B but as well C as well as D but also

24 A it is B it was C there is D there was

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

26 I found this problem extremely _ (difficulty)

27 What is responsible for the _ problems in your city? (environment)

28 Watching TV has become one of the most popular forms of _ (entertain)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide

whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

Sending cards is a widespread custom in Britain today The British have been sending cards sinceVictorian times when wealthy families started to send Christmas greetings In the 1980s the card industryrapidly expanded as celebrations became more and more commercialised.There are cards for every occasionfrom buying a house to having a baby and, more recently, cares for greeting a new job, getting a divorce orjust saying “Sorry” More than one hundred million Christmas cards are sold in Britain every year However,cards are no longer confined to special celebrations such as birthdays, because there are many less importantoccasions when people send cards to each other

29 Americans began to send cards in Victorian times

30 You can get cards for divorce as well as buying a house

31 100 million cards are sold in Britain every year

32 Cards are confined to special celebrations

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

33 The last time I eaten this food was in 2010

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1 A energy B liter C shower D serve

2 A studied B interested C turned D installed

3 A separate B select C electronic D English

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 My glasses are in my book bag, but I don't remember _ them there

5 Mrs Lan arrived London 5 pm yesterday

A in/ at B at/ at C in/ on D at / on

6 Islam is the country’s official in MalaysiA

A education B currency C language D religion

7 The of Malaysia is Kuala Lumpur

A city B capital C town D country

8 Vietnam is a _country The weather is usually hot there

9 Viet got up _, so he could not catch the first bus

A later B lately C recently D late

10 Long wishes he _ have to do all the homework given

A don’t B wasn’t C didn’t D isn’t

11 Please let Tom _ with you

A learn B learning C to learn D learned

12 Many tourists visit the _ of a historical hero on the mountain

A church B shrine C mosque D temple

13 Your village is about 8 kilometers to the East of Dongxoai town, ?

A is it B isn’t it C are they D aren’t they

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 The f i r st May Day which was c e l eb r a t e d in England was on 1 8 90

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

BIRTH OF THE COMPUTER

Most people think of computer as, very modern inventions, products of our new technological age.But actually the idea for a computer (17) _ worked out over two centuries ago by a man (18) _ Charles Babbage Babbage was born (19) _ 1791 and grew up to be a brilliantmathematician He drew up plans for several calculating machines which he called “engines” But despite thefact that he (20) _ building some of these, he never finished any of them Over the years people haveargued whether his machines would ever work Recently, however, the Science Museum in London hasfinished building (21) _ engine based on one of Babbage’s designs (22) _ has taken six years

to complete and more (23) _ four thousand parts have been specially made Whether it works or not,

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the machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum (24) _ remind people ofBabbage’s work.

18 A known B recognized C written D called

20 A wanted B made C started D missed

23 A than B therefore C when D then

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

24 _, Aodai is worn by women and men (Tradition)

25 We’re worried about the _here (Pollute)

26 The Internet has _ developed in every field (Increase)

27 The Internet is a very useful means of _ (Communicate)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide

whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

“Learning a foreign language is, in some ways, like learning how to fly There are some differences,but there is a very important similarity It is this: learning how to do these things needs a lot of practice It isnever enough to read a book on how to fly a plane A book can give you a lot of information about how tofly, but if only read that book, then try to fly without any practice, you will kill yourself The same is true oflearning a foreign language For example, can you speak English well without having lots of practice?

“Practice makes perfect” is what every learner of a foreign language should know”

29 Learning a foreign language and learning to fly are the same in an important way

30 Information about flying from books is enough for someone to fly

31 It is dangerous to try to fly without any real practice

32 Practice more and more is the good way to learn English

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

33 This is the first time I have seen that film

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

2 A school B children C church D cheese

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 Hanh can't go to the movies with us tonight She will have to _ her little sister

A look for B look up C look down on D look after

5 I'd love to play volleyball _ I have to complete an assignment

6 I am the boy _ is wearing a white T-shirt

7 Maryam and Lan pen pals for over two years

8 I wish I more time to get to know your beautiful country better

9 “It all depends my parents Anyway, we'll keep in touch."

