Tài liệu ôn thi AAMC MCAT test 6r

Tài liệu ôn thi AAMC MCAT test 6r

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Physical Sciences

Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive

passage After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided for your use You may consult it whenever you wish

7

N 14.0

8

O 16.0

9

F 19.0

15

P 31.0

16

S 32.1

17

Cl 35.5

22

Ti 47.9

23

V 50.9

24

Cr 52.0

33

As 74.9

34

Se 79.0

40

Zr 91.2

41

Nb 92.9

42

Mo 95.9

51

Sb 121.8

73

Ta 180.9

74

W 183.9

83

Bi 209.0

106

Unh (263)

59

Pr 140.9

68

Er 167.3

91

Pa (231)

100

Fm (257)

Passage I

Archaebacteria are often found in environments that

have extreme climatic conditions (e.g., in salt lakes or

in very acidic or alkaline hot springs) Most

archaebacteria are chemoautotrophs, bacteria that

obtain energy by a redox reaction For example,

methanogens produce methane by metabolizing CO2

The bond energy of C=O in CO2 is 803 kJ/mol, and the

C-H bond energy in CH4 is 414 kJ/mol

Table 1 gives some of the chemical species that

scientists find in environments where archaebacteria

The methane found in swamp gas is a byproduct of

methanogens, which are also found in a symbiotic

association with a variety of cellulose-digesting

organisms, including cows and termites Carbon-14

isotopic analysis even suggests that methane found

deep in the earth’s crust might have been produced by

archaebacteria

1 Scientists are most likely to find which compound

listed in Table 1 in an alkaline lake?

A ) NaCl

B ) CH3OH

C) H2SO4

D ) KOH

2 What pair of compounds found in Table 1 can form

extensive networks of intermolecular hydrogen bonds with both participating?

A) Methane and methanol B) Methane and glycine C) Glycine and methanol D) Methanol and carbon dioxide

3 How does an atom of carbon-14 differ from the

most abundant isotope of carbon?

A) By one protonB) By two protonsC) By one neutronD) By two neutrons

4 If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is

0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?

A) 12B) 6C) 2D) 0.01

5 Which of the following compounds has the same

geometry as methane?

A) H2SB) CO2

C) XeF4

D) SiCl4

6 Glycine passes through a very low pH membrane

channel in which form?

A) H2N-CH2-COOHB) H3N+-CH2-COOHC) H2N-CH2-COO-D) H3N+-CH2-COO-

7 Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the

following elements can act as an electron acceptor?A) S

B) HeC) H2

D) Fe

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Passage II

The periodic table arranges the elements by atomic

number, aligning those with similar chemical

properties in columns A primitive version of the

periodic table was created by a Russian chemist in

1869, long before the electronic configuration of the

elements was known Dimitri Mendeleev grouped the

elements by their chemical properties and found that

the properties varied periodically with the atomic mass

Mendeleev left empty spaces for undiscovered

elements His genius was confirmed when the elements

that filled these blanks were isolated

Henry Moseley showed that periodicity is a function

not of atomic mass but of atomic number, as stated by

today’s periodic law The current periodic table

reflects this law In 1985, an international committee

numbered the columns in the periodic table from 1 to

18 and abolished the A and B designations for

main-group and transition elements

8 Which of the following atoms has the largest atomic

11 What is the mass number of the isotope of

bromine that has 44 neutrons?

A) 35B) 79C) 80D) 81

12 According to trends in electronegativity, which of

the following pairs of atoms is most likely to form

an ionic bond?

A) N and OB) C and FC) Ca and ID) Si and Cl

Passage III

The Global Positioning System or “GPS” is based on

satellite radio ranging A transmitter aboard each of the

24 satellites sends out a radio signal that specifies the

precise position of the satellite and the precise time the

signal was sent The position is known from accurate

tracking by ground stations and the laws of orbital

mechanics, while synchronized cesium clocks aboard

each GPS satellite provide very accurate timing Each

satellite has a mass of 1000 kg and orbits Earth in a

circle = 1.8 x 107 m above the surface of Earth (2.4 x

107 m from the center of Earth) It takes 12.4 hours to

complete this orbit

The atomic clock is powered with a 5-g radioactive Cs

source The transmitter is powered by a 1.32-V

nickel-cadmium battery A radio receiver on Earth can be

used to calculate the distance to the satellite by

measuring the time difference between the broadcast

and reception because the signal travels at the speed of

light (3.0 x 108 m/s) When the distances to several

different satellites have been measured–at least four

satellites are visible from anywhere on Earth at all

times–the receiver position can be determined by

triangulation Timing corrections due to atmospheric

effects are usually accounted for by broadcasting the

GPS signals at two frequencies, one at 102.1 MHz and

another at 104.9 MHz

13 For a GPS satellite that is at an angle of 40o from

Earth’s horizon, it takes 0.07 s for the radio signal

to reach a receiver The distance between the

transmitter and the receiver is:

A ) 2.1 x 107 sin 40° m

B ) 2.1 x 107 m

C) 2.1 x 1011 cos 40° m

D ) 2.1 x 1011 m

14 A high-altitude GPS satellite is kept in a circular

orbit because Earth’s gravitational force:

A ) supplies the centrifugal force

B ) offsets the atmospheric drag force

C) offsets the moon’s gravitational force

D ) supplies the centripetal force

15 If a GPS satellite orbited at six times its present

distance from the center of Earth and was four times more massive, by what factor would the gravitational force between Earth and the satellite change?

A) Decrease by a factor of 9 B) Increase by a factor of 9 C) Decrease by a factor of 2/3D) Increase by a factor of 2/3

16 How much current from a Ni-Cd battery is drawn

by a radio transmitter that requires 3.96 W?

A) 1/9 AB) 1/3 AC) 3 AD) 9 A

17 What beat frequency is detected in a receiver on

Earth from the two GPS radio signals used to correct for atmospheric effects?

A) 0.7 x 106 HzB) 1.4 x 106 HzC) 2.8 x 106 HzD) 5.6 x 106 Hz

18 A GPS radio signal travels slower through Earth’s

atmosphere than it travels through the vacuum of space primarily because:

A) the atmosphere is warmer than the vacuum of space

B) gravity is stronger in the atmosphere than in space.C) the atmosphere steadily decreases the power in the radio signal

D) the atmosphere has a larger index of refraction than does the vacuum of space

19 How many years will pass before there are 0.625

grams of Cs remaining in the source, if Cs has a half-life of 175 years?

