Tổng hợp câu hỏi trắc nghiệm ôn thi chuyên ngành kỹ thuật hàng không

ATA 71 Which of the following statements is correct about the engine mounts shown here a Both mounts can transfer forces in all directions b The forwad mount can only transfer forces in the z and x axes c The aft mount can only transfer forces in the z and y axes d The aft mount can only transfer forces in the z and x axes a b c d What is the main function of the exhaust nozzle? Noise reduction To decrease fuel consumption To generate thrust from the exhaust gas To protect the engine turbine against foreign object damage a b c d Which loads can be transferred by this aft mount? Only thrust Weight and side loads Thrust and weight Side loads and thrust a b c d What types of fluid can be collected by the drain system? Only fuel and oil Only oil, fuel and water Oil + fuel + hydraulic fluids + water Only fuel + water What is the task of the drain collector assembly in this drain system ? a It connects all drain lines from the accessory drive to one common line routed to the drain mast b It connects all drain lines of the drain system to one common line routed to the drain mast c It collects fluid leaks from all drain lines d It collects fluid leaks from the accessory drive seals After landing you find this track on a drain mast What statement is correct? a There was a leakage at the hydraulic pump drive seal The drive seal must be replaced before the next flight b There was a leakage at the hydraulic pump drive seal You must a leak check c There was a leakage at the hydraulic pump drive seal You must replace the hydraulic pump d This is normal, because hydraulic pumps always leak a little bit How is the oil holding tank of this collector assembly emptied? a It is automatically emptied by ram air during each flight b You must open the drain valve to empty the holding tank c Low pressure on the drain mast outlet during flight sucks the fluid out of the holding tank d It is automatically emptied by engine bleed air before each flight ATA 72 Airlines not like this of engine design Why? a Because too many special tools are needed to carry out the maintenance on these types of engine b Because maintance on these engines is too time consuming c Because maintance training for these engine is too expansive What are typical major modules of a modern turbofan engine? a The engine inlet, the compressor, the turbine and the engine exhaust b The low pressure compressor, high pressure compressor, high compressor turbine and low pressure turbine c The fan module, the core module, the turbine module and the accessory drive module d The N1 rotor module, the N2 rotor module, the combustor module and the exhaust nozzle module 10 Where on the engine you usually find titanium base alloy material? a The low pressure compressor is usually made of titanium base alloy b The fan cases and the engine gearboxes are usually made of titanium base alloy c The high pressure turbine is usually made of titanium base alloy d The N1 driveshaft is usually made of titanium base alloy 11 What is the purpose of the spiral drawn on the spinner cone? a It is just for optical reasons to make the engine look nicer b To show the engine is running c To scare birds away d To improve airflow 12 What is a labyrinth seal? a it is a fluid tight seal between rotating parts which drains any fluid leakage into a labyrinth b It is a gas tight air seal that is between rotating parts which are not in contact with each other c It is a gas tight air seal that is between parts which are in contact with each other d It is an air seal between rotating parts which are not in contact with each other 13 a b c What is the purpose of the airflow splitter fairing? it splits the airflow from the fan into the primary and secondary airflow It splits the airflow from the fan into the LPC airflow and HPC airflow It serves as a water separate which prevents that rain can enter the core engine 14 a b c d What are these holes for? These are drain holes to prevent water from entering the fan duct These holes are used to reduce the noise of the fan These holes are used to ventilate the inner surface of the fan case These holes are used to improve the airflow in the fan duct by sucking off the boundary layer 15 Some spinner cones have a soft tip What is the reason of this soft tip? a The soft tip reduces the noise of the inlet airflow b The soft tip reduces the injury danger if somebody is sucked into a running engine c The soft tip is made of a special material that is extremely light to save weight d The soft tip causes a small imbalance during operation to prevent ice built-up at the spinner cone 16 Which of the following statements about the attachment of fan blade is correct? a Fan blades are always fitted loosely to the fan disc b Fan blades must have a very tight fit because of their large weight c Fan blades are attached in circumferential dovetail slots on the fan disc d Fan blades are attached the fan stator case 17 Where on the fan module can you find adradable