AAMC MCAT test 5r

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Physical Sciences

Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive

passage After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided for your use You may consult it whenever you wish

7

N 14.0

8

O 16.0

9

F 19.0

15

P 31.0

16

S 32.1

17

Cl 35.5

22

Ti 47.9

23

V 50.9

24

Cr 52.0

33

As 74.9

34

Se 79.0

40

Zr 91.2

41

Nb 92.9

42

Mo 95.9

51

Sb 121.8

73

Ta 180.9

74

W 183.9

83

Bi 209.0

106

Unh (263)

59

Pr 140.9

68

Er 167.3

91

Pa (231)

100

Fm (257)

Passage I

Ammonia can be prepared by the reversible reaction

between H2 and N2 in the presence of a mixture of FeO

and Al2K2O4 (Reaction 1) under a variety of conditions

(Table 1)

Reaction 1

Table 1 Equilibrium Concentrations of NH3(g) at

Several Temperatures and Pressures

Equilibrium concentration of NH3(g)

(% by volume) Pressure

NH3 can also be prepared by reacting a metal nitride,

such as Mg3N2, with H2O, as summarized by the

following unbalanced equation (Reaction 2)

Mg3N2(s) + H2O(l) → Mg(OH)2(s) + NH3(g)

Reaction 2

Ammonia and ammonium salts are used as commercial

fertilizers Ammonium salts are prepared by reacting

NH3 with HX (an acid) as shown below (Reaction 3)

NH3(g) + HX(aq) → NH4X(s)

Reaction 3

The approximate electronegativities of several

elements are given in Table 2

2 Which of the following graphs best shows the effect

of pressure on the equilibrium percentage yield of

3 The most likely role of the FeO/Al2K2O4 mixture

used in Reaction 1 is to:

A ) increase the rate of the reaction

B ) increase the equilibrium constant

C) provide energy to facilitate the reaction

D ) lower the pH of the reaction mixture

4 If excess NH3(g) reacts with H2SO4(aq), which of

the following compounds can be produced?

A ) NH4SO4

B ) NH4H2SO4

C) NH4(SO4)2

D ) (NH4)2SO4

5 What kind of interactions take place between

molecules of the product of Reaction 1?

A ) Ionic only

B ) Hydrogen bonding only

C) Dipole-dipole only

D ) Both hydrogen bonding and dipole-dipole

6 Which of the following ions involved in Reaction 2

is the strongest base?

A ) N3-(aq)

B ) OH–(aq)

C) Mg2+(aq)

D ) H+(aq)

Passage II

A large amount of energy is released when the nucleus

of an atom disintegrates Nuclear fission of 1 kg of

U produces approximately 8.0 × 1013 J, an amount of

energy equal to that produced by burning 2.3 × 106 kg

of coal A simple model of nuclear disintegration can

be used to explain the source of this large amount of

energy

The nucleus of a U atom contains 92 protons and

146 neutrons in a sphere with a radius of

approximately 7.6 × 10–15 m There is a large repulsive

force between the positive charges in the nucleus This

force is balanced by a short-range attractive force, the

strong nuclear force By using a simple model,

calculations can be done to find the amount of energy

released when a uranium atom fissions The model

assumes that the uranium nucleus disintegrates into

two spherical fragments, as shown in Figure 1

Figure 1 Nuclear disintegration model

The fragments each have radius r, mass m, and charge

Q Immediately after separation, their centers are

separated by 2r There is a large electrical repulsion

between these two fragments that causes them to move

apart and gain kinetic energy

The repulsive force between the two nuclei is kQ2/d2,

where k is Coulomb’s constant and d is the distance

between the centers of the nuclei The potential energy

of the system of charged nuclear fragments is kQ2/(2r),

which is the energy available from this disintegration

A value of 3.2 × 10–11 J per atom is obtained by making a calculation for the model uranium atom This value is very close to the experimentally determined value

7 According to the passage, the energy released when

an atom splits comes from:

A) fast-moving electrons

B) the short-range attraction of the nucleons

C) mutual attraction of the fragments

D) mutual repulsion of the fragments

8 A nucleus splits into two fragments that have equal

charge but unequal mass Which of the following is equal for the two fragments as they move apart?

A) Magnitude of the force of one fragment on the other

B) Magnitude of accelerationC) Speed

D) Kinetic energy

9 Based on the passage, why are there no naturally

occurring elements that have more protons in their nucleus than uranium does?

A) All of the heavier elements have radioactively decayed

B) All of the heavier elements are stable

C) The range of the strong nuclear force is too short to hold them together

D) The heavier elements can be made only in nuclear reactors

10 Which of the following graphs best illustrates how

the force between fragments from the fission of a

uranium nucleus varies as the fragments move

away from each other?

A )

B )

C)

D )

11 If they are given enough energy, nuclei of lighter

atoms can fuse together Which of the following

best explains why this energy is required?

A ) To overcome the mutual repulsion of the nuclei

B ) To strip the electrons from the nuclei

C) To add electrons to the nuclei

D ) To overcome the strong nuclear force

12 If a uranium nucleus undergoes fission as shown

in Figure 1, as one fragment moves away from the

other fragment, it has:

Because reactions 1 and 2 are photochemically

reversible, ozone is removed at a rate that is equal to

the rate of its formation, and a steady state

concentration is reached Table 1 summarizes the

thermodynamic data for the oxygen species involved in

The ozone balance has recently been disturbed,

resulting in a net loss of ozone in the upper atmosphere

Scientists believe this is due in part to reactions

involving chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) such as CF3Cl

Although CFCs are typically inert, they can undergo

photolysis in the upper atmosphere and subsequently

assist in the decomposition of ozone according to

This mechanism is supported by the fact that periodic

increases in ClO· in the upper atmosphere correlate

well with times of ozone depletion

13 A compound that significantly assists in ozone

depletion CANNOT be:

A) a gas

B) a radical precursor

C) inert in the lower atmosphere

D) inert in the upper atmosphere

14 The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is very reactive

because it has:

A) an unpaired electron

B) an extra electron

C) an expanded octet

D) a partial negative charge

15 Which of the following is the balanced net

reaction that is described by reactions 4 and 5?

A) O3 + O → O2

B) O3 + O → 2 O2

C) O3 + Cl· → Cl· + O + O2

D) O3 + ClO· → 2 O2 + Cl·

16 Based on Table 1, which of the following graphs

most accurately depicts the free energy changes during the course of reactions 1 and 2?