A) 525 yearsB) 650 yearsC) 700 yearsD) 1400 years

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Passage IV

Olestra, a sucrose polyester, is the brand name of an

approved dietary fat replacement The large-scale

synthesis of Olestra starts with a base-catalyzed

cleavage in methanol of the naturally occurring fats

(triacylglycerols or triglycerides) found in cottonseed

or soybean oils The reaction liberates glycerine and

converts the fatty acids into methyl esters (Figure 1)

As glycerine settles out, a plant worker draws it off and

separates the methyl esters from the remaining mixture

by distillation A reaction between these esters and

sucrose, common table sugar, in the presence of a basic

catalyst and emulsifiers at a high temperature liberates

methanol and produces crude Olestra The removal of

excess fatty acids and emulsifiers produces pure

Olestra

Normal edible fats contain three fatty acid units,

whereas Olestra, also a true fat, contains six to eight

fatty acid units bonded to the sugar backbone Olestra

is not metabolized because the additional fatty acid

units block the approach of digestive enzymes to the

cleavage sites

Because a calorie (1 cal = 4.185 J) is a very small unit

of energy, food scientists use the Calorie (1 Cal =

4,185 J) with a capital C A 1-ounce bag of potato

chips contains about 160 Cal A normal fat contains 9

Cal/g, whereas carbohydrates and proteins provide

about 4 Cal/g (Note: For water, the heat of fusion is 1.4 kcal/mol, the specific heat is 4.185 J/g•oC or 1 cal/g•oC, and the density is 1.0 g/mL at 15oC One kg equals 2.2 pounds.)

20 According to the passage, which of the following

compounds can the worker use to catalyze the cleavage of a triglyceride?

A) HCl(aq) B) NaCl(aq) C) NaOH(aq)

D) Na2SO4(aq)

21 What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut,

if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a calorimeter increases by 50oC upon the combustion of 10 peanuts?

A) 0.5 kcalB) 1 kcalC) 5 kcalD) 10 kcal

22 How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of

Olestra contribute to a human consumer?

A) 0 CalB) 4 CalC) 5 CalD) 9 Cal

23 The boiling point of glycerine in comparison with

that of isopropyl alcohol, (CH3)2CHOH, is:

A) more than 10oC higher

B) less than 10oC higher

C) less than 10oC lower

D) more than 10oC lower

24 How many pounds (lb) of methanol does a worker

need if a reaction requires 20 moles of methanol? A) 0.003 lb

B) 1.4 lbC) 2.9 x 105 lbD) 1.4 x 106 lb

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

25 Which of the following elements has the highest

With which of the above metals can copper form a

galvanic cell in which copper is reduced?

A ) With silver only

B ) With lead only

C) With lead and zinc

D ) With silver and zinc

27 Which of the following expressions correctly

describes the relationship between the frequency f

and the period T of a sinusoidal wave?

A ) fT = 1

B ) f/T = 1

C) f+ T = 1

D ) f– T = 1

28 Suppose that a ball is thrown vertically upward

from earth with velocity v, and returns to its

original height in a timet If the value of g were

reduced to g/6 (as on the moon), then t would:

A ) increase by a factor of 6

B ) increase by a factor of 61/2

C) decrease by a factor of 6

D ) decrease by a factor of 61/2

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Passage V

In 1622, a Spanish ship carrying a cargo of silver

crashed on a coral reef near Cuba and sank The ship

was laden with hardwood boxes of silver coins The

boxes came to rest on the ocean floor and began to

decay At first, aerobic microorganisms thrived but, as

the concentration of oxygen decreased, these

organisms died Subsequently, sulfur-loving bacteria

began to flourish

These sulfur bacteria consumed sulfate ions in

seawater and excreted the weak acid H2S, as shown in

standard reduction potential of +0.80 V One of the

products was a black precipitate of Ag2S and the other

was hydrogen gas, as shown in Equation 2

2 Ag(s) + H2S(aq) → Ag2S(s) + H2(g)

Equation 2

The hydrogen from this reaction provided additional

food for the sulfur microorganisms and accelerated the

corrosion of the silver coins When the silver coins

were completely coated with Ag2S, the corrosive

reaction stopped

Because the seawater contained small amounts of CO2

(the solubility of CO2 is 0.145 g/100 g H2O at 25oC and

1.00 atm), bicarbonate ions were formed by the

reaction shown in Equation 3

H2O(l) + CO2(g) H +(aq) + HCO3-(aq)

Equation 3

These bicarbonate ions combined with calcium to form

the insoluble CaCO3, which crystallized, encapsulating

the coins, sand, and decaying matter into rock-like

clumps The explorers who discovered the treasure

found these rock-like structures

29 The formation of Ag2S is an example of what kind

of reaction?

A) A combination reactionB) A decomposition reactionC) A single replacement reactionD) A double replacement reaction

30 What is the maximum number of grams of H2S that can be produced from 2 mol of sulfate ions by the reaction of Equation 1?

A) 68 gB) 34 gC) 96 gD) 192 g

31 To a first approximation, the ionization constant of

H2S is:

A) near zero

B) much less than 1

C) about 1

D) much more than 1

32 Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride are both

soluble in water Which of the following equations shows the net ionic reaction between these two compounds?

A) 2 Na+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → Na2CO3(s)

B) Ca2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → CaCO3(s)

C) Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NaCl(s)

D) Ca2+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → CaCl2(s)

33 What species is the reducing agent in Equation 2?

A) SB) H2SC) H+D) Ag

2-Passage VI

The physics of stringed instruments has been studied

for almost as long as the instruments themselves have

been played The most studied stringed instruments are

in the violin family This family consists of four

instruments: the violin, the viola, the cello, and the

bass Each of these instruments has four strings The

fundamental tones of these strings are separated by a

perfect fifth, which means the fundamental frequency

of each string is 2/3 that of the next higher frequency

string The tones are created when the bow is dragged

across the strings, a move called bowing

The violin is the most popular instrument in the family

Its strings are tuned with decreasing frequency to the

notes E, A, D, G, where A has a frequency of 440 Hz

The strings of the viola are at A, D, G, C The cello is

tuned one octave below the viola, which means the

frequencies of the cello strings are half that of the viola

strings Finally, the bass is tuned two perfect fifths

below the cello

The fundamental frequency f of a string is given by its

length L, tension T, and mass per unit length ρ as

f= (T/ρ)1/2/(2L)

Scientists have studied in great detail how violins

produce sound The best violins produce loud tones

over the full frequency range of the instrument,

whereas poor instruments do not Minor changes in the

thickness and density of the wood can produce

significant differences in an instrument’s sound

Despite much research, scientists have not been able to

create violins that sound as pure and clear as those of

the great violinmaker Stradivarius It seems that

despite all our scientific advances, there is still much to

learn about these musical instruments

34 By what factor would a string’s tension need to be

changed to raise its fundamental frequency by a

A) heavier wood in the violin

B) thicker wood in the violin

C) heavier strings on the violin

D) denser wood in the violin

36 A good violin body is one that has good resonance

at the fundamental frequencies of:

A) the middle strings

B) the highest frequency string

C) the lowest frequency string

D) all the strings

37 The fundamental frequency of the A string on a

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Passage VII

To model thermal motion of atoms in solids, let us

assume that each atom can oscillate about its

equilibrium position Interactions with neighboring

atoms hold it in place allowing most motion in a single

preferred direction marked by x in Figure 1 The effect

of the neighboring atoms is described, for small

oscillations, by two springs of length l as shown We

denote the atom’s mass by M Each spring is

characterized by the spring constant K, so that the

restoring force it applies on the atom is K|x| in

magnitude, and is opposite in direction to the

displacement x

The potential energy of each spring is given by Kx2/2

An atom oscillates back and forth between its maximal

displacements x = –A and A, with frequency f, where A

is the amplitude of the motion The time to complete

one oscillation is the period T Experimentally, such

solids have internal energy nR(t + 273), where n is the

number of moles in the sample, R = 8.3 J/(mol·oC) is

the gas constant, and t is the temperature in oC Usually,

A < l; the solid melts when the amplitude increases to l

(Avogadro constant is N = 6 x 1023 per mole.)