shrouds? a On the outer fan stator case b On the inner wall of the fan stator case in the area of the fan blades c In the center hub of the fan frame d On the inner wall of the fan stator case, in the area of the outlet guide vanes 18 What is the purpose of the mid-span shrouds on the fan blades? a Mid-span shrouds serve as enforcements for the fan blades, to better withstand the centrifugal loads b The shrouds help to keep the fan blade deflection within safe limits if very heavy loads act on them c The shrouds help to split the inlet airflow into primary and secondary airflow d The mid-span shrouds help to scare birds away 19 a b c What function does the fan frame carry out? It supports the bearing at the front end of the HP compressor rotor It supports the stator vanes of the compressor It supports the rear bearing of the compressor rotor 20 a b c d What happens when the rotor blade of a running engine makes contact with the lining? the blade bends and gets out of shape The lining material is scraped off The blade tip material is scraped off The blade tip breaks off 21 Which design method is used for this compressor rotor? a This is a disc type compressor rotor b This is a drum type compressor rotor c This is a combined compressor rotor made of drum and discs d This is a combined compressor rotor made of drums and discs 22 How many stages of this compressor rotor have axial dovetail slots to fit the rotor blades? a Only the first stage has axial dovetail slots for the rotor blades b The first stages have axial dovetail slots for the rotor blades c The first stages have axial dovetail slots for the rotor blades d All stages have axial dovetail slots to fit the rotor blades 23 What is the purpose of the diffuser in the combustion case? a It increases the air velocity into the combustion chmber and therefore increases the air pressure b It decreases the air velocity into the combustion chamber and therefore increases the air pressure c It splits the airflow into the combustion chamber into primary airflow and scondary airflow d It guides all the air from the high pressure compressor into the primary combustion zone 24 What you think is the purpose of the interstage seal? a It prevents gas flow through the gap between the turbine stator and the turbine rotor b It prevents the cooling airflow from entering the main gas flow c It prevent oil from leaking into the main gas flow 25 What is the name of this rotor blade attachment? a Dove tail attachment b Fir tree attachment c Lemon tree attachment d Fir tail attachment 26 a b c What is the main disadvantage of fan mounted gearboxes? The weight of the gearbox moves the center of gravity of the engine too far to the front The gearbox on the fan case increases the frontal area of the engine This design puts too much extra weight on the engine 27 What is the advantage of a V-clamp or QAD-ring attachment? a V-clamp or QAD-ring attachments transmit higher loads b V-clamp or QAD-ring attachments permit quick and easy removal and installation of the accessory units c They are used if there is no room for the necessary number of bolts on the mounting pad 28 What is the advantage of tangential struts compared with radial struts used in the turbine frame? a Tangential struts minimize the stress on the frame hub caused by thermal expansion b Tangential struts are lighter than radial struts c Tangential struts are cheaper to manufacture than radial struts d Tangential struts look better than radial struts 29 What is the advantage of core mounted gearboxes compared with fan case mounted gearboxes? a Core mounted gearboxes are more compact and therefore lighter than fan case mounted gearboxes b Core mounted gearboxes are easier to access than fan case mounted gearboxes c Engines with core mounted gearboxes have a smaller frontal area than fan case mounted gearboxes 30 Which rotor of this turbofan engine has a triple bearing system? a HP rotor b LP rotor 31 Which kind of loads can be transmitted by a floating bearing? a Weight loads, shock loads, thermal loads and thrust loads b Weight loads and centrifugal loads c Weight loads, centrifugal loads and thrust loads d Weight loads only 32 What is pressure balancing? a Pressure balancing is a method of reducing axial loads on fixed bearings in an engine b Pressure balancing is a method to reduce axial loads on floating bearings in an engine c Pressure balancing is a method to reduce radial loads on fixed bearings in an engine d Pressure balancing is a method to reduce the oil pressure at the lubrication nozzle 33 Which lubrication method is shown in this graphic? a The direct lubrication method b The indirect lubrication method c A combination of a direct and an under-race lubrication method d The outer-race lubrication method 34 What must you if one fan blade is damaged and has to be replaced? a This is not allowed as you cannot replace just one blade You must always replace the whole set b First remove all the fan blades and calculate a new distribution with the new blade c You must