A)

B)

C)

D)

17 According to Table 1, what is ∆S of the following

18 From reactions 3–5, what can be determined about

the relative concentrations of CFCs and O2?

A ) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce one

equivalent of O2

B ) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce two

equivalents of O2

C) A catalytic amount of CFC can produce much O2

D ) The CFC is produced by a catalytic amount of O2

Passage IV

Fertilizers are substances added to the soil to improve

plant growth and productivity Commonly used

fertilizers contain ionic salts of N, P, and K Because

of the complexity of soil chemistry, it is often difficult

to predict how soil pH will be affected by the addition

of a fertilizer

Ionic salts used as fertilizers can generally be classified

chemically as either acidic or basic Ammonium

dihydrogen phosphate (NH4H2PO4), a commonly used

fertilizer, can alter soil pH according to Equation 1

Alternatively, the fertilizer ammonium monohydrogen

phosphate [(NH4)2HPO4] can alter soil pH according to

If a fertilizer alters the original soil pH too drastically,

CaCO3, a standard “liming” material, can be used to

raise soil pH, and CaCl2 can be used to lower soil pH

Ammonia is sometimes applied directly to the soil to

increase the ammonium ion content by its interaction

with water in the soil The ammonium ions from all

these sources can further affect soil pH during the

nitrification process In this process, soil microbes

convert ammonium ions to nitrate ions according to

The nitrate ions are taken up by plants and converted

first to nitrite ions, NO2–, then to ammonia for amino

acid synthesis in the plant

19 After adding the fertilizer shown in Equation 2 to

the soil, what will be the most likely effect of excessively moist soil conditions?

A) The degree of ionization will be greater, releasing more OH–

B) The degree of ionization will be greater, consuming more OH–

C) The degree of ionization will be reduced, releasing more OH–

D) The degree of ionization will be reduced, consuming more OH–

20 Which of the following is the most likely reason

that plants CANNOT utilize nitrogen from the atmosphere?

A) N2 is present in very low concentrations in the atmosphere

B) N2 is too polar

C) N2 is very unreactive because it is a noble gas

D) N2 is very unreactive because of the great strength

of the N≡N triple bond

21 In Equation 1, HPO42– is the conjugate:

A) acid of NH4+.B) base of NH4+.C) acid of H2PO4–.D) base of H2PO4–

22 Which of the following equilibria best accounts

for the pH-raising effect of CaCO3? A) CaCO3 Ca2+ + CO32–

B) CaCO3 + 2 H2O CaH2 + H2CO32– + 2 OH–C) CO32– + H2O HCO3– + OH–

D) Ca2+ + H2O CaH2 + OH–

23 In the equilibrium constant expression for

Equation 2, [H2O] is omitted because the salt is:

A) only weakly basic, and [H2O] is nearly constant

B) strongly basic, and [H2O] is nearly zero

C) only weakly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly constant

D) strongly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly zero

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

24

Na2CO3 + HCl → CO2 + H2O + NaCl

Consider the above unbalanced equation For this

reaction, how many mL of a 2 M solution of

Na2CO3 are required to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at

25 By how much does the oxidation number of

manganese in MnO4– differ from that of Mn2+?

A ) 1

B ) 2

C) 5

D ) 6

26 If ocean waves strike the shore every 3.0 s and the

horizontal distance between adjacent crests and

troughs is 1.0 m, what is the average speed of the

27 A particle is moving on a circular path, whose

radius is 4 cm, with a frequency of 4 Hz How

long will it take for the particle to move through a

distance of 16π cm along the circle?

A ) 1/4 s

B ) 1/2 s

C) 1 s

D ) 4 s

Passage V

A chemist is studying the catalytic effect of the

enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) on the

polymerization of cytosine 3',5'-diphosphate (CDP)

PNP cleaves nucleoside diphosphates with the release

of a phosphate species, and the addition of a trace

amount of magnesium ion ensures that the catalyst is

active Equation 1 shows a polymerization reaction in

which a single polymer macromolecule is made from

CDP

Equation 1

In practice, the reaction shown in Equation 1 occurs

many times, yielding a product composed of many

polymeric strands

Experiment 1

The chemist dissolves 16 mmol CDP in 1 L of an

aqueous solution containing PNP and Mg2+ and buffers

the solution at pH 8.7 The chemist monitors the

reaction by measuring the amount of inorganic

phosphate produced No reaction is detected for 30

min, then the reaction appears to proceed at a constant

rate until it stops with a final HPO42– concentration of

8 mM The recovered polymer contains 7.5 mmol of

cytosine

Experiment 2

The chemist repeats Experiment 1 but adds enough

manganese sulfate to precipitate the slightly soluble

manganese hydrogen phosphate as it forms The

recovered polymer contains 11.4 mmol of cytosine

28 What mass of CDP (403 g mol–1) is in 10 mL of the buffered solution at the beginning of

Experiment 1?

A) 6.4 x 10–4 gB) 6.4 x 10–3gC) 6.4 x 10–2gD) 6.4 x 10–1 g

29 As an alternative to Experiment 2, the chemist also

can improve the yield of the polymer obtained in Experiment 1 by increasing the amount of:

A) H2O

B) PNP

C) Mg2+.D) CDP

30 Which of the following expressions gives the

equilibrium constant (Keq) for the reaction shown

in Equation 1?

A) [(CP)n] [HPO42–]n

[CDP]nB) [(CP)n] [HPO42–]

[CDP]nC) [(CP)n] [HPO42–]n

[CDP]

D) [CP] [HPO42–]n

[CDP]n

31 According to Equation 1, the concentration of the

polymer with respect to [HPO42–] is:

A) n[HPO42–]

B) n2[HPO42–]

C) (1/n)[HPO42–]

D) (1/n2)[HPO42–]

32 The pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4– to HPO42–

is 6.7 What is the initial ratio of [HPO42–]:[H2PO4–] in the buffer solution of Experiment 1?

A) 1:1B) 2:1C) 100:1

Passage VI

Carbon dating is a common method for estimating the

age of artifacts found by archaeologists The principle

of radioactive dating is based on knowledge of the

characteristics of the 14C isotope, which is commonly

found in most handmade objects This isotope is

unstable and experiences spontaneous beta decay with

a half-life of approximately 6000 years Archaeologists

need only a single radioactive measurement from a

found object to estimate the age of the object

Scintillation detectors are often used for measurement

of radioactive decay A scintillator is a substance that

produces light as a result of the de-excitation of atoms

The excitation is caused by the absorption of energy, in

this case from incident beta radiation A scintillating

material is attached to a photomultiplier tube that

collects the light and converts it into electrical pulses,

which are measured and counted The electrical pulses

indicate the energy of the radiation produced by the

object being measured and the rate at which the decay

occurs

The mass of the beta particle is 9 × 10–31 kg The

velocity of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum is 3 ×

108 m/s Planck’s constant is 6.6 × 10–34 J·s

33 The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N What

particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus?

