CÂU HỎI TRẮC NGHIỆM CHUYÊN MÔN CHO SỸ QUAN QUẢN LÝ 7

F3 – CONTROLLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP AND CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD When making Buoyancy Test for life jackets, the buoyancy should be measured initially and after 24 hours of submersion to just below the water surface In Life Jacket Buoyancy Test, the difference between the initial and final buoyancy should not exceed how many percent of the initial buoyancy? A 25% B 15% C 10% D 5% The lateral field of vision of a person wearing an immersion suit when seated in fixed position would be _ A 270° B 135° C 120° D 90° The weight of a fully packed inflatable life raft container should not exceed _ A 185 lbs B 210 lbs C 150 lbs D 175 lbs The minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a passenger ship of 1,000 GRT and upwards but under 4,000 GRT with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles, through any adjacent hydrants is _ A 0.25 N / mm B 0.27 N / mm C 0.31 N / mm D to the satisfaction of the administration The minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a cargo ship of 1,000 GRT and upwards but less than 6,000 GRT with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles, through any adjacent hydrant is A 0.27 N / mm B 0.23 N / mm C 0.25 N / mm D 0.31 N / mm How much weight should it be suspended from it and how long should it remain floating when testing lifebuoy to a Flotation Test? A 13.5 kgs of iron for a period of 24 hours B 13.5 kgs of iron for a period of 48 hours C 14.5 kgs of iron for a period of 48 hours D 14.5 kgs of iron for a period of 24 hours Under the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships, 1969, the term "new ship" means a ship the keel of which is laid _ A on or after the rules and regulations become effective B on or after the date of coming into force of the present convention C an existing ship which undergoes major conversions and repairs D a ship which undergoes conversion as to substantially alter the dimension or carrying Capacity When a ship has been surveyed and duly marked, there shall be issued to the owner, on his application and on payment of fees, a document which is called _ A Loadline Certificate B Manning Certificate C Exemption Certificate D Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate The International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships, 1969, shall Not apply to: A ship navigating in domestic trade B ship solely navigating in the Great Lakes of North America C ships navigating in ocean service D ships navigating solely in inland seas 10 In the loadline markings which of the following lines is at the same level as the Plimsoll line? A Summer water line B Fresh water line C Tropical water line D Deck edge water line 11 Oil Record Book shall be provided to oil tanker of or more A 500 GRT B 200 GRT C 150 GRT D 400 GRT 12 SOPEP shall be carried to every oil tanker of or more A 500 GRT B 200 GRT C 400 GRT D 150 GRT 13 The rating for damage to living resources of 1-10 mg/1 is A moderately toxic B moderately hazardous C moderately dangerous D moderately polluted 14 The rating for damage to living resources of 10-100 mg/1 is _ A slightly hazardous B slightly toxic C slightly dangerous D slightly polluted 15 No liability for pollution damage shall attach to the owner if he proves the damage is due to the following Except: A if the cause is accidental B the cause is resulted by other vessel due to collision or other incident C cause by human error D resulted from force majeure 16 States acting through the competent international organization shall establish international rules and standards for the purpose of the following Except: A control pollution of the marine environment B reduce pollution of the marine environment C elimination of pollution of the marine environment D prevent pollution of the marine environment 17 Which of the following is Not true under UNCLOS? A Freedom of the seas shall be enjoyed between Coastal states B Right for the registration of ships in its territory C State having no sea coast shall settle by mutual agreement all matters D Ships owned or operated by a government used for commercial purposes have completed immunity from the jurisdiction of any state other than the flagstate 18 The STCW Convention and Part A of the Code form a binding treaty between States, the interpretation of which is governed by the _ A Vienna Convention on the Laws of Treaties B IMO Safety Marine Committee C SOLAS 74 as amended D UNCLOS 19 Seagoing service under the STCW Convention means _ A service on boardship as contracted by the administrations of that party B service on boardship relevant to the issue of a certificate or other qualification C actual service on board entered in his seaman's book or other documents D service on boardship certified by the master or officer in charge 20 Under the STCW Convention, which regulation would apply to you if you pass this examination and you have served on board ships of 500 GRT or more A Regulation I / 14 B Regulation I / 12 C Regulation II / D Regulation I / 21 Emergency, safety, medical care and survival functions are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention? A Regulation VIII B Regulation V / C Regulation V / I D Regulation VI 22 Under the STCW Convention, which regulation deals with Tankers? A Regulation VI B Regulation VIII C Regulation V / II D Regulation V / I 23 The basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention are provided for in the: A Regulations B Article C Provisions D Exemptions 24 The ILO Convention for Medical Care and Sickness Benefits was adopted in _ A 1968 B 1969 C 1967 D 1970 25 A ship which is not a new ship as defined in the revised