replace the damaged blade with a new blade which has the exactly same moent weight d You must adjust the change in the moment weight by adding balance weights 35 Assume that during blending 20 gram of blade material has been removed What has to be done to the blade so that it can be put on the fan rotor again? a You must add a balance weight of 20 gram on the spinner b You must blend 20 gram of material at the tip of the opposite blade c You must measure the new moment weight, calculate the required balance weight and add it to the spinner d You must always perform a complete computerized rebalancing of the fan rotor 36 In this example which components of the high pressure compressor can be inspected by a rigid borescope? a All the stator vances of all compressor stages b All the rotor blades of all compressor stages c Some rotor blades of all stages and all stator vanes of all stages d You can only inspect the rotor blades of stage to 4, stage and and of stage and 10 37 How you rotate the N2 rotor system for a borescope inspection? a Use the shaft of the borescope and push on the rotor blades b Rotate the N1 rotor fast enough so that the N2 rotor will follow c Motorize the engine with the pneumatic starter motor at a very low speed d By a cranking device connected to the accessory gearbox or transfer gearbox ATA 73 38 a b c d What is this component in the fuel system? The fuel filter The fuel control unit The oil cooler The fuel flow transmitter 39 Why we need a positive fuel pressure at the inlet of the high pressure fuel pump? a Because the gear type HP pump cannot create sufficient suction to get the fuel from the tanks b Because the pressure decreases too much when the fuel passes through the oil cooler and fuel filter c Because the high pressure pump cannot create sufficient pressure without the low pressure pump d Because cavitation occurs at the inlet of the high pressure pump if it has to draw the fuel by suction 40 What can be the disadvantage in the fuel system if there is an IDG oil cooler in the fuel bypass return line? a The hot bypass fuel reduces the efficiency of the engine oil cooler b The IDG oil cooler needs too much fuel for its operation therefore the engine speed decreases c The IDG oil cannot be cooled sufficiently at a high power setting when all fuel is needed for combustion 41 a b c d What is a shroud? a shroud is an extra strong pipe wall of a high pressure fuel line A shroud is a pipe, which forms a sealed ring space around an inner pipe A shroud is a protective silicone coating on a high pressure fuel line A shroud is a second outer pipe wall which improve the strength of the primary inner pipe wall 42 Where can you find a flow divider valve in an engine fuel system? a On engines with duplex fuel nozzles inside each nozzle b Only on engines with fuel manifolds c On all engines with airspray nozzles d Only on modern turbofan engines 43 What is the name and the task of the highlighted fuel line in the engine fuel system? a It is the fuel bypass return line It returns the fuel that is not needed for combustion to the tank b It is the fuel bypass return line It returns the fuel that is not needed for combustion to the fuel pump c It is the fuel bypass return line It returns the fuel to the oil cooler if it is too cold for combustion d It is the fuel recirculation line It recirculates the fuel back to the tank if it is too hot for combustion 44 What is the main difference between plunger type fuel pumps and gear type fuel pumps? a Plunger type pumps can also be used to meter the fuel, but they cannot supply high fuel pressures b Gear type pumps can supply higher fuel pressures than plunger type pumps c Gear type pumps can also be used to meter the fuel, but plunger type pumps can supply higher fuel pressures d Plunger type pumps can also be used to meter the fuel and they can supply higher fuel pressures 45 What is a wash screen in the fuel system? a It is a filter element, that can be washed out during engine maintenance b It is a very fine filter screen for the servo fuel flow that is continuously cleaned by the main fuel flow c It is a screen which washes away the particles that are caught in the main filter element d It is a screen that can be used to wash high pressure filter elements 46 Which type of fuel nozzle is always a single flow nozzle? a Airspray nozzles are always single flow nozzles b Fuel spray nozzles are always single flow nozzles c The duplex nozzle is a single flow nozzle 47 Where you find shrouds in the fuel system of modern engines? a All fuel lines of the engine fuel system are shrouded lines b The fuel supply line between the tank and the low pressure fuel pump is usually a shrouded line c Only the fuel line couplings of the high pressure fuel system are usually shrouded 48 a b c Where you think the FCU gets the actual N2 from? From the N2 speed indicator in the cookpit Form the mechanical drive of the FCU via the accessory gearbox From the N2 speed sensor on the engine 49 What happens to the engine if too