A ) Electron

B ) Alpha

C) Neutron

D ) Positron

34 Archaeologists find an object that is known to be

created 18,000 years ago Measurements indicate

that 1000 atoms of 14C are present in the

object How many atoms of 14C were present

when the object was made?

35 The average velocity of a beta particle ejected

from 14C is 3 x 107 m/s What is the average kinetic energy of this beta particle?

A) 1.5 x 10–8 JB) 2.3 x 10–16 JC) 4.0 x 10–16 JD) 1.5 x 10–23 J

36 The best materials to use as scintillators are nearly

transparent to the wavelengths of the light that they emit This characteristic is important because:A) it minimizes the reabsorption of the light

B) it maximizes the reabsorption of the light

C) it maximizes the amount of light produced

D) it increases the wavelength of the light produced

37 When the wavelength for maximum light emission

of a given scintillator is 450 nm, what is the energy of the light photon?

A) 4.4 x 10–19 JB) 1.4 x 10–25 JC) 4.4 x 10–28 JD) 2.9 x 10–42 J

Passage VII

A group of students performed two experiments to

study several transition metals

Experiment 1

The students reacted four transition metals with

nonmetals and observed the products formed (Table 1)

Table 1 Products of Reacting Transition Metals with

Nonmetals

Nonmetal Transition

The students prepared solutions of 0.1 M X(NO3)n(aq),

where X represents a transition metal Then they

prepared the following three reagents

first tube, 2.0 mL of (NH4)2C2O4(aq) to the next tube,

and 2.0 mL of Na2CO3(aq) to the third tube They

observed whether a precipitate formed and noted its color (Table 2)

Table 2 Results of Adding Reagents to Transition

Metal Solutions

Color of precipitate Transition

Metal NaCl(aq) (NH4)2C2O4(aq) Na2CO3(aq)

Ni(NO 3 ) 2(aq) * * green Cu(NO3)2(aq) * aqua blue Zn(NO3)2(aq) * white white Cd(NO3)2(aq) white white white AgNO3(aq) white colorless yellow

Note: * indicates that no precipitate formed

Finally, the students added 2.0 mL of 1.0 M HNO3(aq)

to each tube containing a precipitate In all but two cases, the precipitate disappeared when HNO3(aq) was

added The precipitate remained in the tube that contained AgNO3(aq) and NaCl(aq) and in the tube

that contained AgNO3(aq) and (NH4)2C2O4(aq)

38 Cu attains a different oxidation state when it reacts

with Cl2(g) than when it reacts with I2(s) because

Cl2(g):

A) has a higher boiling point than does I2(s).

B) has a lower boiling point than does I2(s).

C) attracts electrons more strongly than does I2(s).

D) attracts electrons less strongly than does I2(s).

39 What was the most likely identity of the

precipitate that formed when NaCl(aq) was added

to Cd(NO3)2(aq)?

A) Cd2Cl(s) B) CdCl(s)

C) CdCl2(s)

D) CdCl3(s)

40 If Cd is reacted with S, what is the most likely

oxidation state of Cd in the product?

A ) +1

B ) +2

C) +4

D ) +6

41 When a strip of Cu is placed into H2O(l), no

change is observed However, when a strip of Cu

is placed into a solution of HNO3(aq), a gas

evolves What is the most likely identity of the

42 In Experiment 2, is the boiling point of

Zn(NO3)2(aq) higher than that of AgNO3(aq)?

A ) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) is ionic,

whereas the solute in AgNO3(aq) is not

B ) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) dissociates

into three ions, and the solute in AgNO3(aq)

dissociates into two ions

C) No, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) has a

higher molecular weight than does the solute in

AgNO3(aq)

D ) No, because Zn(NO3)2(aq) contains fewer grams of

solute than does AgNO3(aq)

43 When a strip of Cu is placed in AgNO3(aq), a new

metal forms on the surface of the Cu strip This

occurs because Cu is:

A ) reduced and Ag is oxidized

B ) reduced and Ag+ is oxidized

C) oxidized and Ag is reduced

D ) oxidized and Ag+ is reduced

Passage VIII

A student performed an experiment to investigate

thermal and electrical properties of an iron wire At

room temperature the wire had a length (L) of 4 m, a

diameter (D) of 4 × 10–4 m, and a mass (M) of 4 × 10–3

kg The wire was connected in series with an ammeter,

a power supply, and a switch

The student selected a voltage (V) and closed the

switch so current (I) flowed through the circuit, raising

the wire’s temperature (T) The values in Table 1 were

measured in five trials with different wire temperatures

(Note: The initial value of R, the circuit’s resistance,

was measured at a temperature of 293 K with an

ohmmeter The other values of R were calculated from

the values of V and I.)

Table 1 Data for Thermal and Electrical Properties of

Iron Wire Trial (K) T (m) L

The change in wire length (∆L) is related to the change

in temperature (∆T) by the relationship ∆L = αL∆T,

where α , the coefficient of thermal expansion, is a

constant A similar relationship, ∆D = αD∆T, describes

how the diameter of a wire changes when it is heated

The constant has the same value in both equations

The energy radiated from a heated wire each second is

AσT 4, where A is the surface area of the wire, and σ =

5.67 × 10–8 J/m2·s·K4 is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant

44 What is the electrical power through the wire

when T is 673 K?

A) 24 WB) 40 WC) 56 WD) 72 W

45 What is the approximate density of the wire at 473

K? (Note: The volume of the wire is 5 x 10–7 m3.)A) 2,000 kg/m3

B) 3,600 kg/m3C) 6,400 kg/m3D) 8,000 kg/m3

46 Which of the following graphs best illustrates the

relationship between T and R?

A)

B)

C)

D)

47 The ratio of T in Trial 5 to T in Trial 3 is

approximately What is the ratio of the

energy radiated each second for Trial 5 to that of

48 What is the minimum amount of heat energy

required to increase T from 373 K to 573 K?

(Note: The heat capacity of iron is 460 J/kg·K.)