PMMRR is _ A self-propelled ship B non-convention ship C existing ship D commercial ship 26 Special purpose ship to which the revised PMMRR apply includes the following Except: A ship engaged in research expeditions and survey B ships for training of marine personnel C ships processing in other living resources at sea not engaged in catching D pleasure ship catering to special people of the government 27 Ships not classed as stipulated in the revised PMMR shall be drydocked every: A two years B one year C four years D three years 28 Renewal survey as stipulated in the revised PMMRR is done at intervals specified by the Administration but not exceeding _ A two years B five years C two and one half years D four years 29 Electrical power as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be made available for three hours on the following Except: A emergency lightning at embarkation station B at the muster station C at the steering gear, if any D over the side of such stations 30 Electrical power as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be made available for 12 hours on the following Except: A stowage position of firemen's outfit B steering gear, if any C emergency fire pump and its control position D main deck 31 Each fire extinguisher as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall, as far as practicable, be clearly marked of the following Except: A name of manufacturer, year of the manufacture and date of expiry B type of fire which the extinguisher is suitable C approved details D intervals for recharging 32 The Professional Regulation Commission under the R.A 8981 is _ A an exercise of the powers and function of the commission B attached to the office of the President of the Philippines C implement program for full computerization D publishing list of successful examinees 33 The PRC is duty-bound "to provide schools, colleges and universities, public and private….with copies of sample test question on examinations recently conducted by the commission." Under what particular section of R.A 8981 is this provision prescribed? A P.D 857 B P.D 474 C Section 7, para (d) D Section 7, para (e) 34 The issuance of endorsement Certificate to the marine deck and marine engineer officers pursuant to the 1995 STCW convention is provided in what particular Section of R.A 8981? A Section 7, para (h) B Section 7, para (g) C Section 7, para (d) D Section 7, para (e) 35 The Professional Regulation Commission is empowered to "create or abolish position or change the designation of existing positions in accordance with a staffing pattern" prepared by the Commission This power of the Commission is specified under _ of R.A 8981 A Section 7, para (h) B Section 7, para (g) C Section 7, para (d) D Section 7, para (e) 36 The manning requirement for tugboats, dredgers and anchor handling vessels engaged in coastwise voyage between 35 and 100 gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR comprise _ A deck personnel and engine personnel B deck personnel and engine personnel C deck personnel and engine personnel D deck personnel and engine personnel 37 Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of a cargo vessel engaged in coastwise voyage of 500 to 999 gross tonnage should at least be a licensed A Chief Mate B Master Mariner 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 C Second Mate D Third Mate / Major Patron Regulation XVII / of the PMMRR adopts the HSC code under IMO MSC Resolution No 36(63) dated May1994 This code applies to passenger high speed crafts which not proceed in the course of their voyage more than hours at operational speed from a place of refuge when fully loaded A Four B Six C Ten D Eight Which of the following type of vessels is exempted from the issuance of a CWL under Regulation XV/18 of the PMMRR? A Fishing boats B Anchor handling C Pleasure yachts D Tugs and dredgers How many persons consist of the Board for Marine Deck Officers under R.A 8544? A Chairman + members B Chairman + members C Chairman + members D Chairman + members The term for any PRC Commissioner under R.A 8544 is A four years B five years C six years D seven years Which created MARINA? A PD 474 B P.D 797 C P.D 857 D R.A 7621 When has MARINA officially started its operations? A June 1974 B August 1995 C February 1995 D November 1985 Which of the following administered all Philippine ports prior to 1997? A Philippine Ports Authority B MARINA C Bureau of Customs D Philippine Coat Guard The Philippine Ports authority was created through _ A P.D 474 B P.D 857 C R.A 8544 D M.C 40-2002 Vessels over 100 GRT engaged in domestic trade that berth or drop anchor at any government port shall be charged Domestic Dockage of A Php 0.60/GRT/Calendar day or fraction thereof B Php 30.50/GRT/Calendar day or fraction thereof C $ 0.81/GRT D $ 0.20/GRT What is the equivalent of one such standard unit for measuring a 20 foot container? A ½ TEU B TEU C TEU's D TEU's 48 Which of the following activities shall Not be carried out a security level 1? A Controlling access to the ship B Ensuring the performance of all ship security duties C Mustering of crew and passengers D Monitoring restricted areas to ensure that only authorized persons have access 49 An SSO is designated by the A Port facility Security Officer B Company Ship Officer C Recognized Security Organization D Company Operating the Ship 50 Directing and influencing subordinates concerns the management function of _ A leading B planning C coaching D production 51 Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of _ A responsibilities B duties C choices D objectives 52 The question of human relations considers _ A managers accompanying the employees B mangers summoning of the employees C managers interacting with employees