much fuel is suddenly supplied to the combustion chamber a b c d for acceleration? The engine can overboost The engine gets into a dangerous overtemperature condition The high pressure compressor of the engine stalls The engine gets into an overspeed condition 50 a b c d Which signal uses the FCU to bring the engine back to the demanded speed? The compressor inlet temperature signal CIT The compressor discharge pressure signal CDP The fan speed signal N1 The core engine speed signal N2 51 Can the engine always supply a constant thrust if the fan speed is kept constantly at 90%? a Yes, because the N1 is always in a fixed relation to the thrust of the engine b No, because even with a constant speed the thrust changes if the ambient conditions change c No, because with 90% N1 the thrust in flight is much higher than on ground d No, only if it is flat rated to 90% 52 Which signals does the fuel control unit need for constant speed control? a N1 and N2 signals from engine b N2 signal from the engine and N2 command signal from the cockpit c N2, CIT and CDP signal from the engine d N1 signal from the engine, N2 command signal from the cockpit and aircraft configuration signals 53 What is the difference between minimum idle and approach idle? a Approach idle speed is higher than minimum idle speed 120 What is the purpose of the resolvers in the throttle control unit shown on this graphic? a The resolvers activate the thrust reversers There is resolver for each engine b The resolvers convert the thrust lever deflection into signals for the ECU – resolver for each channel c The resolvers convert the thrust lever deflection into signals for the ECU – resolver for each engine d The resolvers activate the thrust reversers There is resolver for each channel ATA 77 77.1 121 Which of these statements is correct about the use of analog and digital indications a Analog indications allow minitoring of trends and digital indications give you exact values b With digital indications you can easily monitor increasing and decreasing data c With analog indications you can easily read exact values 122 Which parameter is used to set the engine thrust on this aircraft? a EPR b N1 c EGT d N2 123 Which indication is used to set engine thrust in this example? a EPR b N1 c N2 d EGT 124 Which statement is correct about engine trend monitoring? a It gives an indication to the pilot about the trend of the engine speed and temperature b It shows the pilot the trends for the engine performance c It analyzes engine data on the ground to detect engine parameters that indicate a trend towards a limit d It only analyzes engine data in order to show when the engine has to be changed 77.2 125 What is the value of N1 for engine number shown here? a About 100%, an exact value is ont readable on the analog indication b 95.8% c 96.1% d 99.9% 126 Which rotor speed is measured on the gearbox of the engine shown here? a The N2 rotor speed b The N1 rotor speed c N1 or N2 depending on the engine speed d N1 and N2 127 What you think is the main advantage of this type of rotor speed indication? a The rotor speed indication is very precise b This indication system does not need any power supply c Information from the indication is also useful for engine trend monitoring 128 What happens when the actual N1 exceeds this red line limit? a The turbine inlet temperature become too high b The pressure in the compressor becomes too high c The centrifugal forces that act on the rotor system become too high d The engine shuts down automatically 129 How does this type of speed sensor work? a The phonic wheel changes the magnetic field of the variable reluctance speed sensor b The compressor shaft drives the tachometer generator, which generates a voltage proportional to the speed c The phonic wheel moves a coil inside the variable reluctance speed sensor, which generates a voltage d The phonic wheel reflects light which is sent by the speed sensor 130 How does the tachometer generator operate? a It generates an AC which has a voltage that is proportional to the input speed b It generates an AC which has a frequency that is proportional to the input speed c It generates a DC which has a voltage that is proportional to the input speed d It generates pulses with a pulse rate that is proportional to the input speed 131 What is indicated by the red line limit on the N1 indicator? a The N1 for the maximum thrust b Always the speed limit of 100% N1 c The maximum design speed of the N1 rotor Above this valur the forces on the rotor become too large d The maximum allowed N1 Above this value the engine temperature or pressure become too large 77.3 132 What is shown by the highlighted values on the display? a This is the red pressure limit that must never be exceeded in order to prevent engine damage b This value shows the EPR command It shows the necessary EPR value for a specific flight phase c This value shows the EPR which corresponds to the actual throttle lever position 133 What does an actual EPR indication of 1.50 mean? a The