Figure 1 Model of an atom in a solid

39 What is the effective spring constant of the system

of two springs shown in Figure 1?

A ) have the same units

B ) are proportional to each other

C) are equal

D ) are the inverse of each other

41 The motion for small displacements x is

characterized by two dimensional constants, K and

M Identify by dimensional argument the correct

formula from which the period T can be

calculated

A) (T/π)2 = 4K/M B) (T/π)2 = 4K·M C) (T/π)2 = 4M/K D) (T/π)2 = 4/(K·M)

42 In the oscillatory motion of an atom described by

the model, what quantity is conserved?

A) Total energyB) Potential energyC) Linear momentumD) Angular momentum

43 The spring constant K can be computed from the

internal energy E int and the amplitude A computed

45 The present model is limited to solids Why can it

NOT describe monoatomic gases?

A) The atoms of a gas are not restricted to move near fixed positions in space

B) The spacing of atoms in a typical gas is much larger than that in a typical solid

C) Gases do not melt

D) Most gases are transparent

Passage VIII

Inorganic compounds with ring systems that contain

alternating boron (B) and phosphorus (P) atoms can be

synthesized under anhydrous conditions Figure 1

shows the structures of compounds 1 and 2

Figure 1 Compounds 1 and 2

(R = isopropyl = iso-C3H7)

Equations 1a and 1b show the synthesis of Compound

1, which contains a four-membered ring, and Equation

2 shows the synthesis of Compound 2, which contains

Average B-N bond length (pm) geometry Ring

Geometry

of boron

Geometry

of phosphorus

as well as theoretical calculations on the hypothetical molecules H2BPH2 and HBPH

Table 2 Bond Order versus Bond Length

B-P Bond order

B-P Bond length (pm) Bond order B-N

B-N Bond length (pm) 1.0 190 1.0 142 2.0 181 2.0 130 3.0 165 – –

46 What formula is the same for compounds 1 and 2?

A) Valence-bondB) EmpiricalC) MolecularD) Structural

47 What is the maximum volume of PH3(g) that a

chemist can obtain from the reaction shown by Equation 1a, if 0.005 mol LiPH2 reacts with 0.002 mol R2NBCl2 at 0oC and 1 atm?

A) 0.672 mLB) 6.72 mLC) 67.2 mLD) 67.2 L

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48 Phosphine (PH3) has which of the following Lewis

sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies

with temperature at constant pressure Where on

the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample

of Compound 2 appear?

A ) Below the plot for Compound 1

B ) Above the plot for Compound 1

C) Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1

D ) Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its

midpoint with an opposite slope

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

50 Which of the following chemical species is NOT

isoelectronic with a neon atom?

A ) He

B ) F

C) Mg2+

D ) Na+

51 A mass is lifted from the ground to an altitude h1,

requiring work W1 The work to lift an identical

mass to an altitude h2 is W2 If h2 is twice h1, what

is the ratio of W2 to W1? (Note: Assume that the

force of gravity does not change between h1 and

52 Gas X has a density of 1.44 g/L and gas Y has a

density of 1.54 g/L Which gas diffuses faster?

A ) Gas X, because it has a lower molar mass than gas

53 A reaction is designed to produce ammonia from

the gas phase equilibrium of nitrogen and hydrogen

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) 2 NH3(g)

Introducing a catalyst into the system will cause the amount of ammonia at equilibrium:

A) to increase

B) to remain the same

C) to decrease

D) to change in a manner which depends on the value

of the equilibrium constant

54 A solid body can be in rotational equilibrium only

when:

A) it has zero angular momentum

B) it is in free fall

C) its external forces sum to zero

D) its external torques sum to zero

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Passage IX

The head of a comet in orbit around the sun consists of

a solid nucleus, typically of radius 10–100 km,

surrounded by a tenuous cloud of dust particles and gas

This cloud, or “coma,” conceals the interior of the

nucleus so that its size and nature can only be inferred

There are two models of cometary nuclei: (1) a rubble

pile, a loose agglomeration of rocks and gravel, or (2)

a dirty snowball, bits of rock held in a matrix of frozen

H2O, CH4, and NH3, called ices

Calculations based on Newton’s law of gravity do not

predict cometary orbits precisely There are

unanticipated slight deviations in their orbits These

deviations imply that nongravitational forces are also

involved The dirty-snowball model nicely explains

these effects: Sunlight warms the surface of the

nucleus, causing the various frozen solids to sublimate,

i.e., go directly from the solid phase to the vapor phase

without passing through the liquid phase As the gases

leave, they exert perturbing forces on the cometary

nucleus–much as an attached rocket engine would

The rubble-pile model does not explain the orbital

deviations; therefore it has generally been abandoned

However, when Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 struck

Jupiter in July 1994, the theory was revived The

cometary fragments exploded considerably higher in

the atmosphere of the planet than predicted by the

dirty-snowball model, suggesting that the nucleus of

the comet was not very cohesive

Comets become visible to the unaided eye when, under

the influence of radiation and the steady outstreaming

of ionized hydrogen from the sun (the solar wind), the

coma forms and extends into a vast, long tail of gas

and dust However, nearly all of the mass of the comet

remains concentrated in the nucleus

55 The perturbing force resulting from sublimation in

the dirty-snowball model is accounted for directly

by which of Newton’s laws?

A) The law of inertia (Newton’s 1st law)B) The law relating force, mass and acceleration (Newton’s 2nd law)

C) The law relating action and reaction (Newton’s 3rd law)

D) The law of gravitation (Newton’s inverse-square law)

56 In the dirty-snowball model, does the perturbing

force on the comet due to sublimation act in any preferred direction?

A) No, because the nucleus tends to have a roughly spherical surface

B) No, because the sun radiates with equal intensity in all directions

C) Yes, more or less outward from the sun because of shadowing effects

D) Yes, more or less toward the sun because of the temperature gradient

57 In space, frozen H2O, CH4, and NH3 undergo sublimation because:

A) this is characteristic of hydrogen compounds

B) the pressure in space is extremely low

C) of the effectively zero-gravity environment

D) of bombardment by solar-wind particles

58 A dirty-snowball cometary nucleus would be

expected to disintegrate less readily in the atmosphere of Jupiter than a rubble-pile nucleus of the same mass would because:

A) a rubble-pile nucleus has only gravitational forces

59 Because comets shine predominantly by reflected

sunlight, what one sees when viewing a comet is:

A ) the coma gas

B ) the coma dust

C) the tail gas

D ) the ices

60 What new information would help decide between

the two models discussed in the passage?

