AAMC MCAT test 3r

Trial 2 The same test tube was placed in boiling water until the acetamide was completely melted.. For this trial, however, the test tube was then placed in a beaker of water at 20o C.

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Physical Sciences

Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive

passage After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided for your use You may consult it whenever you wish

Passage I

A series of chemical reactions was carried out to study

the chemistry of lead

Reaction 1

Initially, 15.0 mL of 0.300 M Pb(NO3)2(aq) was mixed

with 15.0 mL of 0.300 M Na2SO4(aq) All the

Pb(NO3)2 reacted to form Compound A, a white

precipitate Compound A was removed by filtration

Reaction 2

Next, 15.0 mL of 0.300 M KI(aq) was added to

Compound A The mixture was agitated and some of

Compound A dissolved In addition, a yellow

precipitate of PbI2(s) was formed

Reaction 3

The PbI2(s) was separated and mixed with 15.0 mL of

0.300 M Na2CO3(aq) A white precipitate of PbCO3(s)

formed All of the PbI2(s) was converted into PbCO3(s)

Reaction 4

The PbCO3(s) was removed by filtration and a small

sample gave off a gas when treated with dilute HCl

1 Which of the following reactions depicts the

formation of the gas in Reaction 4?

A ) PbCO 3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

B ) Na2CO 3(aq) + 2 HCl(aq) →

2 NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

C) PbCO 3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → PbC2(s) + Cl2(g) + H2O(l)

D ) PbI 2(s) + HCl(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + HI(g)

2 The identity of Compound A is:

A ) Pb(NO3)2

B ) PbI2

C) NaNO3

3 Pb(OH)2(s) is slightly soluble in water How would

the amount of Pb(OH)2(s) that normally dissolves in

1 L of water be affected if the pH were 9.0?

A) Less would dissolve

B) The same amount would dissolve

C) More would dissolve

D) There is no way to predict the effect of the change

in pH of the water

4 A soluble form of Pb2+ can be carefully added to a solution to sequentially precipitate and separate anions present in the solution When Pb2+ is added,

in what order will the following anions be precipitated?

A) SO42- then IB) CO32- then I-C) SO42- then CO32-

-D) I- then CO3

2-5 How many moles of Na+ ions are there in the initial

Na2SO4(aq) solution used in Reaction 1?

A) 0.0018 moleB) 0.009 moleC) 0.045 moleD) 0.090 mole

Passage II

At the critical point, the density of liquid CO2 is equal

to the density of gaseous CO2 This occurs at specific

conditions of temperature and pressure At

temperatures and pressures above the critical point

values, CO2 is deemed supercritical For a

supercritical fluid, the density and ability to dissolve

other substances are similar to values expected for

liquids The following figures give phase data for CO2

Figure 2 Isothermal curves for CO2 near the critical

point V (x 104) is relative to V = 1.000 at 0oC and

1.000 atm

6 In Figure 2, which of the points (A-D) is the critical

point for CO2? A) A

B) BC) CD) D

7 In an extraction of an organic oil, which of the

following is an advantage of using supercritical

CO2? A) It reacts with most organic compounds

B) It is easily handled at room temperature

C) It crystallizes easily

D) It is easily removed by evaporation

8 Water is a liquid at room temperature, yet CO2 at room temperature is liquid only at high

pressures Which of the following best explains this?

A) CO2 is polar and has strong intermolecular forces

B) CO2 is nonpolar and has strong intermolecular forces

C) CO2 is polar and has weak intermolecular forces

D) CO2 is nonpolar and has weak intermolecular forces

9 According to Figure 1, what is the critical

temperature and pressure of CO2? A) –56.1o C and 6.0 atm

B) –54.1o C and 119.0 atmC) 31.1o C and 75.3 atmD) 25.0o C and 1.0 atm

10 Which of the following compounds is most

soluble in supercritical CO2? A) NaCl

B) C2H5OC2H5

C) NH4NO3

D) KOH

Passage III

When X-rays are produced in an X-ray tube, two types

of X-ray spectra are observed: continuous spectra and

line spectra

A continuous spectrum is produced by bremsstrahlung,

the electromagnetic radiation produced when free

electrons are accelerated during collisions with ions

A line spectrum results when an electron having

sufficient energy collides with a heavy atom, and an

electron in an inner energy level is ejected from the

atom An electron from an outer energy level then fills

the vacant inner energy level, resulting in emission of

an X-ray photon For example, if an electron in the n =

1 energy level is ejected from an atom, an electron in

the n = 2 level of the atom can fill the vacancy created

in the n = 1 level, and a photon with an energy equal to

the energy difference between the two levels will be

emitted

A scientist produced both types of spectra using the

X-ray tube shown in Figure 1 below

Figure 1 Heated cathode X-ray tube

The tube contains a heated filament cathode (C), which

emits electrons A power supply (LV) regulates the

filament temperature, the electrical current in the tube,

and the number of X-rays produced at the anode

(A) Another power supply (HV) regulates electron

acceleration

intensity, I, which is proportional to the number of

X-ray photons emitted at λ The scientist then graphed the results of the experiment, as shown in Figure 2

Figure 2 X-ray intensity versus wavelength

11 In Figure 2, which of the following represents the

source of emission peaks P1 and P2? A) Bremsstrahlung

B) Absorption of X-ray photons resulting in electronic excitations in atoms

C) Emission of X-ray photons as a result of electronic transitions in atoms

D) Acceleration of electrons in a magnetic field

12 Based on the tube in Figure 1, to maintain an

electron current of 0.005 A and a potential drop of

105 V between the anode and the cathode, approximately how much power must the tube consume?

A) 5 x 102 WB) 1 x 103 WC) 2 x 105 WD) 2 x 107 W

13 The ionization potentials for electrons in the n = 1,

2, and 3 energy levels of Pb are 1,400 x 10-17 J,

240 x 10-17J, and 48 x 10-17 J, respectively When

an electron in the n = 2 level fills a vacancy in the

n = 1 level, what is the energy of the X ray that is

14 According to the passage, bremsstrahlung will

NOT be produced by collisions between electrons

15 In order to increase the maximum kinetic energy

of electrons colliding with the anode, the scientist

made which of the following changes?