total gas pressure in the turbine oulet is 1.5 times the total air pressure at the fan inlet b The pressure at the turbine outlet is 1.5 psi c The pressure at the turbine outlet is 1.5 times the static ambient pressure d The pressure in the high pressure compressor is 1.5 times the pressure in the low pressure compressor 77.4 134 Which statement is correct about the operation of a thermocouple? a A thermocouple generates a DC voltage that is proportional to the temperature b A thermocouple increases the resistance as temperature increases This is called PTC c A thermocouple decreases the resistance as temperature increases This is called NTC d A thermocouple generates an AC voltage that is proportional to the temperature 135 Which statement is correct about how the thermocouples are connected a They are connected in parallel so that the individual voltages add up to a higher value b They are connected in parallel to get an average value out of the individual voltages c They are connected in series so that the individual voltages add up to a higher value d They are connected in series to get an average value out of the individual voltages 136 Which of these statements about the special wiring is correct? a The wires are made of copper and have a high crossectional area because of the high current b The wires are made of copper, have a small crossectional area and are heavily insulated c Different materials must be used for the wires from the hot to the cold junction (e.g.Alumel & Chromel) d All wires are made of the same material, for example Alumel or Chromel 137 What happens when the EGT exceeds the red limit? a Only the actual analogue and digital readouts change from green to red b Actual readouts change to red and the master warning is triggered c Actual readouts change to red, the master warning is triggered and the exceedance value is memorised d Actual readouts change to red, the master warning is triggered and the engine shuts down automatically 138 Which statement is correct about the red line limit on the EGT indicators? a The red line shows the EGT limit for maximum continuous thrust b The red line shows the EGT limit for the actual flight phase c The red line is a fixed value and shows the maximum EGT that must never be exceeded 139 What type of temperature sensor is used for the EGT? a A PTC thermistor b A thermocouple c An NTC thermistor 140 What is the function of the junction boxes? a They connect the thermocouples in series b They connect the thermocouples in parallel c They measure the temperature of the individual probes and send the highest value to the indicator d They the temperature compensation for the cold junction 77.5 141 Which vibration is indicated by FAN? a The N2 vibration signal from the aft sensor b The N2 vibration signal from the forward sensor c The N1 vibration signal from the forward sensor d The N1 vibration signal from the aft sensor 142 What sensor type is used to measure engine vibration? a A temperature sensor b A pressure sensor c An accelerometer d A speed sensor 143 Which of the following statements is correct about this vibration indication? a Engine number has a forward vibration of 0,8 and an aft vibration of 0,9 units b Engine number has a vibration of the N1 rotor of 0,8 and of the N2 rotor of 1,2 units c The N1 rotor of engine number vibrates with 0,8 m/sec and the N2 rotor with 1,2 m/s d Engine number has a forward vibration of 0,8 and an aft vibration of 1,2 units 144 How is the N1 and N2 vibration signal generated? a The N1 signal comes from the forward sensor and the N2 signal from the aft sensor b With a filter you can find the corresponding vibration signal by comparing it to the rotor speed signal c The N2 signal comes from the forward sensor and the N1 signal from the aft sensor d The rotor speed sensor also measures the vibration 145 Which sensor types are shown here? a Two different types of accelerometer, which are used for engine vibration monitoring b Two different types of pressure sensors c The top sensor is a pressure sensor and the bottom one a temperature sensor d The top sensor is a speed sensor and the bottom one a temperature sensor 77.6 146 Which of the following values is proportional to the mass fuel flow? a The rotational speed of the impeller b The rotational speed of the straightener c The turning angle of the impeller against the transmitter housing d The angle between the rotating drum and the rotating impeller 147 How is the fuel used indication measured? a It is calculated from the actual fuel quantity by comparing it with the quantity of fuel at takeoff b It is calculated from an integration of the fuel flow signal c With an additional sensor that is installed in the tanks d It is given by the number of rotations of the impeller in the fuel flow transmitter Which of these answers is correct about the fuel flow transmitter types shown here? 148 a Both types measure the volume flow of fuel (e.g l/h) b Both types measure the mass flow of fuel (e.g kg/h) c The upper sensor measures