A ) Laboratory measurement of the melting points of

the ices

B ) Spectroscopic studies of the coma

C) Spectroscopic studies of the nucleus

D ) More precise observations of a comet orbit

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Passage X

A student conducts an experiment to determine the

solubility product constant, Ksp, for lead(II) iodide,

PbI2 The student adds an excess of PbI2(s) to a known

amount of water, heats the slurry to 50oC, stirs it for 10

min, and then allows the mixture to cool and

equilibrate at 25oC Equation 1 shows the equilibrium

that exists between the undissolved solid and the ions

supernatant solution to a flask containing an aqueous

mixture of nitric acid and potassium nitrite These

reagents convert the iodide in the solution into the

red-brown molecular iodine (Equation 2)

2 I-(aq) + 2 NO2-(aq) + 4 H+(aq)

I2(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 2 H2O(ℓ)

(Keq = 5 x 1015)

Equation 2

The student determines the absorbance of the iodine

solution at 525 nm and finds the corresponding iodide

concentration from a calibration curve that relates the

absorbance of iodine to the iodide concentration The

student averages the iodide concentrations of three

trials and determines the molar solubility, S, of PbI2(s)

in water to be 1.89 x 10-3 at 25oC

In a similar experiment, the student determines the Ksp

of lead(II) bromide to be 4.6 x 10-6 at 25oC

61 What equation shows the correct Ksp of lead(II)

iodide as a function of its molar solubility, S?

A ) Ksp = S

B ) Ksp = S2

C) Ksp = 4S3

D ) Ksp = S1/3/4

62 Will lead(II) bromide precipitate if the student

mixes a 0.0001 M solution of Pb2+(aq) with a

0.00005 M solution of Br-(aq)?

A) Yes, because the ion product exceeds the Ksp

B) Yes, because the Ksp exceeds the ion product

C) No, because the ion product exceeds the Ksp

D) No, because the Ksp exceeds the ion product

63 How many grams of lead(II) iodide are present in

100 mL of a saturated aqueous solution?

A) 0.0410 gB) 0.0871 gC) 2.470 gD) 8.71 g

64 According to the Keq for Equation 2, about what percentage of I-(aq) is converted into I2(aq)?

Passage XI

A scientist uses an apparatus as sketched in Figure 1 to

measure the relative amounts of different nuclear

isotopes in a sample Atoms are ionized by removing

electrons A short pulse of ionized atoms is injected

into the region between two accelerating plates The

plates are separated by a distance d, and have a voltage

V between them When an ion of charge Q and mass M

is accelerated in this region, it acquires a kinetic

energy equal to the product of its charge and the

A sample of lithium atoms was measured Figure 2 shows a spectrum of the number of ions detected versus their time of flight The location of each peak depends on the mass and charge of the ion Peaks 3 and 4 are the peaks expected for the two, singly-ionized isotopes of lithium, 6Li+ and 7Li+, respectively

Figure 1 Isotope spectrometer

Figure 2 Time-of-flight spectrum

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66 In order to accelerate the ions in the correct

direction, the electric field in the region between

the two plates of the device in Figure 1 should be

directed toward:

A ) the top of the figure

B ) the bottom of the figure

C) the left of the figure

D ) the right of the figure

67 The 6 in 6Li refers to:

A ) the number of protons

B ) the number of neutrons

C) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

D ) the number of protons minus the number of

neutrons

68 A decrease in the voltage between the two plates

in the device would cause what change in the

measured times-of-flight?

A ) Measured times would increase for each peak

B ) Measured times would decrease for each peak

C) Times for some peaks would increase, times for

others would decrease

D ) Measured times would not change

69 Assuming equal masses, how would the detection

times of 3H+ and 3He+ compare?

A ) 3H would have a longer flight time than 3He

B ) 3H would have a shorter flight time than 3He

C) 3H would have the same flight time as 3He

D ) The radioactive 3H would always decay before

detection

70 Which peaks in Figure 2 correspond to the

doubly-ionized lithium isotopes?

A ) 2, 3

B ) 2, 4

C) 1, 3

D ) 1, 2

71 Peak 5 in Figure 2 originates from a different

atomic species Given where the peak appears, and assuming that it corresponds to singly ionized atoms, we can say that atoms of this species probably have:

A) more protons and more neutrons than 7Li

B) more protons and fewer neutrons than 7Li

C) fewer protons and more neutrons than 7Li

D) fewer protons and fewer neutrons than 7Li

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

72 Which of the following substances is most likely

to be more soluble in 1.0 M HCl than in 1.0 M

73 Which of the following statements best explains

why the intensity of sound heard is less when a

wall is placed between a source of sound and the

listener?

A ) Sound travels more slowly in a solid than in air

B ) The frequency of sound is lower in a solid than in

air

C) Part of the sound energy is reflected by the solid

D ) The wavelength of sound is shorter in a solid than

in air

74 Hooke’s law relates stress (force/unit area) and

strain (elongation/unit length) with Young’s

modulus Y by the expression, F/A= Y∆L/L

Suppose a mass M suspended by a wire of length L

and radius R stretches the wire by an amount ∆L

By how much will M stretch a wire of the same

material with double the length and double the

75 An electrochemical cell is designed to produce

pure copper from CuSO4 An increase in which of

the following cell conditions will most effectively

increase the rate at which pure copper is

produced?

A ) The concentration of SO42+(aq)

B ) The current of electricity

C) The size of the cathode

D ) The size of the anode

76 In a healthy person standing at rest, a comparison

of arterial blood pressure measured in the arm with that measured in the leg shows that the pressure in the leg is:

A) lower, because the blood flow rate is less

B) lower, because viscous flow resistance causes pressure loss

C) the same, because viscous pressure loss precisely compensates the hydrostatic pressure increase

D) greater, because the column of blood between the arm and the leg has a hydrostatic pressure

77 Electric power for transmission over long

distances is “stepped up” to a very high voltage in order:

A) to produce currents of higher density

B) to produce higher currents in the transmission wires

C) to make less insulation necessary

D) to cut down the heat loss in the transmission wires

Time: 85 minutes Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test Each passage is followed by several

questions After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet

Passage I

In the years before the turn of the century, the

Mediterranean fleet, the cream of the navy, reached a

peak of Victorian splendor The great ships would

silently appear from over the horizon to manifest the

majesty and power of England Gold-encrusted

admirals came ashore to call on local dignitaries,

officers to attend balls, play polo, or hunt snipe Fierce

competition in sail drill gave way to equally passionate

competition among ships in races at fleet regattas or

timed coaling contests

The fiercest competition of all was in polishing the

ships Every metal surface in the Mediterranean fleet

blazed like the sun Battleship and cruiser crews

devoted enormous energy to burnishing the great guns

Massive armored watertight doors were taken off their

hinges and filed and rubbed until they gleamed–and

were no longer watertight On some ships, even the

ring bolts on deck were polished and fitted with little

flannel nightcaps to protect them from salt air between

inspections

This cult of brightwork originated in the need to keep

the men busy When sails gave way to steam, the time

given to tending the rigging, furling and mending sails,

straightening and coiling ropes was given instead to

polishing The process made men’s hands and clothes

filthy with metal polish, and as soon as salt spray hit

the gleaming metal, copper turned green again and

brass blue A sparkling ship reflected well on the

captain and his second in command, and commanders

spent large sums out of their private pockets, often far

more than they could afford “It was customary,” wrote

Sir Percy Scott, “for a commander to spend half his

pay in buying paint to adorn Her Majesty’s ships, as it

was the only road to promotion.”