A ) 368 J

B ) 550 J

C) 1,840 J

D ) 3,680 J

49 During Trial 5, the wire was heated from 293 K to

673 K while V was held constant at 28 V How did

the current through the circuit change during this

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

50 The initial decay activity of a given quantity of a

radioactive element is 240 counts/min After 24

min, the activity is 60 counts/min What is the

half-life of the element?

A ) 4 min

B ) 12 min

C) 24 min

D ) 48 min

51 Which of the following describes the entropy

change for the sublimation of iodine I2(s) → I2(g)?

A ) ∆S < 0

B ) ∆S = 0

C) ∆S > 0

D ) Cannot be determined from the given information

52 When a sound source moves away from an

observer, the observer has the impression that the

sound source is:

A ) rotating

B ) louder than it actually is

C) lower in frequency than it actually is

D ) higher in frequency than it actually is

53 Below is a phase diagram for water

As the pressure applied to a sample of water at –0.1°C is increased from 1.0 torr to 200 atm at constant temperature, the:

A) vapor will become a solid and then a liquid

B) vapor will become a liquid and then a solid

C) vapor will become and remain a solid

D) solid will become a liquid

54 A small negatively charged particle is placed near

a fixed positively charged particle (Q) Which of

the following describes the motion of the negatively charged particle?

A) It accelerates away from Q

B) It accelerates toward Q.

C) It moves with constant speed away from Q.

D) It moves with constant speed toward Q.

Passage IX

A chemist reacted Substance X with various quantities

of Ti and then performed two experiments to study the

properties of the resulting samples The samples

contained 0%, 1%, 3%, and 5% Ti (and were referred

to as XT-0, XT-1, XT-3, and XT-5, respectively.)

Experiment 1

The solubilities of the XTs were determined by adding

a fixed amount of each to two different solvents,

tetrahydrofuran (THF) and toluene (Figure 1) The

results are shown in Table 1

The XTs were placed under N2(g), then heated to

1,500°C, cooled, and reheated The mass of each

sample was recorded at various temperatures during

the process (Table 2)

Table 2 Effects of Temperature Change on the Mass of

XT Samples Mass of Sample (g) Temperature

(°C) XT-0 XT-1, 3, & 5*

20° 1.0 1.0 700° 0.8 0.8 1,200° 0.8 0.8 1,500° 0.8 1.1 20° 0.8 0.8 1,200° 0.8 0.8 1,500° 0.8 1.1

* XT-1, 3, and 5 responded the same way

55 Which of the following conclusions about XT

solubility is most consistent with the data in Table 1?

A) The solubility of XTs in THF decreases as the percentage of Ti increases

B) The solubility of XTs in toluene decreases as the percentage of Ti increases

C) XTs are more soluble in THF than in toluene

D) XTs are more soluble in toluene than in THF

56 The loss in weight as XTs are heated from 20°C to

700°C most likely occurs because:

A) hydrogen bonds are formed

B) XTs are ionized

C) nuclei emit protons

D) volatile components are released

57 Electrons in which of the following orbitals of Ti

can form bonds with Substance X?

A) 2s B) 3d C) 4p D) 5f

58 Which of the following elements, if reacted with

Substance X, will most likely yield compounds

with the same properties as the XTs described in

A ) THF, because THF forms hydrogen bonds with

H2O but toluene does not

B ) THF, because THF forms stronger hydrogen bonds

with water than does toluene

C) Toluene, because toluene contains double bonds but

THF does not

D ) Toluene, because toluene has a higher molecular

weight than does THF

Passage X

A 47-kg child with a 3-kg sled and a 54-kg child with a

6-kg toboggan slide down the ice-covered hill

illustrated in the figure below Points A and B are at

the top and bottom of the hill, respectively, and are a

distance l apart along the slope Between points A and

B the sled and rider slide free of friction, but the

toboggan and rider are opposed by a constant 60-N

frictional force To the right of Point B the sled and

rider are opposed by a 50-N frictional force, and the

toboggan and rider are opposed by a 120-N frictional

force (Note: Assume that air resistance is negligible

Use g = 10 m/s2.)

61 Which of the following best describes the energy

conversion that is taking place when the toboggan

is sliding from Point A to Point B?

A ) Kinetic to potential and thermal

B ) Kinetic and potential to thermal

C) Potential to kinetic and thermal

D ) Potential and kinetic to thermal

62 Which of the following expressions gives the

amount of energy lost to friction by the toboggan

and rider between points A and B?

A ) (60 N)(20 m)

B ) (60 N)(l)

C) (60 kg)(g)(20 m)

D ) (60 kg)(g)(l)

63 The sled and rider are traveling at 10 m/s when

they have a completely inelastic collision with the stationary toboggan and rider How fast do the sled and toboggan travel immediately after the collision?

A) 4.6 m/sB) 5.0 m/sC) 8.3 m/sD) 10 m/s

64 What is the coefficient of friction between the sled

and the ground when the sled and rider are to the right of Point B?

A) 0.1B) 0.2C) 0.5D) 1.0

65 From ground level, a person at Point A throws a

snowball horizontally to the right at 25 m/s Where does the snowball land?

A) 10 m to the left of Point B B) At Point B

C) 12.5 m to the right of Point B D) 50 m to the right of Point B

66 The sled and rider start from a location on the hill

that is 10 m lower than Point A How does the speed of the sled and rider at Point B, starting from this location, compare to the speed of the sled and rider at Point B when starting from the top of the hill?

A) It is slower by a factor of 4

B) It is slower by a factor of 2 C) It is slower by a factor of 2

D) It is slower by a factor of

Passage XI

Lasers produce extremely coherent light due to the

long-term stability of the standing-wave pattern

established within a laser cavity A standing-wave

pattern in a laser cavity is illustrated in the figure

below

Standing-wave patterns are characterized by nodes and

antinodes There are five nodes in the figure with three

of them labeled Antinodes are located midway

between adjacent nodes The amplitude is always zero

at a node, but the wave amplitude oscillates

sinusoidally at an antinode A typical laser cavity may

contain millions of cavity nodes

A number used to describe standing waves is the mode

number, m, which is equal to one less than the number

of nodes in the standing-wave pattern Laser cavities

have mode numbers that are related to the allowed

cavity wavelength, λm, through the equation mλm = 2L,

where L is the length of the laser cavity For a gas laser,

the atomic properties of the lasing medium may limit

the number of possible frequencies of oscillation to

two or three These allowed frequencies, fm, are

determined by the equation fm = c/λm, where c = 3

× 108 m/s, the speed of light

67 What is the spacing between adjacent nodes in a

68 For a given laser-cavity mode, the standing-wave

pattern within a laser cavity can be viewed as a superposition of two traveling waves Their amplitudes and directions are described by which

of the following?