A ) The voltage of HV was increased

B ) The voltage of HV was decreased

C) The voltage of LV was increased

D ) The voltage of LV was decreased

16 In Figure 2, peaks P1 and P2 were produced by

events that occurred with unequal

probabilities Which peak was produced by the

more probable event?

A ) P1, because the peak has the longer wavelength

B ) P1, because the peak has the lower intensity

C) P2, because the peak has the longer wavelength

D ) P2, because the peak has the higher intensity

Passage IV

Many chemical bonds are not purely ionic or covalent,

but polar covalent For example, in an HCl bond,

chlorine has a greater attraction for electrons than

hydrogen does and therefore develops a partial

negative charge with respect to the hydrogen atom

If the partial charges are separated by a known distance,

the dipole moment, a measure of the charge separation

in a bond or molecule, can be calculated by the

following equation

dipole moment = charge x separation distance

Dipole moments are usually measured in debyes (D),

where 1 D = 3.34 x 10-30 coulomb · meter

The molecular geometry of some simple molecules can

be determined based on the presence or absence of a

net dipole moment in the molecule The observed

molecular dipole moments of various compounds are

reported in Table 1

Table 1 Dipole Moments for Various Compounds

Molecule Dipole moment (D)

17 Which of the following best explains the observed

molecular dipole moment of SnBr4? A) Sn and Br have the same effective nuclear charge.B) Sn and Br are the same size

C) Sn attracts electrons more strongly than predicted

by its electronegativity

D) The geometry of the molecule causes the bond moments to cancel

18 Which of the following figures most accurately

depicts the σ2s electron cloud in the NO molecule?A)

B)

C)

D)

19 Based on the observed dipole moment of HF in

Table 1, what is the observed dipole moment for HCl?

A) 0.02 DB) 1.08 DC) 4.22 DD) 8.97 D

20 Which of the following best explains why HCl

bonds are polar covalent?

A) H atoms are smaller than Cl atoms

B) H atoms are more electronegative than Cl atoms

21 If an O atom is removed from a CO2 molecule, the

observed molecular dipole moment will:

A ) decrease, because a lone pair of electrons will be

formed on the carbon

B ) decrease, because the net charge will increase

C) remain constant, because the geometry will not

change

D ) increase, because a charge separation will develop

22 Which of the two compounds, PCl3 or PCl5, can be

expected to have a larger dipole moment?

A ) PCl3, because its geometry is trigonal planar

B ) PCl3, because its geometry is pyramidal

C) PCl5, because its geometry is octahedral

D ) PCl5, because its geometry is trigonal bipyramidal

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

23 How much work is done when a constant

horizontal 20-N force pushes a 50-kg block a

distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface?

A ) 50 J

B ) 100 J

C) 200 J

D ) 500 J

24 Evaporation occurs when molecules at the surface

of a liquid overcome the attractive forces of the

liquid This occurs when molecules within the

liquid attain a sufficient amount of:

A ) resonance

B ) kinetic energy

C) surface tension

D ) potential energy

25 How long will it take a runner, starting from rest

and accelerating uniformly at 1.5 m/s2, to travel

26 A rectangular sheet of material has a width of 3 m

and a length of 4 m Forces with magnitudes of 3

N and 4 N, respectively, are applied parallel to two edges of the sheet, as shown in the figure below

A third force, F, is applied to the center of the

sheet, along a line in the plane of the sheet, at an angle θ = arctan 0.75 with respect to the horizontal direction The sheet will be in translational

equilibrium when F has what value?

A) F = 3 N B) F = 4 N C) F = 5 N D) F = 7 N

Passage V

A chemist performed the following experiments to

investigate the melting and freezing behaviors of

acetamide

Experiment 1: Melting

A large beaker of water was heated to a slow boil A

thermometer was placed in a test tube and 10 g of

acetamide crystals was added The test tube was then

lowered into the boiling water (100o C) The

temperature was immediately read, and was reread

every 15 sec The acetamide was stirred before each

reading When the temperature reached 80o C, the

acetamide started melting After a period of time,

when all the acetamide had melted, the temperature

began to increase again Results are shown in Figure 1

The test tube from Experiment 1 was removed from

the hot water and left to cool in air at 20o C The

temperature readings and stirring were continued every

30 sec The temperature dropped to 80o C, where it

remained constant The acetamide slowly began

freezing and was completely solid after 23 min After

this, the temperature again decreased The time for

freezing was considered to be excessive, so another

trial was completed

Trial 2

The same test tube was placed in boiling water until

the acetamide was completely melted For this trial,

however, the test tube was then placed in a beaker of

water at 20o C The results are shown in Figure 1

Figure 1 Melting and freezing behavior of acetamide

27 In Experiment 2, which of the following is the

most important difference in the procedures used for Trials 1 and 2?

A) The amounts of acetamide used in each test tubeB) The surroundings that were used to cool the acetamide

C) The temperatures at which the trials were startedD) The lengths of time allowed for the acetamide to melt

28 During Experiment 1, which of the following

would most likely have occurred if the water had only reached 90o C before the test tube was placed into it?

A) More water would have been needed to melt the acetamide

B) Less water would have been needed to melt the acetamide

C) The acetamide would not have melted

D) The acetamide would have taken longer to completely melt

29 How are the designs of the two experiments

important for producing useful results?

A ) Both processes, melting and freezing, take place

under controlled conditions

B ) Both processes, melting and freezing, take place

without being controlled or monitored

C) The amounts of acetamide are shown to control the

temperatures of melting and freezing

D ) The amounts of acetamide are shown to control the

times needed for melting and freezing

30 During Trial 1 of Experiment 2, if the temperature

readings were taken at 1-min intervals instead of

30-sec intervals, the acetamide would most likely

have become completely frozen at:

A ) 11 min, 30 sec

B ) 23 min

C) 46 min

D ) a lower temperature

31 In Experiment 2, why was it necessary to place the

test tube in hot water for Trial 2, in view of the

fact that this was NOT done in Trial 1?