Appearances were often deceiving “When I went to

sea in 1895,” wrote Vice Admiral K G B Dewar, “an

air of spic and span smartness became the criterion by

which ships were judged In my first ship the

basins in the gunroom latrine had to be polished till

they shone like mirrors, the doors being locked to

prevent them being used The Hawke glistened

but she was infested with rats which contaminated the

food, ran over the hammocks, and swarmed into the

gunroom at night.”

One aspect of shipboard life that no one worried much about was gunnery; the few officers who did worry were ridiculed as fanatics The most persuasive reason was that firing the guns spread dirt and grime Wrote Scott acidly, “the powder then used had a most deleterious effect on the paintwork, and one commander who had his whole ship enameled told me that it cost him a hundred pounds to repaint her after target practice.”

Gunnery could not be wholly avoided, as admiralty orders decreed that target practice be held once every three months “No one except the gunnery lieutenant took much interest in the results,” recalled Admiral Sir Reginald Tyrwhitt “Polo and pony racing were much more important than gun drill.” Nevertheless, the ammunition had to be disposed of On the designated day, the flagship hoisted the signal Ships then steamed off in all directions and did as they liked Many simply loaded the guns and pumped three months’ allowance

of ammunition at the horizon A few ships quietly dumped the shells overboard There was little risk;

admirals understood the nasty way the gun smoke dirtied a ship Indeed, when flagships engaged in target practice, their admirals often remained ashore to escape the din

78 Which of the following items of passage

information provides the LEAST support for the author’s thesis?

A) Hatch doors were not always waterproof

B) Unused ammunition was dropped overboard

C) Crews competed in the loading of coal

D) Areas of a ship were sometimes inaccessible to the crew

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79 Before the wooden-hulled sailing ships were

completely replaced by metal-hulled steamships,

the British fleet included hybrid ships with both

sails and steam engines The most reasonable

expectation on the basis of passage information is

that officers on these ships avoided using:

A ) the engines because of respect for the British

sailing tradition

B ) the engines because of concern about the effect of

smoke on the sails

C) the sails because of the sailors’ lack of training in

handling the rigging

D ) the sails because of enthusiasm for the efficiency of

the new technology

80 In 1904, a recently appointed first lord of the

admiralty attempted to improve the preparedness

of the navy despite strong opposition One could

infer from the passage that the reform proposals

D ) I and III only

81 Which of the following underlying reasons for the

practices described in the passage is the most

reasonable?

A ) A gleaming, majestic Mediterranean fleet had an

important political value

B ) The naval officers were following the misguided

demands of the queen

C) The admiralty wanted to avoid expenditures on

ammunition and repainting after gunnery practice

D ) The British navy was so superior to any other that

military drills were unnecessary

82 The author’s apparent point in referring to the

polishing of the ring bolts is that:

A) absurd measures were taken to preserve appearances

B) innovative methods were developed to meet distinctive challenges

C) beautification measures could interfere with function

D) naval standards were meticulous in the smallest details

83 If the passage information is correct, what

inference is justified by the fact that British warships functioned well in World War I, fifteen years after the period described?

A) The expertise of naval officers at the turn of the century compensated for the inadequate training of their crews

B) The battle conditions for which the navy had prepared at the turn of the century were those it encountered in the war

C) The complaints of gunnery officers about the preparation of their crews had been heeded

D) The navy of the German invaders had been trained

by the methods described in the passage

Passage II

Party identification in the United States is a relatively

uncomplicated measure determined by responses to the

following questions:

Generally speaking, do you usually think of

yourself as a Republican, a Democrat, an

independent, or what?

(If R or D) Would you call yourself a strong (R),

(D) or a not very strong (R), (D)?

(If independent) Do you think of yourself as closer

to the Republican party or to the Democratic party?

As this self-identification measure of party loyalty is

the best indicator of partisanship, political analysts

commonly refer to partisanship and party identification

interchangeably Partisanship is the most important

influence on political opinions and voting behavior

Many other influences are at work on voters in U.S

society, and partisanship varies in its importance in

different types of election and in different time periods;

nevertheless, no single factor compares in significance

with partisanship

Partisanship represents the feeling of sympathy for and

loyalty to a political party that an individual acquires

(probably) during childhood and holds (often) with

increasing intensity throughout life This self-image as

a Democrat or a Republican is useful to the individual

in a special way For example, individuals who think

of themselves as Republicans or Democrats respond to

political information partially by using party

identification to orient themselves, reacting to new

information in such a way that it fits in with the ideals

and feelings they already have A Republican who

hears a Republican party leader advocate a policy has a

basis in party loyalty for supporting that policy, quite

apart from other considerations A Democrat may feel

favorably inclined toward a candidate for office

because that candidate bears the Democrat label

Partisanship may orient individuals in their political

environment, but it may also distort their picture of

reality

An underlying partisanship is also of interest to

political analysts because it provides a base against

which to measure deviations in particular elections In

other words, the individual voter’s longstanding

loyalty to one party means that, “other things being

equal,” or in the absence of disrupting forces, he or she can be expected to vote for that party However, voters are responsive to a great variety of other influences that can either strengthen or weaken their tendency to vote for their usual party Obvious variations occur from election to election in such factors as the attractiveness of the candidates, the impact of foreign and domestic policy issues, and purely local

circumstances These current factors, often called

“short-term forces,” may move voters away from their normal party choices

These ideas can also be used in understanding the behavior of the electorate as a whole If one added up the political predispositions of all the individuals in the electorate, one would have an “expected vote” or

“normal vote.” This is the electoral outcome to be expected if all voters voted their party identification

Departures from this expected vote in actual elections represent the impact of short-term forces, such as issues or candidates

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

W.H Flanigan and N.H Zingale, Political behavior of the

American electorate ©1991 by Congressional Quarterly

84 According to the passage, one drawback of

partisanship is that it can:

A) cause voters to react to political information on the basis of their personal feelings

B) distort voters’ views of reality

C) orient voters in their political environment

D) make voters vulnerable to short-term forces

85 According to the passage, partisanship is of

interest to political analysts because:

A) it provides a base against which electoral fluctuations can be measured

B) it helps identify the short-term forces that affect voters’ decisions

C) it represents a relatively complex measure of party identification

D) it reveals the political climate in which an individual voter was reared

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86 According to passage information, which of the

following factors would be most likely to cause a

voter to choose a candidate from a party other than

the voter’s party?