A) Equal amplitudes; opposite directionsB) Equal amplitudes; same directionC) Different amplitudes; same directionD) Different amplitudes; opposite directions

69 A certain laser has only one mode of oscillation

Which of the following are properties of the light

70 A gas laser has a cavity length of ⅓ m and a

single oscillation frequency of 9.0 x 1014Hz What

is the cavity mode number?

A) 1.5 x 106B) 2.0 x 106C) 3.0 x 106D) 6.0 x 106

71 A gas laser can oscillate simultaneously in two

adjacent cavity modes This oscillation produces

beats; the beat frequency is ƒb = (fm+1 – fm) where

ƒm+1 and ƒm are the frequencies of the two cavity modes Which of the following is an expression for the beat wavelength?

A) (fm+1 – fm)

c

B) c(fm+1 – fm) C) 1

c(fm+1 – fm)

(fm+1 – fm)

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

72 An object that is totally immersed in benzene

(specific gravity = 0.7) is subject to a buoyancy

force of 5 N When the same object is totally

immersed in an unknown liquid, the buoyancy

force is 12 N What is the approximate specific

gravity of the unknown liquid?

A ) 0.3

B ) 0.9

C) 1.7

D ) 2.3

73 A 1.0-kg object slides along a frictionless surface

at 8.0 m/s until it strikes a stationary 3.0-kg block

If the blocks stick together, what is their speed

immediately after the collision?

A ) 1.0 m/s

B ) 2.0 m/s

C) 4.0 m/s

D ) 8.0 m/s

74 Which of the following will occur if the acidity of

a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is increased?

A ) The Ksp will decrease and additional Ca(OH)2 will

76 The principal quantum number is a measure of

which of the following?

A) Approximate radial size of an electron cloudB) Approximate shape of an electron cloudC) Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleusD) Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

77 An unknown solid weighs 31.6 N When

submerged in water, its apparent weight is 19.8 N What is the specific gravity of the unknown sample?

A) 2.96B) 2.68C) 2.02D) 1.68

Time: 85 minutes Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test Each passage is followed by several

questions After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet

Passage I

As the national government has reordered its economic

priorities, state and local governments have become

more innovative and active vis-à-vis their economies

The characteristic that distinguishes state and local

economic development activity is competitiveness

Nonnational governments are awash in competition for

economic development, primarily for a structural

reason: A fragmented federal system fosters

interjurisdictional competition More that 82 percent of

influential local officials in Southeastern cities termed

the economic development environment “very

competitive” in a survey conducted in l986

State and local governments have reacted to this

situation by taking actions intended to make

themselves more attractive to new and relocating

enterprises If a business firm is unhappy with

conditions in a community, it may seek a new location,

and it is likely to find other communities waiting with

open arms When the Mack Truck Company

announced its intention to relocate its manufacturing

facility from Allentown, Pennsylvania, it had an array

of communities from which to choose To make

themselves more enticing, the beckoning jurisdictions

(and their state governments) offered a panoply of

incentives, including property tax abatements,

below-cost land, infrastructure, and training programs for

potential employees Mack Truck decided to relocate

to South Carolina

Economic competition is most apparent when the

stakes are high—that is, when the location decision

will mean a substantial number of jobs, as in the case

of General Motors’ Saturn plant State after state lined

up to offer General Motors generous packages of

financial incentives, promising an assortment of tax

breaks, access roads, water and sewer systems, and

employee training The eventual winner was Tennessee

There is a great deal of debate about the effect of

interjurisdictional competition As we noted earlier,

incentives and concessions amount to a giveaway to

example, governors of the Great Lakes states have been unsuccessful in establishing a “no pirating” pact within the region

Counties have found cooperation challenging, too A National Association of Counties study of urban counties reported that only 5 percent frequently coordinated their economic development activities with other counties Only slightly more (19 percent) indicated frequent coordination with cities located within their boundaries Economic development has tended to be a singular proposition, with each jurisdiction pursuing its own destiny

This can be destructive to the jurisdictions involved

For example, the State Development Board in South Carolina, an agency devoted to promoting the state as a place for investment, has encouraged rural counties to band together and pursue a united economic

development effort But the board’s encouragement does not square with political realities Lingering rivalries between adjacent counties effectively blunt efforts at cooperation Further, while the board advocates intrastate cooperation, it explicitly engages

in interstate competition: The reason that South Carolina counties should work together, it argues, is to become stronger competitors against North Carolina counties Competition continues, but in a different arena

Economic conditions may ultimately serve as the catalyst for greater cooperation among jurisdictions

This is exactly what has occurred in the Monongahela River Valley area This 7,400-square-mile section of southwestern Pennsylvania, northern West Virginia, and western Maryland has found that the markets for its products and traditional sources of investment are drying up Individual jurisdictions have realized that the economic problems are too big for them to solve alone; the troubled economies of the cities and counties are symptoms of a region-wide malaise After

a series of false starts, local leaders have journeyed across county and state boundaries to develop a coordinated agenda for economic revival

78 The passage suggests that economic competition

between subnational units of government

provides:

A ) the same positive benefits as does competition

between private firms

B ) an increase in efficiency for the competing

79 According to the passage, to whom might one look

to foster cooperation rather than competition

80 Suppose that the Monongahela River Valley area

prospered during the next ten years, even during

times of general economic downturn The lesson

of this experience for local jurisdictions, in

general, would be:

A ) to compete more intensely than previously

B ) to keep their level of competition much the same as

it had always been

C) to cooperate more than they had a decade

previously

D ) to attempt to get additional federal grants for local

government

81 Suppose that a study found that in 47 randomly

chosen counties, economic conditions had improved over a five-year period and that after that time, those counties coordinated their economic development activities with other counties Which of the following statements is an assumption of the author about local jurisdictions

that would be called into question?

A) They never cooperate on economic development

B) They cooperate only if state law requires it

C) They cooperate most often under conditions of economic stress

D) They cooperate only with other jurisdictions within the same state

82 According to the passage, competitive behavior

with respect to economic development is characteristic of:

I national government

II state government

III local government A) I only

B) II onlyC) I and II onlyD) II and III only

83 Which of the following conclusions can justifiably

be drawn from the experience of the Great Lakes states mentioned in the passage?