D managers directing with employees 53 What is a necessary part of delegation of accountability and authority? A Goals B Achievements C Objectives D Responsibility 54 What is a role? A Expected a behavioral pattern B Desired attitude pattern C Behavior according to work relation D Expected duties and responsibilities 55 A significant development in the environment of a number of organization is A Infrastructure B Globalization C Developing D Production 56 Coordination is the process the objectives and activities of the separate units of an organization in order to achieve organizational goals efficiently A meeting B continuing C integrating D separating 57 One approach to achieving effective coordination is using basic management techniques Which of the following is an example of that approach? A Making a priority B Set an example C Time management D Using rules and procedures 58 What is the most effective management development technique? A Coaching B Talking with Subordinates 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 C Coordination D Communications Which lubrication would you use on the zipper of an immersion suit? A Lubricant B Paraffin C Candle Wax D Linseed Oil Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only? A In order to avoid blowback from the watertight door B So that both teams can enter the area at the same time C So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke directly at the other hose team D In order for fire not to affect the adjacent area In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to who are _ A thirsty B working with boats C everybody must not drink D sick or injured The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's _ A blue color and lack of breathing B unconscious and no pulse C constriction of the pupil D spontaneous gasp of breath When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the First collection should be A immediately collect the rainwater B poured overload because of salt washed off the canopy C poured the rainwater inside the liferaft D use rainwater only for washing Drinking salt water will A provide you comfort B prevent dehydration C promote urine excretion D quench your thirst If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is _ A stop the CPR and resume after several minutes B let the patient lie fall down and resume CPR C turn the patient body to sitting position sweep out the mouth and resume D turn the patients body to one side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed A at about 60° above the horizon B at about 45° above the horizon C at horizon level D 90° from the horizon Your course of action if you have to abandon ship and enter a liferaft should be: A immediately get underway to avoid suction B remain in the vicinity of the sinking ship C remain just a few meters from the vessel D get underway as far as you can After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should: A turn it off during daylight hours B turn it off every five minutes interval C leave it on continuously D turn it off for minutes every half hour 69 Which of these should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? A Fire it an angle of approximately 90° to the horizon B Wear asbestos gloves C All of the above D Never remove the line from the rocket 70 What should you with your EPIRB if you are in a liferaft during storm conditions? A Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on B Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes C Leave it outside the liferaft and leave D Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it off 71 The fuel aboard a survival craft at a speed of knots should last A 12 hours B 24 hours C 36 hours D 48 hours 72 To properly maintain fire hoses, you should A immediately stowed it in the box B wash it with freshwater and secured it on the hose rack C thoroughly drain them after each use D secured the hose for the next use 73 On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than _ A 10% B 15% C 20% D 25% 74 Which of the following events shall be conducted during fire and boat drill? A All watertight doors in use while the vessel is underway shall be opened B All fire hoses should be inspected for leakage C All alarm system must be operated to ensure the system in working condition D Check all portable fire extinguishers 75 If a crew member faints, you should _ A immediately execute Heimlich Maneuver B lay him down with his head lower down his feet C let the patient rest in unconscious position D check for pulse and breathing 76 Which of the following should Not be done for a person who has fainted? A Administer fluids B Keep the patient warm but not too hot C Lay the person with his head higher than his feet D Lay him down with his head lower down his feet 77 After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the movements is stopped by the _ A davit switch B luffung switch C alarm switch D limit switch 78 What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person? A Ammonia B Oral rehydration C Sodium Chloride solution D Dextran 79 Is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person A Water B Ammonia 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 C Tiger balm D Dextran What is the function of a davit limit switch? A To secure the boat when it reaches the limit B To bring down the boat on accommodation deck C Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final position D Under no circumstances it will break the power An unconscious person should Not be _ A examine for breathing and heart action B start heart compression at once C lay casually on hard surface D given something to drink Which of the following signals is used for boat stations or boat drill? A Six or more short blasts