A ) The water was boiling for Trial 1, but it needed to

be cold for Trial 2

B ) The acetamide was cooled by air in Trial 1, but by

water in Trial 2

C) The temperature lowered more quickly for Trial 2

than it did for Trial 1

D ) The acetamide was liquid before Trial 1, but it was

solid before Trial 2

32 If the data for Trial 1 were plotted in Figure 1,

compared to the data for Trial 2, they would:

A ) slope less steeply downward, and not all of the data

could be shown

B ) slope more steeply downward, and all of the data

could be shown

C) slope upward, and all of the data could be shown

D ) slope upward, and not all of the data could be

shown

Passage VI

The timbre, or quality, of a musical tone depends on

the number and relative strengths of the harmonics

including the fundamental frequency of the

note Figure 1a illustrates the first three harmonics of a

tone The addition of the first two harmonics is

pictured in Figure 1b, and the addition of the first 3

harmonics is shown in Figure 1c

Figure 1 Elements of a complex tone

The graphs in Figure 2 illustrate the characteristics of

two adjacent tones from a bassoon Figure 2a shows

the pressure variations and the amplitudes of the

harmonics for one of the tones, and Figure 2b shows

the same information for the other tone

Figure 2 Pressure variations and amplitudes of

harmonics for adjacent bassoon tones

33 Which of the waveforms shown in Figure 1 has

the shortest period?

A) First harmonicB) Second harmonicC) Third harmonicD) The waveform in Figure 1c

34 At the second position where the three curves

intersect in Figure 1a, the curves are all:

A) in phase

B) out of phase

C) at zero displacement

D) at maximum displacement

35 If the frequency of the first harmonic in Figure 2a

is 100 Hz, what is the period of the second

36 Which of the following graphs best illustrates the

relative amplitudes of the harmonics in Figure 1?

A )

B )

C)

D )

37 If a fourth harmonic exists for the tone graphed in

Figure 1, then, compared to the third harmonic, the

fourth harmonic will have:

A ) lower amplitude

38 The period of the waveform shown in Figure 1c is

the:

A) same as the period of the first harmonic

B) same as the period of the second harmonic

C) same as the period of the third harmonic

D) sum of the periods of the first, second, and third harmonics

Passage VII

Photoelectric materials can be used to supply electrical

power Suppose a photoelectric material has an

electronic energy level with a work function, ø If the

material is struck by a photon of frequency f, resulting

in the ejection of an electron from the energy level, the

electron is said to be free The kinetic energy (K) of

the free electron will be given by

K = hf – ø

where h is Planck's constant The conversion

efficiency (ε) of a photoelectric material is the fraction

of light energy incident on the surface of the material

that is converted into electrical energy

A physicist constructed a photoelectric device to

determine the individual conversion efficiencies of

Materials A and B For a material to be tested, a metal

grid was sandwiched between two thin layers of that

material The grid was used to collect the electrons

generated by the device The photoelectric material

had a coating that maximized the absorption of light at

certain frequencies Monochromatic light of varying

wavelengths (λ) was shone on the device, and the

conversion efficiency was determined at each λ The

results are given in Table 1

Table 1 Conversion Efficiency Versus Wavelength

39 The conversion efficiency of Material B is 0.42 at

A) cool the device

B) warm the device

C) maximize the conversion efficiency

D) reduce the magnitude of the current

41 Suppose that 2 identical photoelectric devices are

connected to the same electrical circuit, and the devices are connected in parallel with each other Compared to the voltage generated by a single device, the total voltage supplied to the circuit by the parallel devices will be:

A) 4 times as large

B) 2 times as large

C) 1/2 as large

D) the same

42 For a photon of energy hf to eject an electron from

a material with a work function ø, the photon's energy must be:

A) greater than ø

B) less than ø

C) less than K.

D) equal to K.

43 Suppose the physicist applies an additional

absorption coating on top of the original coating,

so that the conversion efficiency ε of Material A

will be independent of wavelength (λ) A graph of

ε versus λ for Material A with the additional

coating will most likely be represented by which

of the following functions?

A )

B )

C)

D )

Passage VIII

A student was asked to determine the identity of an

unknown acid that was liquid at room temperature

(20oC) The student was told that the acid was one of

those listed in Table 1

Molecular weight (g/mole)

Melting point ( o C) pKa

H2O(l) The student then titrated the solution with 0.10

M NaOH(aq) while monitoring the pH with a pH

meter The results are summarized in Figure 1

Figure 1 Titration of the acid with 0.1 M NaOH(aq)

Based on the titration curve, the student proposed that

the unknown acid had 1 –COOH group and a

molecular weight between 85 and 92

44 A comparison of which two compounds from

Table 1 best shows the effect of molecular weight alone on melting point?

A) Propionic acid and crotonic acid B) Propionic acid and oxalic acid C) Propionic acid and butyric acid D) Butyric acid and crotonic acid

45 Before titrating with NaOH(aq), what was the

approximate H3O+(aq) concentration of the

solution containing the unknown acid?

A) 0.001 M B) 0.01 M C) 0.03 M D) 0.3 M

46 The student prepared a 0.1 M aqueous solution of

crotonic acid and a 0.1 M aqueous solution of

oxalic acid, then adjusted the pH of each to 4.7 by adding NaOH Which solution has a lower freezing point?

A) The crotonic acid solution, because it contains a lower molar concentration of solute particles B) The crotonic acid solution, because it contains a greater percent mass of solute

C) The oxalic acid solution, because it contains a greater molar concentration of solute particles D) The oxalic acid solution, because it contains a smaller percent mass of solute

47 During the titration summarized in Figure 1, the

concentration of R–COOH equalled the

concentration of R–COO- when the pH

approximately equalled which of the

following? (Note: R is a hydrocarbon.)

A ) 4.8

B ) 6.2

C) 7.0

D ) 9.2

48 The student rejected crotonic acid as a possible

identity of the unknown acid because crotonic

acid:

A ) is a strong acid

B ) is insoluble in H2O

C) is solid at room temperature

D ) has a molecular weight of 86.09

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

49 Which one of the following general characteristics

is shared by all catalysts?

A ) They induce more collisions among reactant

molecules

B ) They transfer kinetic energy to the reactant

molecules

C) They increase the reaction rate but do not change

the Keq of a reversible reaction

D ) They increase both the reaction rate and the Keqof a

reversible reaction

50 Radium, 226Ra, spontaneously decays to radon

with the emission of an α-particle and a γ ray If

the speed of the α particle upon emission from an

initially stationary radium nucleus is 1.5 x 107 m/s,

what is the recoil speed of the resultant radon

nucleus? Assume the momentum of the γ ray is

negligible compared to that of the α particle

following rate law:

Rate = k[NO2][F2]

What is the overall order of this reaction?