A) State governments have little success in controlling economic competition among local governments B) State governments usually restrict economic competition among local governments

C) Local governments are more successful than are state governments in controlling their economic competition

D) Only the national government has the power to regulate economic competition among local governments

Passage II

Knowledge structures called memory schemas have

become very important in theories of human learning

and thinking Schemas are organized knowledge

structures in memory that can be thought of as generic

concepts representing objects, persons, situations,

events, sequences of events, actions, or sequences of

actions

A memory schema is activated when information

similar to its content is processed by the cognitive

system Once activated, the schema influences the

processing of the new information and provides a

mental context for it If the information is similar

enough to the content of the schema, then it is judged

an instance of what the schema represents The schema

is thus instantiated by the new information For

example, if a person sees only an eye and a nose in a

picture, with other facial features in shadow and not

visible, the person may infer on the basis of this partial

information that he or she should look for a face This

example assumes, of course, that the eye and nose have

the correct orientation and the correct relative position

There is a special type of schema called a script that

not only aids in comprehending and remembering

information but also helps guide behavior For

example, when a person is eating in a restaurant, the

restaurant script activated in memory enables the

person not only to expect certain events (such as being

shown a table and being approached by a waiter) but

also initiates behavior (such as ordering and paying)

If a person reading a passage comes upon the sentence

“John was hungry, so he entered a restaurant,” the

restaurant script is activated in memory The advantage

of having this active script available to the reader is

that it provides general information about restaurants

However, specific information about this particular

restaurant event must be selected from the passage as

an instance of the script If the next sentence is “John

sat down near the door and gave his order to Paul,”

then the generic script allows the reader to infer that

script is being instantiated The table involved is one near the restaurant door, and the waiter involved is Paul Other information not explicitly mentioned in the passage can be inferred on the basis of what is stored

in the generic script For example, the reader may infer that the restaurant gave John a napkin to use and that the color of the napkin was white

If the reader later tries to remember the information read, the restaurant script is again activated and enables the restaurant event described in the passage to

be remembered The slots of the schema contain the information placed there during its most recent activation, although this information is not retained perfectly Some forgetting may occur Other types of recall errors can also occur Because many inferences are made during schema-based comprehension, some information may be recalled that was never presented These inferences often cannot be discriminated by the learner from the information presented

84 The author would argue that schema theory is

important to the study of thinking and learning because it:

A) provides a basis for determining the memories of

an event that are correct or true

B) explains the way previous experiences affect the comprehension of similar events

C) indicates the way important events, actions, or persons could be forgotten

D) illustrates the way memory is activated in totally unfamiliar situations

85 The discussion of scripts includes the assumption

that:

A ) each different encounter with a type of event is a

new learning experience

B ) remembered information exactly matches the

content of the original event

C) once a script is developed, it cannot be used in new

instances

D ) schemas help people to cope with new instances of

a situation

86 According to information in the passage, slot

filling would be likely to occur when a child:

I started a second year of school

II learned to ride a bicycle

III first saw the alphabet

A ) I only

B ) II only

C) I and II only

D ) I, II, and III

87 If several readers were to recall conflicting details

from the same literary work, this situation would

best support the assertion that:

A ) inferences are made independently of schemas

B ) scripts cannot be partially activated

C) schemas are instantiated subconsciously

D ) recall errors are a normal feature of schema-based

comprehension

88 Which of the following statements is the most

reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the

author’s description of script activation?

A ) Instantiation occurs deliberately

B ) Behavior is guided by prior knowledge

C) Slot filling provides generalized information

D ) Inferencing depends on the processing of new

information

89 To judge whether instantiation has occurred, a

researcher would need to determine:

A) whether new information contains elements of a new schema

B) whether new information alters a schema

C) the amount of information needed to activate a schema

D) whether new information fits a schema

90 The passage states that a reader may later recall

information that had not actually been presented According to the author, this effect would

probably have resulted from:

A) the careful reading of the text

B) incomplete prior knowledge of the topic

C) inferences made by the reader

D) the instantiation of more than one schema

91 Which of the following approaches to reading

instruction would be most likely to be stressed by

an elementary-school teacher who had an understanding of schema theory?

A) The development of background knowledgeB) The improvement of pronunciation skillsC) The importance of rote memorizationD) The explanation of unfamiliar words

92 In discussing problems with recall after reading,

the author refers to inferences made during

schema-based comprehension This process could

reasonably be described as:

I activating the wrong script

II using prior knowledge to “rewrite” the

D ) II and III only

93 The contention that “the schema influences the

processing of the new information and provides a

mental context for it” can most justifiably be

interpreted as support for the idea that:

A ) understanding requires concentrated study

B ) experience supplies a framework for learning

C) meaning can arise only after all the facts are

acquired

D ) clear thinking requires a conscious exercise of

memory

Passage III

Research traditions and theories can encounter serious

cognitive difficulties if they are incompatible with

certain broader systems of belief within a given culture

Such incompatibilities constitute conceptual problems

that may seriously challenge the acceptability of the

theory But it may equally well happen that a highly

successful research tradition will lead to the

abandonment of that world view which is incompatible

with it and to the elaboration of a new world view

compatible with the research tradition Indeed, it is in

precisely this manner that many radically new

scientific systems eventually come to be “canonized”

as part of our collective “common sense.”

In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, for

instance, the new research traditions of Descartes and

Newton went violently counter to many of the most

cherished beliefs of the age on such questions as

“humanity’s place in Nature,” the history and extent of

the cosmos, and more generally, the nature of physical

processes Everyone at the time acknowledged the

existence of these conceptual problems They were

eventually resolved, not by modifying the offending

research traditions to bring them in line with more

traditional world views, but rather by forging a new

world view which could be reconciled with the

scientific research traditions A similar process of

readjustment occurred in response to the Darwinian

and Marxist research traditions in the late nineteenth

century; in each case, the core, “nonscientific” beliefs

of reflective people were eventually modified to bring

them in line with highly successful scientific systems

But it would be a mistake to assume that world views

always crumble in the face of new scientific research

traditions which challenge them To the contrary, they

often exhibit a remarkable resilience which belies the

(positivistic) tendency to dismiss them as mere fluff

The history of science, both recent and distant, is

replete with cases in which world views have not

evaporated in the face of scientific theories which

challenged them In our own time, for instance, neither

quantum mechanics nor behavioristic psychology has

shifted most people’s beliefs about the world or

themselves Contrary to quantum mechanics, most

find it helpful to talk about the inner, mental states of themselves and others

Confronted with such examples, one might claim that these research traditions are still new and that older world views predominate only because the newer insights have not yet penetrated the general consciousness Such a claim may prove to be correct, but before we accept it uncritically, there are certain more striking historical cases that need to be aired