10 The Aodai is the dress of Vietnamese women

A tradition B traditional C traditionally D traditionalist

11 Other designers have taken _ from Vietnam's ethnic minorities

A inspiration B inspire C inspirational D inspired

12 The bus collected us _ 5 o'clock early _ the morning

A in / in B at / at C at / in D on / in

13 She asked me how I English in my country

A learn B learned C learning D to learn

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 If you want to get good grades, you had to study hard

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

Malaysia is one of the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) It isdivided (17) two regions, known as West Malaysia and East Malaysia They are (18) byabout 640 km of the sea and together comprise an area of 329,758 sq km Malaysia (19) _ tropicalclimate The Malaysian unit of (20) _ is the ringgit, consisting (21) 100 sen

The capital of Malaysia is Kuala Lumpur and it is also the largest city of the country The (22) _ in 2001 was over 22 million Islam is the country's official religion In addition, there are other (23) _ such as Buddhism and Hinduism The national language is Bahasa Malaysia (also known simply asMalay) English, Chinese, and Tamil are also widely spoken The language of instruction for primary schoolchildren is Bahasa Malaysia, Chinese, or Tamil Bahasa Malaysia is the primary language of instruction in allsecondary schools, although some students may continue learning in Chinese and Tamil And English is a(24) _ second language

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-0971.192.688 -18 A separated B separation C separate D separating

19 A spends B enjoys C repairs D has

20 A money B monetary C currency D current

22 A calculation B addition C population D separation

23 A religions B regions C visions D climate

24 A free B compulsory C option D related

B PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (Thí sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề thi)

I WORD FORM (1 point / 0.25 each):

Give the correct form of the word in each bracket.

25 Vietnamese people are very ………. and Hanoi is a very interesting city (FRIEND)

26 In the 18th century jean cloth was made ………. from cotton (COMPLETE)

27 Designers ………. styles of jeans to match the 1960s' fashions (DIFFER)

28 This exercise must be done ………. (CARE)

II READING COMPREHENSION (1 point / 0.25 each): Read the passage carefully and decide

whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(Lưu ý:Học sinh phải viết rõ câu trả lời là TRUE hoặc FALSE,không viết tắt là T hoặc F).

On Sunday, Ba invited Liz to join his family on a day trip to his home village about 60 kilometers tothe north of Hanoi The village lies near the foot of a mountain and by a river Many people go there onweekends to have some rest after a hard working week

The journey to the village is very interesting People have the chance to travel between the greenpaddy fields and cross a small bamboo forest before they reach a big old banyan tree at the entrance to thevillage Liz met Ba's family at his house early in the morning; and after two hours traveling by bus, theyreached the big old tree Everyone felt tired and hungry, so they sat down under the tree and had a snack

After the meal, they started to walk into the village for about thirty minutes to visit Ba's uncle Then,they walked up the mountain to visit the shrine of a Vietnamese hero and enjoyed the fresh air there In theafternoon, they went boating in the river and had a picnic on the river bank before going home late in theevening It was an enjoyable day Liz took a lot of photos to show the trip to her parents

29 Ba and his family had a two-day trip to their home village

30 Many people like going there for their weekends

31 Liz had a snack at the house of Ba's uncle's

32 There is a shrine on the mountain near Ba's village

II WRITING (2 points / 0.5 each): Finish the second sentence (according to the instruction in the bracket) so that it has the same meaning as the first.

33 The last time she visited me was five months ago

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I PRONUNCIATION (0.75 point / 0.25 each): Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

2 A watches B washes C clauses D likes

3 A pleased B smoked C stopped D missed

II GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (2.5 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

4 The final examination will be held _June 12th, 2006

9 You have read this article on the website, ?

A don't you B aren't you C didn't you D haven't you

10 All the students are looking forward their summer vacation in the countryside

A to spend B spend C to spending D spending

11 Did your children enjoy in the sea?

A swimming B swim C to swim D swam

12 "When is Mr Ba planning to retire? He for the company for thirty years now"

A works B is working C will work D has been working

13 Flowers should in warm places

A be keep B kept C be kept D be keeping

III ERROR RECOGNITION (0.75 point / 0.25 each)

Choose the underlined word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

14 You're tired although you stayed up too late to watch TV last night.

IV GUIDED CLOZE TEST (2 points / 0.25 each)

Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

New Year is one of the most important (17) in the United States On New Year's Eve,most people go to the parties At twelve o'clock (18) night, everyone says "Happy New Year"and they (19) _ their friends and relatives good luck New Year's Eve is usally a long night tothis holiday children (20) _ as witches, ghosts or orthers Most children go from house to houseasking for candy or fruit (21) _ the people at the house do not give (22) _ candy,the children will (23) _ a trick on them But this (24) ever happens Many peoplegive them candy or fruit

17 A festivals B meetings C contests D courses

19 A dream B greet C wish D congratulate

20 A wear B dress C put on D take off

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