B) -92.5 kJC) +92.5 kJD) +185.0 kJ

53 An object is placed upright on the axis of a thin

convex lens at a distance of four focal lengths (4 f)

from the center of the lens An inverted image

appears at a distance of 4/3 f on the other side of

the lens What is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object?

A) 1/3B) 3/4C) 4/3D) 3/1

Passage IX

The speed (v) of blood flowing through an artery can

be measured by the electromagnetic flowmeter shown

in Figure 1

Figure 1 Electromagnetic flowmeter

The flowmeter utilizes a magnet to apply a magnetic

field (B) across an artery This field produces

magnetic forces (Fm) that cause the positive and

negative ions in the blood to move to opposite sides of

the artery The segregation of charges creates an

electric field (E) within the artery The artery acts like

a parallel plate capacitor with plate separation equal to

the diameter (d) of the artery The voltage across the

artery (V) is measured by the meter in Figure 1 and is

equal to Ed The electric field produces an electric

force (Fe) on the ions that acts in the direction opposite

of Fm Charges continue to accumulate until an

equilibrium condition occurs when Fe = Fm At

equilibrium v = V/Bd

54 An artery is constricted at one location to 1/2 its

normal cross-sectional area How does the speed

of blood past the constriction compare to the speed

of blood flow in the rest of the

artery? (Note: Assume ideal fluid flow.)

A ) It is 1/4 as fast

B ) It is 1/2 as fast

C) It is 2 times as fast

D ) It is 4 times as fast

55 Which of the following will occur when the

magnet used in the flowmeter discussed in the passage is replaced with a stronger magnet?

A) The electric field will reverse polarity

B) The electric field will decrease

C) The voltage will increase

D) Blood will flow faster

56 What is the volume flow rate of blood that moves

at 0.20 m/s through an artery with a diameter of 1.0 x 10-2 m?

A) 5.0 x 10-6 m3/sB) 5π x 10-6 m3/sC) π x 10-5 m3/sD) 2π x 10-5 m3/s

57 If v increases by a factor of 2, by what factor does

the volume flow rate of blood through an artery increase?

A) 21/2B) 2C) 4D) 8

58 Which of the following describes the direction of

the magnetic force on an ion moving in an artery past a flowmeter?

A) Parallel to both the direction of v and the direction

of B B) Parallel to the direction of v and perpendicular to the direction of B

C) Perpendicular to the direction of v and parallel to the direction of B

D) Perpendicular to both the direction of v and the direction of B

Passage X

Several features of sulfuric acid are given below

Preparation of Sulfuric Acid

Sulfuric acid is commonly prepared by the combustion

of elemental sulfur to sulfur dioxide, followed by the

catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide to sulfur

trioxide Sulfur trioxide is then absorbed into a 98%

aqueous solution of H2SO4, and water is added to

maintain a 98% concentration SO3 reacts with the

water in the aqueous solution according to Reaction 1

Concentrated sulfuric acid is 98% H2SO4 and 2%

water by mass It has a density of 1.84 g/mL and a

boiling point of 338oC

Preparation of Other Acids

HCl(g) and HNO3(l) may be prepared by the reaction

between sulfuric acid and the sodium salt of the

corresponding conjugate base (Cl- or NO3-,

respectively)

Formation of SO 2

Sulfuric acid forms SO2 gas when it reacts with several

compounds For example, I2 and SO2 are formed when

I- reacts with concentrated H2SO4; Br2 and SO2 are

formed when Br- reacts with concentrated H2SO4 Cu+

and SO2 are formed in hot solutions of Cu(s) in

H2SO4 This last reaction is unusual, because most

metals react with solutions of H2SO4 to form hydrogen

gas and a metal sulfate

59 When sulfuric acid reacts with copper, how does

the oxidation number of the sulfur change?

A ) From +4 to +6

B ) From +6 to +4

C) From +6 to +8

D ) From +8 to +6

60 The apparatus shown below can be used to prepare

HNO3 (boiling point = 86oC)

The yield of HNO3 collected in the tube can be maximized by maintaining the temperatures of the flask and tube, respectively, at:

A) 0oC and 100oC

B) 100oC and 0oC

C) 350oC and 150oC

D) 350oC and 100oC

61 Which of the following is the balanced equation

describing the combustion of elemental sulfur?

A) 2 H2S + 3 O2 → 2 SO2+ 2 H2OB) H2S + 2 O2 → SO3+ H2OC) 2 SO3 → 2 S + 3 O2

D) S + O2 → SO2

62 In the second step of preparing H2SO4 from elemental sulfur (the catalytic oxidation of SO2), which strategy is most likely to increase the yield

of SO3 formed?

A) Reducing the reaction temperatureB) Reducing the reaction pressure C) Removing SO3 from the reaction mixtureD) Removing O2 from the reaction mixture

63 Which of the following expressions can be used to

determine the number of moles of water in 1 mL

64 If H2(g) is formed from the reaction of Fe(s) with

dilute H2SO4(aq), which species acts as the

-Passage XI

Mercury, the innermost planet, moves in an elliptical

orbit The point in the orbit where Mercury is closest

to the Sun is called the perihelion point In the

mid-nineteenth century, scientists observed that the

perihelion point advances, or precesses, around the

Sun at a rate of about 500 arcsec/century The

perihelion points, PA and PB, for two successive orbits,

A and B, respectively, of Mercury are shown in Figure

1 (Note: The figure is not drawn to scale.)

Figure 1 Perihelion precession of Mercury's orbit

Recently, radar signals were used to find the rate of

precession, Ω, of the perihelion point Signals with a

frequency of 7.8 x 109 cycles/sec were transmitted

from Earth to Mercury, where they were reflected back

to Earth Based on the time required for the signals to

make the round-trip, scientists verified that Ω ≈ 500

arcsec/century

Scientists in the nineteenth century attempted to

explain the precession on the basis of Newton's theory

of gravitation Taking into account the gravitational

effects of the planets known to be in the solar system,

Newton's theory gave a value of Ω that was smaller

than the observed value by an amount Ωs ≈ 43

arcsec/century To account for Ωs, other hypotheses

were proposed that still employed the Newtonian

theory of gravitation One of the earliest hypotheses

involved the existence of a planet, called Vulcan, with

an orbit closer to the Sun than Mercury's Other planets were proposed to exist in orbits between those

of Mercury and Venus Neither Vulcan nor these other planets have been shown to exist

66 A radar signal is transmitted to Mercury from

Earth The signal is reflected and returns to Earth with a frequency that is 1.3 x 106cycles/sec higher than that of the transmitted signal The frequency change is best explained by which of the

D) Mercury is not rotating

67 Some scientists have proposed that Ω will be

affected if the diameter of the Sun at its equator is larger than that measured between the Sun's poles This equatorial bulge would most likely be caused by the:

A) Sun's rotation

B) high-pressure gases in the Sun's core

C) temperatures at the Sun's core being higher than those on the surface

D) hydrogen in the Sun's atmosphere

68 Based on the information in the passage, how

many centuries will be required for Mercury's perihelion to precess 360o?