Ever since the seventeenth century, the dominant research traditions within the physical sciences have presupposed that all physical changes are subject to invariable natural laws (either statistical or

nonstatistical) Given certain initial conditions, certain consequences would inevitably ensue

Strictly speaking, this claim should be as true of humans and other animals as it is of stars, planets, and molecules Yet in our own time as much as in the seventeenth century, very few people are prepared to abandon the conviction that human beings (and some

of the higher animals) have a degree of indetermination in their actions and their thoughts

Virtually all of our social institutions, most of our social and political theory, and the bulk of our moral philosophy are still based on a world view seemingly incompatible with a law-governed universe

94 The author of the passage characterizes the theory

of quantum mechanics as one that:

A) most people accept even though it seems to conflict with common sense

B) challenges the view most people have about the world in which they live

C) is incompatible with the idea that we live in a universe governed by natural laws

D) has led most people to change their world views

95 According to the author, our social, political, and

moral beliefs:

A ) are rooted in the idea that the same set of laws

should apply to everyone

B ) often coexist with a broader system of cultural

attitudes with which they are inconsistent

C) conflict with scientific research traditions that have

been accepted since the seventeenth century

D ) grew out of the acceptance of Darwinism and

Marxism among educated people in the late

nineteenth century

96 If the public reception of Einstein’s theory of

relativity repeated the reception that the author

claims was given to Newton’s ideas, most people

would:

A ) accept the theory readily and quickly revise their

ideas about natural laws

B ) resist the theory initially but gradually modify their

view of the universe

C) claim to believe the theory but ignore its profound

implications

D ) reject its version of reality as contrary to common

sense

97 The claim that natural laws should be as true of

humans as of stars, planets, and molecules is most

in accord with the view that:

A ) some scientific laws take a long time to become

widely accepted

B ) some physical changes can be explained by

statistical laws only

C) in the seventeenth century, physical theories were

thought to apply to all physical objects

D ) all physical changes are completely determined by

natural laws

98 Assume that strong evidence from research in

genetics has led many thoughtful people to change their ideas about what it means to be human

Which of the following claims would be strengthened?

I “A highly successful research tradition will lead to the abandonment of that world view which is incompatible with it and to the elaboration of a new world view.”

II “It would be a mistake to assume that world views always crumble in the face of new scientific research traditions which challenge them.”

III “Very few people are prepared to abandon the conviction that human beings have

a degree of indetermination in their actions.”

A) I onlyB) III onlyC) I and II onlyD) I and III only

99 The author probably mentions that most people

talk as if inner mental states existed in order:

A) to demonstrate the weakness of some scientific theories

B) to provide an example of the application of natural law to human behavior

C) to illustrate the persistence of beliefs that conflict with scientific theories

D) to support the claim that behaviorism is a very new research tradition

Passage IV

Approximately 65 million years ago, at the boundary

between the Cretaceous and Tertiary geological

periods (the K-T boundary), there was a large-scale

and rapid extinction of plants and animals, including

the dinosaurs The discovery of high levels of the

element iridium in rocks laid down at this time led to

the proposal that an asteroid or a comet struck Earth,

leading to the extinctions This scenario proposes that

the impact of the interplanetary object filled Earth’s

atmosphere with dust and smoke, blocking out sunlight

and lowering temperatures The resulting “winter”

would have had dire ecological consequences,

including slowing plant growth However, in the case

of the K-T boundary, some scientists have expressed

doubt that the dust could have made Earth cold enough

for a long enough period to cause the massive

extinctions observed

These doubts have led to a search for other possibly

disastrous atmospheric effects of a collision between a

celestial object and Earth One might involve

sedimentary rocks rich in carbonates, which are found

in shallow ocean beds or on dry land that was once

under the ocean If an asteroid with a radius of 50 km

struck a 4-km thick carbonate layer, there would be a

significant release of carbon dioxide (CO2) into the

atmosphere, enough to raise the atmospheric

concentration of CO2 about a hundredfold

When sunlight hits Earth, a significant portion of its

heat is radiated out into the atmosphere Atmospheric

CO2 absorbs the heat that is radiated from Earth and

radiates it back to Earth This warming is called the

greenhouse effect Over the past century, atmospheric

CO2 has increased, primarily due to the burning of

fossil fuels such as coal and oil Projections of future

fuel usage have prompted many experts to be

concerned about further increases in atmospheric CO2

because these increases could lead to global warming

and significant climatic changes The temperature

increases projected by some for the next century are on

the order of 2°C to 4°C Atmospheric modeling

indicates that such increases could lead to, among

other effects, a partial melting of the polar ice caps,

causing flooding of low-lying coastal areas

at the K-T boundary A hundredfold increase in CO2

would lead to an increase of 20°C in global temperature within ten days A smaller impact, such as

an asteroid with a radius of 10 km hitting 2-km thick layer of carbonate rock, would lead to a warming of 5°C in the same period of time Because of the slow mixing of atmospheric CO2, these increases in CO2

would persist for 10,000 years

The ecological effects of such rapid, significant, and persistent global warming would have been profound For example, CO2 is less soluble in water as the temperature rises Therefore, as the temperature of the upper ocean rose, its dissolved CO2 concentration would have decreased, and this decrease would have inhibited the growth of marine algae Because these tiny plants are at the base of the oceanic food chain, many marine species would have become extinct On land, the elevated temperatures would have disrupted weather patterns and thus the growth of land plants which form the basis of terrestrial food chains Thus, global warming could have led to the extinction of the dinosaurs

100 Evidence shows that at the K-T boundary, many

species of fish became extinct within a short time This fact tends to support the hypothesis concerning increased CO2 because:

A) dissolved CO2 is poisonous to fish

B) fish would die because of the increased dust in the water

C) fish eat algae, which would flourish as atmospheric

CO2 increased

D) warmer water holds less CO2

101 It is possible to measure the amount of dissolved

CO2 that was present at the K-T boundary by

examining cores of ice deep in the polar ice

sheets Such information would be relevant to the

CO2 theory presented in the passage because it

C) prove that an asteroid had struck Earth

D ) prove that dust did not cause climatic change at the

time

102 According to passage information, what would

happen if an asteroid 10 km in diameter hit Earth

in the deepest part of the ocean?

A ) Global temperatures would rise by 5°C

B ) Large-scale extinctions of species would occur

C) Only aquatic species would become extinct

D ) The passage does not address this possibility

103 Which of the following scientific advances would

most seriously challenge the hypothesis

involving increased levels of CO2?