A ) A local scandal involving officials of the voter’s

party

B ) Pressure from a political action committee

C) Opinions of the voter’s family members

D ) Campaign advertising by the opposing party

87 In 1952, despite a substantial Democratic majority

among U.S voters, a Republican president,

Dwight Eisenhower, was elected Given the

information in the passage, this result was

probably due to:

A ) a wholesale shift in party loyalty among registered

Democrats

B ) low voter interest in the campaign

C) personal qualities that made Eisenhower an

especially attractive candidate

D ) a lack of pressing domestic issues facing the

country

88 On the basis of information in the passage, one

would generally expect the content of a campaign

advertisement attacking an opposing candidate to

be received most favorably by:

A ) voters in the party sponsoring the ad

B ) voters disaffected by the political process

C) voters in the party being attacked in the ad

D ) independent voters

89 If the information is correct, one could most

reasonably conclude that, compared to partisan

voters, independent voters:

A ) care less about politics

B ) take longer to evaluate political information

C) are less susceptible to the influence of short-term

factors

D ) exhibit basically the same political behavior

90 According to the passage, the effect of short-term

forces on an election would be determined by measuring:

A) the political predispositions of all individuals in the electorate

B) the voters’ views on foreign and domestic policy

C) the state of the economy in the days preceding the election

D) the difference between election results and the voters’ party identifications

Passage III

Words provide clues about their history when

etymology does not match current meaning Thus, we

suspect that emoluments were once fees paid to the

local miller (from the Latin molere, to grind)

Evolutionists have always viewed linguistic change as

a fertile field for meaningful analogies Charles

Darwin, advocating an evolutionary interpretation for

such vestigial structures as the human appendix and

the embryonic teeth of whalebone whales, wrote:

“Rudimentary organs may be compared with the letters

in a word still retained in the spelling but become

useless in the pronunciation but which serve as a clue

in seeking for its derivation.”

Scientists who study history, particularly an ancient

and unobservable history, must use inferential rather

than observational or experimental methods They

must examine modern results of historical processes

and try to reconstruct the path leading from ancestral to

contemporary words, organisms, or land forms Once

the path is traced, we may be able to specify the causes

that led history to follow this, rather than another, route

But how can we infer pathways from modern results?

In particular, how can we be sure that there was a

pathway at all? How do we know that a modern result

is the product of alteration through history and not an

immutable part of a changeless universe?

This is the problem that Darwin faced, for his

creationist opponents did view each species as

unaltered from its initial formation How did Darwin

prove that modern species are the products of history?

We might suppose that he looked toward the most

impressive results of evolution, the complex and

perfected adaptations of organisms to their

environments: the butterfly passing for a dead leaf, the

bittern for a branch, the superb engineering of a gull

aloft or a tuna in the sea

Paradoxically, he did just the opposite He searched for

oddities and imperfections The gull may be a marvel

of design; if one believes in evolution beforehand, then

the engineering of its wing reflects the shaping power

of natural selection But you cannot demonstrate

evolution with perfection because perfection need not

have a history After all, perfection of organic design

had long been the favorite argument of creationists,

who saw in consummate engineering the direct hand of

a divine architect A bird’s wing, as an aerodynamic marvel, might have been created exactly as we find it today

But, Darwin reasoned, if organisms have a history, then ancestral stages should leave remnants behind

Remnants of the past that do not make sense in present terms–the useless, the odd, the peculiar, the

incongruous–are the signs of history They supply proof that the world was not made in its present form Why should a general word for monetary

compensation refer literally to a profession now virtually extinct, unless it once had some relation with grinding and grain? And why should the fetus of a whale make teeth in its mother’s womb only to resorb them later and live a life sifting krill on a whalebone filter, unless its ancestors had functional teeth and those teeth survive as a remnant during a stage when they do no harm?

No evidence for evolution pleased Darwin more than the presence in nearly all organisms of rudimentary or vestigial structures, “parts in this strange condition, bearing the stamp of unutility,” as he put it “On my view of descent with modification, the origin of rudimentary organs is simple,” he continued “They are bits of useless anatomy, preserved as remnants of functional parts in ancestors.”

91 The passage suggests that creationists dislike the

idea that certain biological structures may be:

A) useless

B) nonadaptive

C) changeless

D) ornamental

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92 The passage states that the whalebone whale’s

teeth are:

A ) employed mainly for grinding food

B ) resorbed later in life

C) evidence that the whale is evolving into a newer

form

D ) used for sifting krill on a whalebone filter

93 The passage suggests that the “vestigial structures”

present in nearly all organisms were once:

A ) rudimentary

B ) nonadaptive

C) immutable

D ) functional

94 The discussion of the history of the word

emolument is primarily intended to support the

author’s claim that:

A ) language is a living structure

B ) history is useless to science

C) an organism’s ancestral history can be inferred

from the imperfections it retains

D ) changes in a word provide clues to its ancestral

history

95 The example of the “superb engineering of a gull”

is most relevant to the author’s assertion that a

perfect matching of an organism to its

96 On the sole basis of the passage, which of the

following structures could most readily be used as evidence for human evolution?

A) The brain, the body’s most highly developed organB) The opposable thumb, possessed by humans but not

by lower animals C) The tonsils, which may be removed without functional damage to the organism