A) (360/60) x (60 x 500)B) 360 x (60/60) x 500C) 360 x 60 x (60/500)D) 360 x 60 x 60 x 500

69 In addition to the precession of Mercury's

perihelion, every other point on the perimeter of

the orbital ellipse is precessing One point that

does NOT precess is located at the:

A ) point on the perimeter of the ellipse farthest from

the Sun

B ) point on the perimeter of the ellipse nearest to the

center of the ellipse

C) focus of the ellipse that is within the Sun's core

D ) focus of the ellipse that is not within the Sun

70 At one point in its orbit, Venus is about 5 x 1010m

from Earth If the motions of Venus and Earth are

NOT included, a radar signal will make the

round-trip between the 2 planets in approximately how

71 Assume that the major axis (the length) and the

eccentricity (the ratio of the length to the width) of

Mercury's orbital ellipse are both constant over

time As Mercury's perihelion precesses, the

figure traced by the perihelion point is a:

A ) circle

B ) hyperbola

C) parabola

D ) sphere

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

72 The standard potential for the reaction

Zn2++ 2 e- Zn

equals –0.763 V When a strip of Zn is placed in a

0.1 M solution of HCl(aq), does the zinc strip

begin to dissolve?

A ) Yes; H2(g) and ZnCl(aq) are produced

B ) Yes; H2(g) and ZnCl2(aq) are produced

C) No; no reaction occurs because Zn is less reactive

than is H2

D ) No; no reaction occurs because Zn2+ is less reactive

than is H+

73 Which of the following must be known in order to

determine the power output of an automobile?

A ) Final velocity and height

B ) Mass and amount of work performed

C) Force exerted and distance of motion

D ) Work performed and elapsed time of work

74 In the molecule shown below, which bond is the

75 A 15.0-eV photon collides with and ionizes a

hydrogen atom If the atom was originally in the ground state (ionization potential =13.6 eV), what

is the kinetic energy of the ejected electron?

A) 1.4 eVB) 13.6 eVC) 15.0 eVD) 28.6 eV

76 When 47Be undergoes radioactive decay by electron capture (a form of β+ decay), the resulting nucleus is:

A) 36LiB) 37LiC) 47BeD) 48Be

77 A force F is used to raise a 4-kg mass M from the

ground to a height of 5 m

What is the work done by the force F? (Note: sin

60o = 0.87; cos 60o = 0.50 Ignore friction and the weights of the pulleys.)

A) 50 JB) 100 JC) 174 JD) 200 J

Verbal Reasoning

Time: 85 minutes Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test Each passage is followed by several

questions After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet

Passage I

What can be done about the "drug problem"? Despite

frequent proclamations of war and dramatic increases in

government funding there are many indications that

the problem is not going away and may even be growing

worse

If there were a serious public debate on this issue, far

more attention would be given to one policy option that

has just begun to be seriously considered :

legalization

There are three reasons why it is important to think

about legalization scenarios, even though most

Americans remain hostile to the idea First, current

drug-control policies have failed, are failing, and will

continue to fail Second, many drug-control

efforts are proving costly and counter-productive;

indeed, many of the drug-related evils that Americans

identify as part of the "drug problem" are in fact

caused by our drug-prohibition policies Third, there is

good reason to believe that repealing many of the drug

laws would not lead, as many people fear, to a dramatic

rise in drug abuse

By most accounts, the dramatic increase in

drug-enforcement efforts over the past few years has had little

effect on the illicit drug market in the United States

Since 1981, federal expenditures on drug enforcement

have more than tripled State and local police were

estimated to have devoted 18 percent of their total

investigative resources, or close to five billion dollars, to

drug-enforcement activities in 1986

Of greater concern than the actual expenditures,

however, has been the diversion of limited

resources including the time and energy of judges, prosecutors,

and law-enforcement agents, as well as scarce prison

space

There are connections between drugs and

crime, which would be much diminished if the

drug-prohibition laws were repealed

Many cocaine and heroin addicts spend hundreds

and even thousands of dollars a week If the drugs to

which they are addicted were significantly cheaper–which would be the case if they were legalized–the number of crimes committed by drug addicts to pay for their habits would, in all likelihood, decline

dramatically

All vice-control efforts are particularly susceptible to corruption, but none so much as drug enforcement What makes drug enforcement especially vulnerable to corruption are the tremendous amounts of money involved in the business Today, many law-enforcement officials believe that police corruption is more pervasive than at any time since Prohibition [of alcohol]

Some police also recognize that enforcing the drug laws does not protect victims from predators so much as

it regulates an illicit market that cannot be suppressed, but can be kept underground In every respect, the analogy to Prohibition is apt

Repealing the drug-prohibition laws promises tremendous advantages Between reduced government expenditures on enforcing drug laws and new tax revenue from legal drug production and sales, public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit of at least ten billion dollars a year, and possibly much more The quality of urban life would rise significantly Homicide rates would decline So would robbery and burglary rates

There is good reason to doubt that many Americans would inject cocaine or heroin into their veins even if given the chance to do so legally The logic of legalization thus depends upon two assumptions: that most illegal drugs are not so dangerous as is commonly believed; and that the drugs and methods of

consumption that are most risky are unlikely to prove appealing to many people, precisely because they are so obviously dangerous

Repealing the drug-prohibition laws would eliminate

or greatly reduce the "drug problem." Yet legalization is repeatedly and vociferously dismissed, without any attempt to evaluate it openly and objectively

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

E A Nadelmann, The Case for Legalization ©1988 by E A

Nadelmann.