the volume flow of fuel (e.g l/h) and the lower the mass flow (kg/h) d The upper sensor measures the mass flow of fuel (kg/h) and the lower the volume flow (e.g l/h) ATA 78 78.1 149 What is the problem for the engine if the exhaust gas is deflected by 180 degree? a The deflection mechanism will become very complicated and heavy b The reverse thrust becomes too strong for the engine mounts c The deflected exhaust gas will completely destroy the lift at the wings of the aircraft d The axhaust gases would be ingested again by the engine This could cause a severe compressor srall 150 Which airflow is used on a modern turbofan engine to give reverse thrust? a The primary airflow only (core engine airflow) b The secondary airflow only (fan airflow) c Always the primary airflow and the secondary airflow d Bleed air from the HP compressor 151 At which landing condition are thrust reversers most efficient? a Shortly after touchdown when the aircraft has a high speed b Shortly before the aircraft comes to rest at a very low speed c The thrust reverser efficiency is always the same 78.2 152 Which conditions are always necessary to deploy a thrust reserve on a modern turbofan engine? a The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the engine must operate in idle power b The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the engine must operate at high power c The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the aircraft must be on ground d The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the landing gear must be extended 153 Which conditions are necessary to deploy a thrust reverser on a modern turbofan engine? a The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the engine must operate in idle power b The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the engine must operate at high speed c The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the aircraft must be on ground d The thrust reverse lever must be pulled and the landing gear must be extended 154 What is the difference between a reverser lock system and a reverser interlock system? a The reverser lock system closes the reverser and the reverser interlock system opens the reverser b There is no difference, these are just different names for the same system c The reverser lock system latches the reverser in its stow position and the interlock system unlatches it d The reverser lock system latches the reverser and the interlock system controls reverse power setting 155 What does this indication mean? a The reverse thrust lever is activated but the reverser is not fully deployed b The reverser is fully deployed c The reverse lever is not in the reverse idle position d The thrust reverser is locked correctly 78.3 156 Which type of air is usually used to supply the air motor of a pneumatically operated reverser system? a On ground, high stage air from the HP compressor and, in flight, low stage from the LP compressor b High stage bleed from the HP compressor for normal operation or alternatively air from the pneumatic system c Usually air from the pneumatic system d High stage air, low stage air or air from the pneumatic system The highest air pressure supplies the system In which direction will the gears of the air motor rotate if the pressure regulator and 157 shut-off valve is open? a The upper gear rotates clockwise and the lower gear rotates counter-clockwise b The upper gear rotates counter-ckockwise and the lower gear rotates clockwise c The gears rotate clockwise d The gears not rotate at all because the brake is set 158 Shortly before the translating cowl reaches its end position the speed of the air motor is decreased Which components in this system cause the air motor speed to decrease? a The pressure regulator and shut-off valve and the brake at the air motor b The pressure regulator and shut-off valve and the directional pilot valve c The feedback mechanism and the directional control valve d The directional pilot valve and the brake in the air motor 159 You need to deploy this reverser manually for maintenance purposes but it does not move What is your first action? a The reverser is mechanically jammed You first need to disassemble the thrust reverser b The brake is still set You need to release the air pressure in the supply duct to release the brake c The brake is still set You need to supply bleed air to the pneumatic drive unit to release the brake d The brake is still set You need to release it by the manual brake release handle 160 How you mechanically deactivate this reverser? a You install manual lock-outs into the center drive units of the reverser halves b You install manual lock-outs into the drive units and lock bolts and warning plates on the reverser halves c You manually set the brake on the center drive units d You disconnect the flexible drive shafts from the center drive units 78.4 161 If hydraulic power is available, what happens next? a The spring of the deploy control value closes the value again b Hydraulic pressure is now available at