D) The heart, which pumps the lifeblood throughout the bodies of vertebrates

97 Zoologists state that direct evidence of evolution

through natural selection can be found in the form

of fossils embedded in sedimentary rocks This

statement tends to challenge the author’s assertion

C) the world was not made in its present form

D) the origin of rudimentary organs is simple

Passage IV

Within Mary Shelley’s novel Frankenstein, the world

is divided between the public realm and the private,

almost delusional, relation between Victor and the

monster, according to Jacques Lacan, a psychoanalytic

critic, between the symbolic and imaginary orders On

the one hand, there are Alphonse Frankenstein, dutiful

father and judge, the families of the Frankensteins and

the De Laceys, the possibility of Victor’s marriage

with Elizabeth, the responsible science of M Krempe,

and the operation of law in the trial of Justine and the

imprisonment of Victor All these exemplify in varying

degrees a social order rooted in patriarchal marriage,

legality, and genital (phallic) sexuality On the other

hand, there is the curious solitude of Victor and the

monster, neither of whom can ever belong to a family,

their endless fascination with each other, and their utter

incapacity to communicate their situation with anyone

else Victor’s obsession with this imaginary double of

the self, outside of society and language, compels him

to resist or attack his father, friend, and potential wife

whenever they threaten that self

The imaginary quality of Victor’s solitude is made

clear As a young scholar, Victor studies “neither the

structure of languages, nor the code of governments,

nor the politics of various states,” all subjects

associated with the symbolic order, but rather the

“physical secrets of the world.” Moreover, within the

physical sciences, Victor pursues an outmoded,

erroneous, semimagical science in defiance of his

father’s prohibition, as if replaying the Oedipus

complex in his intellectual pursuits In an unofficial,

magical nature, Victor hopes to recover the mother

who has died

Victor’s search for a substitute mother does not take

the normative Oedipal path Typically, the son

relinquishes his mother and desires a person who

resembles her Margaret Homans argues that in effect

the son seeks a substitute for the physical mother in the

realm of language or social relations Homans goes on

to propose that Victor’s development is quite typical,

because he attempts to recreate his mother in his

scientific, intellectual project and thus in the realm of

language

But the authorized figure for the mother is Elizabeth,

not the monster; her personality and biography almost

duplicate Caroline Frankenstein’s, as if she is in fact the perfect person to complete the Oedipal drama

Victor resists the seemingly inevitable marriage to Elizabeth, leaves home, and chooses another, forbidden erotic object: the mystery of the way nature works in “her” hiding places–the mystery of the feminine body That is, he chooses to take exactly the opposite of the typical path, spurning the social realm

in favor of the imaginary, bodily mother, whom he attempts to recover by creating the monster

This relation between the mother and monster is made clear in the episodes surrounding Victor’s going to the university The break from the family represents Victor’s entrance into the public world and his separation from his mother Thus her death immediately before his leaving is highly appropriate; it represents Victor’s accepting his place in the symbolic order Yet once he gets to the university he refuses to partake in authorized scientific activities and falls prey

to his longing for forbidden knowledge He identifies with his mother, recovering her body in his own body

as he attempts to become pregnant himself, to labor in childbirth, and to watch the child awaken, gesture, and attempt to speak As Ellen Moers has pointed out, this story of monstrous creation is thus a “birth myth” built around Mary Shelley’s own experiences with

pregnancy and childbirth

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source:

D Collings, The monster and the imaginary mother: A Lacanian

reading of Frankenstein ©1992 by Bedford Books of St

Martin's Press

98 The author apparently believes that young men

normally resolve the Oedipus complex by:

A) defying their father and identifying with their mother

B) rejecting the symbolic order for the imaginary

C) leaving the matriarchy to join the patriarchy

D) leaving their mother and marrying someone like her

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99 The author hints that the fact of the novel’s having

been written by a woman indicates that its plot is:

A ) an argument for the magical powers of nature

B ) a denunciation of patriarchal attitudes

C) evidence of the novelist’s feelings about giving

birth

D ) a demonstration of women’s skill with symbolic

language

100 The passage suggests that family opposition to

Victor’s university studies results from his

D ) wish to protect Victor’s mother from knowledge of

his sexual motives

101 Assume that a later, revised manuscript of

Shelley’s Frankensteinis discovered The single

plot change that would most compromise the

author’s analysis would be that Victor:

A ) courts and marries Elizabeth

B ) nurses his mother into old age

C) is unable to animate the monster

D ) creates and marries a female monster

102 Apparently, the author’s preferred approach to

the interpretation of a novel is to concentrate on:

A ) the social attitudes of the intended readers

B ) the unconscious motives of the characters

C) the socio-historical context of the plot

D ) correspondences between the characters and the

novelist

Passage V

Brand props have played a role in motion pictures for

many decades, appearing in films from the late 1940s

The practice of using incidental properties with

recognizable labels in films began casually

Brand-name items were simply donated, loaned, or purchased

for particular scenes to enhance their verisimilitude or

aesthetic qualities Today, brand placement, the

purposeful placement of commercial products within

feature films, is a multimillion-dollar business, driven

by the need of marketers to increase their media

options for product exposure

Brands can be integrated in a film in three ways: The

product itself may be used by an actor, a logo or

advertisement may be featured, or a sign may be

displayed in the background For placements that are

directly purchased, fees are usually based on a

hierarchy of product treatments Simple visual

exposure is the least expensive, verbal mention is

moderately priced, and character usage is the most

costly Brand-placement has obvious advantages for

marketers, giving them captive audiences,

demonstrating the acceptance of their product in

naturalistic contexts, and providing greater consumer

reach than traditional media, thus providing relatively

cost-efficient advertising For filmmakers, the

arrangement not only offsets production costs but

contributes to the realism of contemporary settings

A number of studies have used paid focus groups and

in-depth interviews to clarify the way audiences

interpret brand placements in relation to movies, movie

viewing, and social experience The results are

consistent Older informants consider the use of brand

props an innovation that changes their movie-going

experience They report feeling resistance, discomfort,

and concern In contrast, younger informants consider

the appearance of name-brand products in the story an

acceptable and expected part of the movie-going

experience and not a change For them, encounters

with familiar products are associated with feelings of

belonging, comfort, and security

These findings convey a clear and convincing message:

The success of brand props in exerting persuasive

effects is not a matter of what the placements do to

movie audiences but what the audiences do with them

The meaning and relevance of brands encountered in

films are not simply transmitted to viewers; rather, viewers interpret these props as part of their own everyday life, and in reflecting the viewers’ past, present, and anticipated experiences, the props come to life

Critics label brand placement deceptive and insidiously manipulative and want public officials to regulate or even to ban the practice One of our studies counters the critics’ argument and suggests that their charge is groundless Criticism of brand placement as a

deceptive practice is based on the premise that the appearance of brand props in movie scenes has a causal relationship to buying behavior Behind this premise is the assumption that moviegoers are unaware

of the persuasive intent behind placements and are nạve about the practice in general

But our interviews convincingly demonstrate that moviegoers are more sophisticated in their understanding of the practice than critics would have public policy officials believe As indicated by their own comments, moviegoers are active interpreters, not passive receivers, of movie presentations of brands

Furthermore, they are not influenced uniformly by these encounters, a finding that suggests a mitigating effect by other factors–e.g., perceived needs, self-image, past experiences, plot context, and demographic group–on any induced tendency to purchase the

product The audience awareness of the persuasive intention of brand props in fact promotes skepticism and resistance to their persuasive influence For various reasons, moviegoers may allow themselves certain indulgences in some buying situations, but they are not deceived into rushing out of movie houses to buy everything shown in a movie

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103 Which of the following forms of film placement

would be the most effective for marketing

purposes, according to passage indications?