78 According to one authority on the drug problem,

"tobacco shortens one's life, cocaine debases it;

nicotine alters one's habits, cocaine alters one's

soul." This authority would probably:

A ) support the legalization of cocaine

B ) approve the abolition of both cigarette and cocaine

sales in the U.S

C) not consider either cocaine or tobacco particularly

dangerous

D ) consider both cocaine and tobacco to be harmful but

cocaine more so

79 The author of the passage would probably support

most strongly a federal law that:

A ) requires mandatory drug-treatment programs for

convicted drug users

B ) grants tax-exempt status to income earned in the drug

trade

C) dispenses, free of charge, federally certified sterile

needles to addicts

D ) assigns to the military the task of intercepting drugs

from foreign nations

80 Which of the following claims is/are explicitly

presented in the passage to justify the supposition

that public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit as a

result of drug legalization?

I Income earned from the drug trade would be

C) I and III only

D ) I, II, and III

81 Which of the following findings best supports the

author's belief that drug legalization would not result in a dramatic increase in drug abuse?

A) Most Americans are currently hostile to the idea of drug legalization

B) Most Americans are unlikely to engage in an obviously dangerous activity

C) Most Americans do not take the legal status of a substance into account when deciding whether or not

to ingest it

D) The consumption of alcohol rose after the repeal of prohibition

82 According to the passage, which of the following is

most likely to be true about the relationship between the enforcement of drug-prohibition laws and the street prices of illicit drugs?

A) The more strict the enforcement, the higher the street price

B) The more strict the enforcement, the lower the street price

C) The less strict the enforcement, the higher the street price

D) There is no systematic connection between the strictness of enforcement and the street price

Passage II

The truth is we know little about the wolf What we

know a good deal more about is what we imagine the

wolf to be

The Nunamiut Eskimo of the central Brooks Range [in

Alaska] speak of wolves as hunters something like

themselves They believe that wolves know where

they are going when they set out to find caribou, and

that perhaps wolves learn from the behavior of ravens

where caribou might be They believe certain wolves

in a pack never kill, while others in the pack specialize

in killing small game Always, to requests for

generalizations, they say that each wolf is a little

different, that new things are always seen If someone

says big males always lead the pack and do the killing,

the Eskimo shrug and say, "Maybe Sometimes."

Wolves vary their hunting techniques, share food with

the old who do not hunt, and give gifts to each

other They can live for a week without food and

travel twenty miles without breaking stride They have

three systems of communication – vocal, postural, and

olfactory Their pelages range from slate blue to

almost pure white, through chocolate brown, ocher,

cinnamon, gray, and blond And like primates they

spend a good part of their time with their young and

playing with each other I once saw a wolf on the

tundra winging a piece of caribou hide around like a

Frisbee for an hour by himself

You can look at a gray wolf standing in the snow in

winter twilight and not see him at all You may think

I'm pulling your leg–I'm not Sometimes even the

Eskimos can't see them, which causes the Eskimos to

smile

The wolf exerts a powerful influence on the human

imagination It takes your stare and turns it back on

you (The Bella Coola Indians believed that someone

once tried to change all the animals into men but

succeeded in making human only the eyes of the

wolf.) People suddenly want to explain the feelings

that come over them when confronted with that stare–

their fear, their hatred, their respect, their

curiosity Wolf-haters want to say they are born killers,

which isn't true Wolf-lovers want to say no healthy

wolf ever killed anyone in North America, which isn't true either They have killed Indians and Eskimos

Everything we have been told about wolves in the past should have been said, I think, with more care, with the preface that it is only a perception in a particular set of circumstances, that in the end it is only an opinion

Pierpont Morgan what men thought of wolves hundreds of years ago I read in the archives of historical societies of outlaw wolves I went out with field biologists in Minnesota and Alaska and spoke with Eskimos I spoke with people who loved wolves and with people who hated them

I remember sitting in this cabin in Alaska one evening reading over the notes of all these encounters, and recalling Joseph Campbell, who wrote in the

conclusion to Primitive Mythology that men do not

discover their gods, they create them So do they also,

I thought, looking at the notes before me, create their animals

83 The Bella Coola Indian legend best illustrates the

author's point that:

A ) humans know very little about the wolf

B ) wolves provoke fanciful thinking

C) people have always revered the wolf

D ) wolves resemble humans in certain ways

84 In the context of the passage, the word rigorous

85 Which of the following statements, if true, would

most WEAKEN the author's contention that the

wolf is less known than created by us?

A ) The incident the author described as a wolf's

"winging a piece of caribou hide around like a

Frisbee" never in fact occurred

B ) Nunamiut Eskimos have very little interaction with

wolves, and base their beliefs about wolves on

folklore

C) The apparently intelligent behaviors that wolves

exhibit, and that people have always found so

intriguing, are entirely instinctive

D ) Scientists have produced a wealth of knowledge

about the wolf, the preponderance of which

corresponds closely to the beliefs of Eskimo and

Indian cultures

86 In organizing a party of natural historians to study

wolves, the author would most likely advise them

to approach the wolf with:

A ) love, because contrary to popular belief, a healthy

wolf will seldom harm a human being

B ) caution, because wolves are hunters, and some have

been known to kill humans

C) contempt, because while they may be similar to

domestic dogs, wolves are usually quite dangerous

D ) confidence, because we now know much more

about the wolf than we did in the past

87 The 1928 edition of the World Book Encyclopedia

defines the wolf as "a rapacious, flesh-eating animal belonging to the dog family" and states that the wolf "lacks [the dog's] courage and loyalty." If the author were to include this description in the passage, it would probably be used to:

A) support the point that wolves are excellent hunters.B) illustrate the point that people often see wolves as being like themselves

C) emphasize that what we think we know about wolves is often the product of our imagination