the reverser actuators c The plunger of the directional control value moves up d The plunger in the manual shut-off value moves down 162 What is the purpose of the manual shut-off valve? a The manual shut-off value is used by the maintenance crew to stow the thrust reverser b The manual shut-off valve prevents inadvertent operation of the thrust reverser c The manual shut-off value prevents the reverser from deploying but it makes sure that the reverser can stow d The manual shut-off value prevents the reverser from stowing but makes sure that the reverser can deploy 163 What happens to the lock sleeve in this actuator position if the deploy supply pressure is removed? a Nothing b The spring pushes the lock sleeve to the right c The reture pressure from the aircraft hydraulic system moves the reverser actuator to the stow position 164 What is the purpose of these flexible shafts on this thrust reverser? a The flexible shafts transmit the movement from the mid actuator to the upper and lower actuator b The flexible shafts release the throttle interlock if the reverser is fully deployed c The flexible shafts synchronize the movement of the actuators on each reverser translating sleeve d The flexible shafts make sure that the left and right translating sleeve move at the same speed 165 What is the main purpose of the isolation valve in this reverser system? a It makes sure that the reverser actuators not get pressure if the engine operates in forward thrust mode b The isolation valve is needed to electrically deactivate the thrust reversers for maintenance c The isolation valve is needed to disconnect the stow supply lines from the deploy supply lines 166 As you can see, there are red pins sticking out of the reverser cowling What does this indicate? a The red indicator pins show that the reverser is hydraulically deactivated b The red indicator pins show that the reverser is mechanically deactivated c The red indicator pins show that the reverser is hydraulically and mechanically deactivated d The red indicator pins show that the reverser cowling is not closed and latched properly 167 What happens to this reverser if door latch no fails to open? a Only the blocker door nos and will deploy b The blocker door nos 1,2 and will deploy c The reverser control valve module will switch to the alternate hydraulic supply to release door latch no d Nothing, the reverser remains stowed ATA 79 79.1 168 What happens to the viscosity of the oil if the temperature increases? a The viscosity increases b The viscosity does not change c The viscosity decreases 169 What is a critical disadvantage of type synthetic oils? a Type oils of different manufacturers can only be mixed if they are of the same MIL specification b Type synthetic oils cannot be used in a very hot climate c Synthetic oils are more expensive than mineral oils d Synthetic oils have a low thermal stability 79.2 170 What is normal released through the cavity drain when the engine is operating? a Air b Oil c Nothing 171 Why is a vent system required for the lubrication system? a The vent system delivers fresh air for the ventilation of the bearing compartments b The vent system prevents an overpressure condition in the bearing compartments c The vent system makes sure that the air entering the bearing compartments across the seals can leave 172 What is the purpose of a carbon or labyrinth type seal in a bearing compartment? a It seals the gap between the oil nozzle and the bearing b It seals the gap between the engine shaft and the bearing compartment wall c It seals the gap between the bearning compartment wall and the bearing support d It seals the gap between the vent air line and the bearing compartment wall 173 Which parameters of the lubrication system are indicated in the cockpit? a Oil pressure and oil temperature only b Oil quantity, oil pressure, oil temperature, oil filter clogging and low oil pressure warning c Oil quantity, oil pressure and oil temperature d Oil quantity and oil pressure only 79.3 174 Oil presure… a … increases when oil temperature increases and decreases when oi; temparature decreases b … Increases when oil temperature decreases and decreases when oil temperature increases 175 Changes in total flow area dowstream of supply pump Oil pressure… a … increases when the total flow area downstream of the supply pump increases b … increases when the total flow area downstream of the supply pump decreases 176 In a constant pressure system during normal operation… a … Oil pressure varies with changes in temperature and changes in N2 rotor speed b … oil pressure varies with changes in temperature but not with changes in N2 rotor speed c … oip pressure varies with changes in N2 rotor speed but not with changes in temperature d … oil pressure is not influenced by changes in temperature and changes in N2 rotor speed 177 How does the pressure regulating valve keep the pressure constant? a By changing the temperature downstream of the supply pump b By changing the flow area downstream of the supply pump