A ) The dating of a major asteroid impact on carbonate

rock not followed by a climatic change

B ) Proof of high iridium levels at the K-T boundary

C) Further correlation of increased CO2 with global

warming

D ) Confirmation of increases in global CO2 without an

asteroid impact

104 In the late nineteenth century a volcano erupted,

spewing massive amounts of ash into the air

According to the passage, this event could have

led to:

A ) decreases in carbonate rocks

B ) excess sunlight reaching Earth

C) temporary global cooling

D ) increases in atmospheric CO2

105 Which of the following assertions is most clearly

a thesis presented by the author?

A) No species can survive in high levels of CO2.B) Rapid temperature increases can occur if there is dust in the air

C) Marine species are less sensitive to CO2

concentrations than are terrestrial species

D) Extinctions at the K-T boundary may have occurred

in part because a large celestial object hit Earth

106 If the hypothesis of the passage is correct, one

should find that at the K-T boundary:

A) sea levels rose

B) excess iridium was not present

C) no large-scale extinctions occurred

D) the atmosphere was of constant composition

107 Which of the following suppositions is most

clearly believed by the author?

A) Dinosaurs lived near the site of an asteroid impact.B) Many species died of starvation at the K-T

boundary

C) Dust did not fill the air after an asteroid impact

D) Marine food chains are not dependent on CO2

Passage V

From 1890, when he was nine, Picasso’s family saved

virtually every scrap of paper on which he drew

Harbingers of Picasso’s later genius appear in

fragmented and distorted aspects of form and scale,

depictions garlanded by numerical and alphabetical

symbols, a proliferation of trompe l’oeil, visual puns,

outrageous caricatures, incongruous juxtapositions,

and the like We do not know whether Picasso

consciously thought back to these graphic experiments

when, two decades later, he and Georges Braque were

inventing cubism, but at least at an unconscious level,

Picasso could tap this reservoir of youthful

experimentation

The standard story told of Picasso is that his

precocious talent enabled him to surpass, without

effort, all other artists in his milieu It is worth

considering Picasso’s own opinion that what is often

considered early genius is actually the nạveté of

childhood “It disappears at a certain age without

leaving traces.” It is possible that a young child who

shows unusual flair will one day become an artist, but

he or she “will have to begin again from the beginning

I did not have this genius For example, my first

drawings could not have been hung in a display of

children’s work These pictures lacked

childlikeness At a youthful age I painted in a quite

academic way, so literal and precise that I am shocked

today.” At an exhibition of children’s art, Picasso once

quipped, “When I was their age, I could draw like

Raphael, but it has taken me a whole lifetime to learn

to draw like them.”

In such remarks, Picasso exalted children’s

productions but also distanced his youthful self from

the romantic view of artistic talent It is true that the

works preserved by Picasso’s family support the notion

of Picasso as an aspiring academic painter (as his

father was) and not as a charming nạf However, we

lack drawings by Picasso from his first eight years and

so cannot determine the resemblance of his earliest

efforts to those of other children Moreover, his

youthful caprices and marginalia may have been as

crucial in his artistic development as his formally

conceived early paintings My own conclusion is that

that no word short of prodigy can describe him in his

spectacular progress over the next several years

Apollinaire asserted that there were two kinds of artists: the unreflective virtuoso, who relies on nature, and the cerebral structurer, who relies on understanding

Mozart could serve as prototype for the first, Beethoven for the second As a prodigy, Picasso epitomized the second type, but, said Apollinaire, he was able to convert himself into the first “Never has there been so fantastic a spectacle as the

metamorphosis he underwent in becoming an artist of the first type.” Picasso himself sensed the paradox of this transformation when he complained to Gertrude Stein, “If I can draw as well as Raphael, I have at least the right to choose my way, and they should recognize that right, but no, they say no.”

The Portrait of Gertrude Stein (1906) stands out as an

indicator of this transformation: Picasso asked his subject to remain for over eighty sittings Then he went away for the summer, annihilated the recognizable facial features, and finished the portrait away from Stein, substituting masklike features for realistic ones (Chastised because the portrait did not look like Stein, Picasso reportedly responded with one of the notable artistic one-liners of the century: “Don’t worry, it will.”)

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

H Gardner, Creating Minds ©1993 by H Gardner

108 According to the author, Picasso’s artistic

achievements were in large part the result of his: A) retention of the effortless genius of childhood

B) rejection of the art movements of his time

C) practice of making multiple revisions and amendments

D) learning to work with apparent spontaneity

109 The word nature is used in the sense of:

A) objects and scenes of the natural world

B) elementary aesthetic principles

110 What is the author’s response to the standard

story about the origin of Picasso’s genius?

A ) Acceptance: Picasso’s early drawings are described

as unusually skilled and his progress as spectacular

B ) Neutral: It is mentioned only to introduce the

discussion of Picasso’s eventual virtuosity

C) Revisionist: It is presented as applicable only to

Picasso’s earliest efforts

D ) Skepticism: Picasso’s earliest drawings are

presumed to be not especially precocious

111 The assertion that Picasso’s early productions

contain harbingers of his later art is NOT clearly

consistent with the information about:

A ) the way Picasso described his first drawings

B ) the distortions of form and scale in these works

C) the lack of drawings from his first eight years

D ) the playfulness of his graphic experimentation

112 Which of the following innovative forms of art

that are identified with Picasso most clearly

exemplifies his own implied goals?

A ) Sculptures constructed of various surprising “found

113 Which passage information provides the

strongest reason to suppose that Picasso had

always been an artist of Apollinaire’s first type?

A ) Picasso quipped that as a child he could draw as

well as Raphael

B ) Picasso’s early drawings indicate exuberant

experimentation

C) Picasso wrote that in his youth he painted “in a

quite academic way.”

D ) Picasso revised his portrait of Gertrude Stein from

114 The author’s characterization of Picasso’s artistic

aims suggests that the retort, “Don’t worry, it will” meant that the painting:

A) was intended to portray Stein as she would probably look in old age

B) would become a more accurate portrait as Picasso continued to work on it

C) was concerned with pictorial qualities other than a literally accurate likeness

D) was an attempt to teach viewers to look at portraits

in a more analytic way

115 A novel that would best represent the literary

style of a reflective “cerebral structurer” would probably have:

A) many layers of meaning

B) great emotional power

C) terse, realistic dialogue

D) universally symbolic images