D) explain the author's own opinion about wolves

Passage III

The relationship of the professional artist to the class

that ruled or aspired to rule was complicated, various

and should not be simplified [The artist's] training

however – and it was training which made [the

artist] a professional – taught [the artist] a set of

conventional skills That is to say, [the artist] became

skilled in using a set of conventions of composition,

drawing, perspective, chiaroscuro, anatomy, poses,

symbolism And these conventions corresponded so

closely to the social experience–or anyway to the

social manners – of the class [the artist] was serving,

that they were not even seen as conventions but were

thought of as the only way of recording and preserving

eternal truths Yet to the other social classes such

professional painting appeared to be so remote from

their own experience, that they saw it as a mere social

convention, a mere accoutrement of the class that ruled

over them: which is why in moments of revolt,

painting and sculpture were often destroyed

During the 19th century certain artists, for consciously

social or political reasons, tried to extend the

professional tradition of painting, so that it might

express the experience of other classes Their

personal struggles, their failures, and the opposition

they met with, were a measure of the [ambition] of the

undertaking Perhaps one pedestrian example will give

some idea of the extent of the difficulties

involved Consider Ford Madox Brown's well known

painting of Work It shows a team of [laborers],

with passers-by and bystanders, working on a

sidewalk It took the painter ten years to complete, and

it is, at one level, extremely accurate But it looks like

a religious scene Some would argue that this is

because the artist's attitude to his subject was

ambivalent I would argue that all the visual means

he was using with such care pre-empted the possibility

of depicting manual work, as the main subject of a

painting, in any but a mythological or symbolic way

The crisis provoked by those who tried to extend the

area of experience to which painting might be open

continued into the 20th century But its terms were

reversed The tradition was indeed dismantled Yet,

except for the introduction of the Unconscious, the

area of experience from which most European artists

drew remained surprisingly unchanged Consequently,

most of the serious art of the period dealt either with the experience of various kinds of isolation, or with the narrow experience of painting itself The latter

produced painting about painting, abstract art

One of the reasons the potential freedom gained by the dismantling of the tradition was not used may

be the way painters were still trained In the academies and art schools they first learnt those very conventions which were being dismantled This was because no other professional body of knowledge existed to be taught

Thus, the extreme of abstract art demonstrates, as an epilogue, the original [uncertainty] of professional art: an art in reality concerned with a selective, very reduced area of experience, which nevertheless claims

to be universal

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

J Berger, About Looking ©1980 by J Berger

88 The main argument of the passage is that:

A) the relationship between artists and the ruling classes throughout history has been complex and difficult to understand

B) artists of the past required strong professional training in order to do work that would appeal to the ruling classes

C) the professional training of artists has served to limit the areas of experience from which they draw their subjects

D) artists who attempt to abandon conventional methods must confront a great deal of opposition from the ruling classes

89 In the context of the passage, the term tradition

refers primarily to the:

A ) best way to record and preserve eternal artistic

truths

B ) set of artistic conventions that correspond to the

social manners of a ruling elite

C) system of applying mythological or symbolic

elements to realistic subjects

D ) expansion of the area of artistic experience to

include the unconscious

90 The passage implies that art is at its best when it:

A ) transcends conventions

B ) records eternal truths

C) reflects social manners

D ) treats religious themes

91 According to the passage, why did past artistic

conventions most likely correspond so closely to

the social manners of the ruling classes?

A ) Artists were interested in the narrowness and

isolation of the ruling classes as a historical

phenomenon

B ) Artists felt that the experiences of the ruling classes

were the only kinds of activity worth recording

C) Artists aspired to the wealth and power of the ruling

classes

D ) Artists looked to the members of the ruling classes

for financial support

92 The discussion of Ford Madox Brown's painting

Work shows primarily that:

A ) the process of expanding the subject matter of

professional art is complex and extremely difficult

to achieve

B ) art that deals with realistic subjects is more

powerful than abstract art

C) the problems inherent in expanding the subject

matter of art are still with us today

D ) the relationship between the professional artist and

the ruling classes is complicated and should not be

simplified

Passage IV

The interior of the earth retains the memory of the

planet's fiery beginning some 4.5 billion years ago As

material from the disk of gas and dust surrounding the

early sun coalesced under gravity to form the earth,

enough gravitational energy was released to melt much

or all of the early earth In the process, most of the

earth's dense, metallic constituents collected at the

center, and the lighter silicate minerals that became the

mantle and the crust floated to the top As the heavier

materials separated from the lighter ones, additional

energy was released, adding to the earth's internal

heat The interior of the planet has been cooling

slowly ever since, at a rate of tens of degrees every

billion years

In addition to shedding its primordial heat, the earth

casts off the heat generated by the decay of radioactive

elements trapped in its interior All told, about

forty-two terawatts (forty-forty-two trillion watts) continuously

escapes from the earth's surface That is only about a

thousandth of the heat provided by the sun, but it is

still a palpable quantity, as volcanoes, hot springs and

the warmth in any deep mine attest Most of the heat

originates in the mantle [the 2,000-mile-thick shell of

rock that lies between the earth's crust and its metallic

core] By driving mantle convection and plate motions,

this heat accounts for most of the geological activity at

the earth's surface

The core is a sphere some 4,000 miles across, made up

mostly of iron and perhaps some nickel, alloyed with

several light nonmetals such as oxygen or

sulfur Although the energy liberated by the formation

of the core probably left it completely molten, by now

its inner third is solid The inner core is hundreds of

degrees hotter than the outer core – as hot as 4,500 to

6,000 degrees Celsius – but it is under higher pressure,

which keeps it solid

The existence of the earth's magnetic field is the

clearest evidence that the core is cooling The earth's

magnetic field, like any other, is a by-product of

electric currents (Even the magnetism of an ordinary

bar magnet can be attributed to moving electric

charges.) But currents ordinarily do not persist without

the input of energy Any currents in the core would

decay in tens of thousands of years if they were not

regenerated somehow Because magnetized rocks show that the earth has had a magnetic field for at least three billion years, some source of energy within the core must be sustaining the currents continuously The only theory that can explain the persistence of the field and its propensity for reversing itself is the dynamo theory, which holds that the magnetic field results from fluid motions in the outer core What sustains the motions, ultimately, is heat loss from the core

A dynamo – the same device that lies at the heart of an electric generator – converts mechanical energy into electric current by moving a conductive material through a magnetic field By the laws of

electromagnetism the induced electric current generates its own magnetic field; the magnetic fields interact with the current to produce a force that resists the movement of the conductor All these interactions must be working together smoothly in the outer core, for otherwise the dynamo would have long since ceased to function

93 According to the passage, the internal heat of earth

is considered a result of all of the following factors EXCEPT:

A) fluid motions in the outer core

B) primordial gravitational processes

C) decay of trapped radioactive elements

D) primordial separation of heavier from lighter materials

94 According to the information given in the passage,

the amount of heat provided by the sun, in terawatts, is roughly:

A) 42B) 4,200C) 42,000D) 42 trillion

95 According to the passage, earth's core is

predominantly:

A ) solid and radioactive

B ) gaseous and magnetic

C) fluid and metallic

D ) solid and magnetic

96 According to the passage, the continuous existence

of earth's magnetic field is best shown by analysis

of the:

A ) geological activity at the earth's surface

B ) magnetic data obtained from rocks

C) electrical conductivity of rocks from the earth's

mantle

D ) conversion of mechanical into electrical energy by

rocks

97 According to the passage, the dynamo theory

derives much of its credibility from the fact that it

alone can account for the:

A ) periodic reversals of the earth's persisting magnetic

field

B ) weakness of the earth's magnetic field

C) intense heat of the earth's core

D ) electrical conductivity of the earth's inner core

98 According to the passage, magnetic fields are

primarily by-products of:

A) fluid motion

B) the rotation of the earth

C) mechanical energy

D) electrical currents

99 The synthesis of geology, physics, chemistry,

mathematics, and other disciplines required to develop theories such as the one described would

be most similar to the study of:

A) historical and contemporary styles of painting to get artistic inspiration

B) the art, history, and technology of antiquity to develop theories about ancient civilizations

C) child, adolescent, and adult problem-solving styles

to develop a theory of intelligence

D) the effects of different anesthetics to develop a theory of pain

Passage V

Metaphor is for most people a device of the poetic

imagination and the rhetorical flourish – a matter of

extraordinary rather than ordinary language Moreover,

metaphor is typically viewed as characteristic of

language alone, a matter of words rather than thought

or action For these reasons, most people think they

can get along perfectly well without metaphor We

have found, on the contrary, that metaphor is pervasive

in everyday life, not just in language but in thought and

action Our ordinary conceptual system, in terms of

which we both think and act, is fundamentally

metaphorical in nature

The concepts that govern our thought are not just

matters of the intellect They also govern our everyday

functioning, down to the most mundane details Our

concepts structure what we perceive, how we get

around in the world, and how we relate to other

people Our conceptual system thus plays a central

role in defining our everyday realities If we are right

in suggesting that our conceptual system is largely

metaphorical, then the way we think, what we

experience, and what we do every day is very much a

matter of metaphor

But our conceptual system is not something we are

normally aware of In most of the little things we do

every day, we simply think and act more or less

automatically along certain lines Just what these lines

are is by no means obvious One way to find out is by

looking at language Since communication is based on

the same conceptual system that we use in thinking and

acting, language is an important source of evidence for

what that system is like

Primarily on the basis of linguistic evidence, we have

found that most of our ordinary conceptual system is

metaphorical in nature And we have found a way to

begin to identify in detail just what the metaphors are

that structure how we perceive, how we think, and

what we do

To give some idea of what it could mean for a concept

to be metaphorical and for such a concept to structure

an everyday activity, let us start with the concept

ARGUMENT and the conceptual metaphor

ARGUMENT IS WAR This metaphor is reflected in

our everyday language by a wide variety of expressions:

Your claims are indefensible

He attacked every weak point in my argument

If you use that strategy, he'll wipe you out

He shot down all of my arguments

It is important to see that we don't just talk about arguments in terms of war We can actually win or lose arguments We see the person we are arguing with as an opponent We attack his positions and we defend our own We gain and lose ground We plan and use strategies Many of the things we do in arguing are partially structured by the concept of war Though there is no physical battle, there is a verbal battle, and the structure of an argument–attack, defense, counterattack, etc – reflects this It is in this sense that the ARGUMENT IS WAR metaphor is one that we live by in this culture; it structures the actions

we perform in arguing

Try to imagine a culture where arguments are not viewed in terms of war, where no one wins or loses, where there is no sense of attacking or defending, gaining or losing ground Imagine a culture where an argument is viewed as a dance, the participants are seen as performers, and the goal is to perform in a balanced and aesthetically pleasing way In such a culture, people would view arguments differently, experience them differently, carry them out differently, and talk about them differently But we would

probably not view them as arguing at all: they would simply be doing something different It would seem strange even to call what they were doing

"arguing." Perhaps the most neutral way of describing this difference between their culture and ours would be

to say that we have a discourse form structured in terms of battle and they have one structured in terms of dance

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

G Lakoff and M Johnson, Metaphors We Live By ©1980

byUniversity of Chicago Press.

100 The central thesis of the passage is that:

A ) we are basically unaware of our conceptual system

B ) a culture can view argument as an aesthetically

pleasing dance or as war

C) metaphors control our perceptions, thoughts, and

actions

D ) metaphor is a poetic as well as a rhetorical device

101 Implicit in the statement that we plan and use

strategies in arguments is the idea that we do so

C) we believe an argument is a battle, and strategies

are essential for a successful conquest

D ) we want our ideas and logic to be understood

102 Given the claims made in the passage, the

expressions "She's brimming with vim and

vigor," "She's overflowing with vitality," "He's

devoid of energy," and "I don't have any energy

left at the end of the day" would suggest that:

A ) some people have more energy than other people

B ) most people wish that they had more energy

C) many people think of vitality as a substance

D ) some people think that vitality affect our ability to

argue

103 According to the passage, if a speaker says, "I've

never won an argument with him," he or she is

most likely thinking that:

A ) arguments are violent

B ) arguments are like contests

C) conceptual systems are metaphorical

D ) competition is unpleasant

104 The ideas discussed in this passage would likely

be of most use to:

A ) an ambassador to a different culture

B ) a senator engaged in a serious debate

105 An appropriate theory of metaphor derived from

the information contained in the passage would state that metaphor involves:

I understanding one thing in terms of another

II experiencing one thing in terms of another

III communicating about one thing in terms

of another

A) I onlyB) II onlyC) I and II onlyD) I, II, and III

106 The expression "This is driving me around the

bend" would best support a metaphor that compares madness to:

A) a location

B) a vehicle

C) a road

D) a force

107 According to information in the passage, the best

way to conduct an argument with someone from

a culture that views an argument as a dance would be to:

A) methodically attack the person's weaker claims

B) calmly respond to the person's charges

C) explain that arguments are not like dances

D) irrationally defend your position