c By changing the flow area upstream of the supply pumps 178 Which component is installed in a constant pressure system that a full flow system doesn’t have? a A supply filter b A pressure regulating valve c A gear type supply pump 179 What you think is the main advantage of a full flow system? a All full flow systems have low oil pressures b In a full flow system only small supply pumps are necessary c It is a very simple system 180 What could be a reason for a decrease in oil pressure in a full flow system? a An increase in N2 speed b An increase in oil temperature c An decrease in oil temperature d A blocked oil nozzle 79.4 181 What is the purpose of the anti-siphon device in the lubrication system? a It makes sure that oil can not flow to the lowest point in the system when the engine is at a stop b It makes sure that all the oil from the tank is equally distributed to the lubrication points of the engine c It makes sure that the vent air in the oil tank can not reach the supply pump d It makes sure that the air is separated from the scavenge oil when it enters the oil tank 182 What is the purpose of the silicone layer on the oil tank? a It serves as a corrosion protection b It protects the oil tank against damage during maintenance c It protects the fan case against overheat because of the hot oil in the tank d It serves as a fire protection for the tank 183 Where you normally find air-cooled oil coolers? a Every gas turbine engine has at least air-cooled oil cooler for safety purposes b On turboprop engines only c On small gas turbine engines d It depends on the engine manufacturer; some use air cooled and others use fuel-cooled oil coolers 184 What is the difference between wire mesh filter elements and paper filter elements? a Wire mesh filter elements can only be used in scavenge filters b Wire mesh filter elements can be cleaned, but you must dispose of paper filter elements c Paper filter elements can be cleaned, but you must dispose of wire mesh filter elements d Paper elements are only used as alternates and must be replaced with wire mesh elements as soon as possible 79.5 185 Which parameters of the engine oil system are usually indicated in the cockpit? a The oil temperature and the oil pressure b The oil temperature, the oil pressure, the magnetic chip detector contamination and the oil quantity c The oil quantity, the oil pressure and the magnetic chip detector contamination d The oil quantity, the oil pressure and the oil temperature 186 What can be found by a SOAP analysis? a Magnetic particles in the oil system b Microscopic small particles which can not be caught in the scavenge filter c All contamination of the oil system d Soap in the oil system 187 During maintenance you find particles in the oil filter element but the chip detector is clean What is the reason for this condition? a This is a very abnormal condition The chip detector is probably faulty or must be replaced b The chip detector was probably installed incorrectly Check the magnet and replace the chip detector c The particles in the filter element are not magnetic d This is normal, because the filter is upstream of the chip detector, so it will cathc the particles first 188 For which indication is this transmitter used in the engine lubrication system? a Low oil pressure warning b Oil pressure indication c Oil temperature indication d Oil quantity indication 79.6 189 Why you have wait? a Because the oil is too hot b Because the vent pressure in still present c Because the oil level in the tank is too high 190 Why should openen oil cans never be used? a The oil in an opened can be oxidized and if poor quality b The quatity of inl in an opened can may be smaller than indicated on the label c The oil in an opened can be contaminated by dirt or other fluid 191 You have to label the sampling bottle if you take an oil sample for a SOAP inspection because… a … you must have a record of your maintenance activity on the respective aircraft b … the SOAP samples of the engins might be intermixed if they are not labeled c … because the SOAP bottles must be reused for the same engine when they return from the laboratory 192 During oil servicing how you usually check that the oil tank is full? a You read the ECAM indication and compare it with the maximum given in the maintenance manual b You refill the tank until oil comes out of the overflow port c You look into the filter port and refill until the oil level reaches the upper lip d You look at the sight gage and refill until the oil level reaches the full mark 193 Why is it not a good maintenance practice to inspect all chip detectors of all engines at the same maintenance check? a Because this inspection takes a very long time and the aircraft is kept on ground too long b Because working errors could lead to oil loss on all engines at the next flight c Because you can intermix the chip detectors (which is very dangerous for the engine) d It is a good practice to inspect all chip detectors at the same time so that they can be compared