A ) A favorable reference to the product by a major

character

B ) A large billboard advertising the product shown as

a backdrop to the action

C) A close-up shot showing the product as a

significant element in the plot

D ) A minor character shown casually using the

product

104 The author’s attitude toward brand placement in

motion pictures is most accurately described as:

A ) favorable

B ) neutral

C) mistrustful

D ) disapproving

105 According to passage information, the brand

placement phenomenon is growing primarily

because:

A ) marketers want alternative ways of advertising

B ) it lowers production costs for film companies

C) it helps directors to achieve realistic scenes

D ) increased sales result from the practice

106 According to the author, the general effect of

brand placement on film audiences is:

A ) a sense of psychological benefits from brand

recognition

B ) an acceptance of such displays as legitimate

advertising

C) a resistance to the intended effect on consumption

D ) a reluctance to attend films meant to sell products

107 What is the most serious apparent weakness of

the research described?

A) The participants were told that brand props have a commercial purpose rather than being asked their purpose

B) It differentiates participants on the basis of age rather than on socioeconomic status or belief system

C) The attitudes expressed were probably influenced

by those of others rather than reached independently

D) Its conclusions are based on the participants’

reports rather than on their buying behavior

108 Assume that a film includes repeated scenes

showing the trademark Voom on the sports shoes

of its attractive adolescent protagonists Although the film is successful among young audiences, no increase occurs in the sale of Voom shoes Which

of the following hypotheses about this outcome is the most plausible on the basis of the studies cited?

A) Audiences feel uncomfortable because Voom is an unfamiliar brand

B) Most members of the audience already own a pair

109 The wording of the passage suggests that the

studies described are most likely to have been conducted by:

A) a regulatory agency of the Commerce Department.B) a professional association of advertisers

C) an advocacy group for consumers’ rights

D) a group of experimental psychologists

110 Suppose that immediately after a placement for

the Zog brand of widgets appeared in a very

successful film, sales of Zog widgets rose

dramatically If the author’s conclusions about

moviegoers are accepted, which of the following

conclusions about this buying must also be

accepted?

A ) The strangeness of seeing a brand prop excited

viewers into indulging in Zog widgets

B ) The film only reminded viewers that they already

intended to buy Zog widgets

C) The film influenced viewers to buy Zog widgets

without their awareness

D ) The buyers of Zog widgets were predominantly the

older moviegoers

111 If the following statements are true, which would

most weaken the argument of defenders of brand

placement?

A ) Shortly after a Western film attracts huge

audiences, sales of riding horses and ranch

properties increase appreciably

B ) A campaign to educate moviegoers about brand

placement has no observable effect on their

purchasing decisions

C) When moviegoers see a list of the brand props to

appear in a film before it begins, sales of those

products decline

D ) Moviegoers buy more popcorn when a promotional

film for the concession stand is shown than when it

is omitted

112 The author’s primary purpose in the passage is

apparently:

A ) to clarify the business arrangement between

marketing and the film industry

B ) to consider the generational difference in attitudes

about brand placement

C) to question the ethics of promoting products

without seeming to do so

D ) to justify the commercialization of feature films

through brand props

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Passage VI

England has had greater soldier-kings and subtler

diplomatists than Henry II, but no one has left a deeper

mark on British laws and institutions The names of his

battles have vanished with their dust, but his fame will

live with the English Constitution and the English

Common Law When Henry gained the crown in 1154,

twenty years of rebellion and anarchy had determined

him to curb baronial independence

In place of a multitude of manorial courts in which

local magnates dispensed justice, the quality and

character of which varied with the customs of the

neighborhood, Henry planned a system of royal courts

that would administer a law common to all of England

The policy was not without peril The king was wise

enough to know that to lay a finger on the sanctity of

customary rights would provoke disaster Faced with

this barrier, Henry shrewdly stretched old principles to

new meanings and cloaked innovation in the respected

garb of conservatism

But if Henry was to pose as a conservative in the legal

sphere, he must be consistent Compulsion could play

little part in his program; it had to be the first principle

of his policy to attract cases to his courts rather than to

compel them A bait was needed with which to draw

litigants to the royal courts; the king must offer them

better justice than they could have at the hands of their

lords Henry accordingly threw open to litigants in the

royal courts a startling new procedure–trial by jury

Until then, both civil and criminal cases had been

decided through the oath, the ordeal, or the duel, all of

which left small room for debate on points of law In a

more rational age, the English were beginning to

distrust such antics Thus trial by jury quickly gained

favor

The jury of Henry II was not the jury that is now used

Its members were witnesses as well as judges of the

facts Jurors were not yet picked for their impartiality

but because they were most likely to know the truth

The modern jury, which knows nothing about the case

to be heard until it is presented in court, was slow in

coming The process by which the modern jury

evolved is obscure A jury summoned to Westminster

from distant parts might be reluctant to come, and

perhaps only three or four would arrive The court

could not wait, and to avoid delay and expense, the

parties might agree to rely on a jury of bystanders In time, the designated jurors with local knowledge would cease to be jurors at all and would become witnesses, giving their evidence to a jury composed entirely of bystanders Such, we may guess, was what happened Very gradually, as laws of evidence evolved, the change came By the fifteenth century, it was under way; yet even under the Tudor kings, jury members might be tried for perjury if they gave a wrongful verdict

The jury system has come to stand for all that is meant

by English justice, because if a case has to be scrutinized by twelve honest citizens, defendant and plaintiff alike have a safeguard against arbitrary perversion of the law It is this safeguard that distinguishes the law administered in English courts from Continental legal systems, which are based on Roman law Thus, amidst the great process of centralization, the old principle was preserved, and endures to this day, that law flows from the people and

is not given by the king

113 If the “disaster” referred to in the passage had

occurred, what would have been its most likely major manifestation?

A) Litigants would have refused to bring their cases to the royal courts

B) Citizens would have proclaimed their right to be tried by an impartial jury of their peers

C) Regional lords would have joined forces to challenge the king’s authority

D) The tradition of determining guilt through oaths, ordeals, and duels would have gained strength

114 The Tudor practices described in the passage

most clearly conflict with the modern legal

practice of:

A) appealing to a higher court

B) being tried by an unbiased jury

C) being required to serve on a jury

D) testifying under oath

115 What is the relation of other passage information

to the assertion that the jury system provides a

safeguard against arbitrary perversion of the law?

A ) The implication that Henry wanted to extend his

power undermines it

B ) The difference acknowledged between the medieval

jury and the modern one weakens it

C) No other statement in the passage directly concerns

it

D ) The contrast drawn between Henry’s system and

manorial courts clarifies it

116 What assumption is implicit in the phrase “as

laws of evidence evolved”?

A ) Those who are unfamiliar with a case are better

jurors than are those who give testimony

B ) Originally, witnesses at a trial were not required to

testify under oath

C) Verdicts should be decided by citizens and not be

given by the king

D ) Henry’s jury system introduced new sources of bias

into the administration of the laws

117 The passage suggests that its author would

probably disagree with which of the following

statements?

A ) Justice is better served when rulers are restrained

by a constitution than when their authority is

undefined

B ) Juries are more susceptible to manipulation and

pressure than are respected authorities

C) Strengthening a nation’s legal system is more

important than strengthening its police force

D ) Judgments based on national laws are more apt to

be fair than are those based on regional customs