followed by one long blast B Continuous reading of alarm bell C Four short blast followed by one long blast D Rapid ringing of the alarm bell You hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle while at your lifeboat station This indicates A come ahead dead slow B commence lowering boats C finish with boat station D back off with power To launch a liferaft by hand, you should _ A be fitted with automated release system B use a painter line before throwing the liferaft C throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord D be cover with highly visible color before turning away in the water When a person is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by: A giving a surgical treatment B putting him on bed and take temperature, pulse rate and respiration rate hourly C giving the patient food or liquid D keeping an ice bag over the location of the appendix When launching an inflatable liferaft, make sure that the operating cord is: A fastened to some substantial part of the vessel B throw the line to the water and let it inflate by itself C should be fastened to the lifeboat D should be fastened to another liferaft You hear a hissing sound coming from an inflated liferaft What would you do? A Plug the safety value B Don't be alarmed as it will soon stop unless it goes on for a long period of time C Unscrew the deflation plug D Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch After launching the motor lifeboat when abandoning ship you should A immediately steer away from the sinking ship B stand by on the side of the vessel C stay in the immediate area D wait for the survivors Where would you find the No.1 lifeboat on a tanker? A Muster station B Forward portside C Aft station D Forward starboard side 90 A continuous blast of ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to your A fire station B man overboard signal C abandonship signal D general alarm signal 91 If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to your A main station B fire station C lifeboat station D weather station 92 When the alarm bell of a breathing apparatus sounds, this indicates A no more supply of air is available B immediately back out the fire scene C warning for wearer D a remaining supply of air for four-five minutes 93 Which of the following statements is/are True about a carbon dioxide? A Use on machinery spaces B Can be use on Electrical fires C Carbon dioxide can absorb heat D All of these 94 A "15 pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because A it is located at the galley room B there are 15 pounds of CO2 in the container C use for Class B fire D there are 15 pounds charged CO2 95 A portable foam fire extinguisher is placed in operation by _ A pointing the nozzle directly to the fire B pressing down the lever C turning it upside down D activating the pin 96 If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should _ A use pressure bandage to hold tourniquet B fingers and toes beyond the break should be massage at intervals to assure adequate circulation C prevent further movement of the bone D if a patient is on severe pain, morphine sulfate 100 mg may be given by intravenous Injection 97 Which of the following is Not a treatment for traumatic shock? A Keep the patient warm but not hot B Administer fluids C Have the injured person lie down D Massage the arm and legs to restore circulation 98 Which of the following conditions is Not a symptom of traumatic shock? A Slow deep breathing B Skin is pale, cold and often moist C Weak and rapid pulse D Rapid and shallow respiration 99 After an injury, which of the following can be determined by examining the condition of a victim's pupils? A Spontaneous circulation and ventilation have been restored B Whether or not the brain is functioning properly 10 259 Safety is dependent on orderliness Order may be maintained by A set aside all items in one store room B just leave the items on deck C storing all items in an assigned place D securing in a certain place 260 Each liferaft on a unit which is launched from a position more than 10 feet above the water must be A launched manually B throw in the water and pull the lanyard C use two lines for launching D launched by a davit mechanism 261 At what speed of a survival craft does the fuel aboard it would last for 24 hours? A knots B knots C knots D knots 262 A right handed propeller will cause the survival craft to A walk the stern to port in reverse B walk the stern to starboard in reverse C move the survival craft ahead to starboard D will move in straight course 263 A fire and boat drill on a tanker shall, by regulation, include _ A mustering the crew B launching the boat C all of these D operate ventilation 264 How much water per day is each person permitted after the first 24 hours after abandoning ship? A pints B liter C pint D liters 265 Seawater may be used for drinking water A will quench your thirst B under no circumstances C will affect your urine D heal your wounds 266 A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time Which of the following conditions does this indicate? A The tank is safe to enter B The tank is especially dangerous to enter C Ventilate the tank before entering D Toxic gases might accumulate 267 When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, you should A stand at right angle before taking samples B go down inside the tank to get better sample C take samples just below the opening D sample as much tank of the tank as possible especially at the bottom 268 When whistle signals are used as commands for launching the lifeboats, one short blast means _ A secured the boat B stop lowering C dismissal from boat station D lower all boats 28 269 The time limit a person can remain in an atmosphere of less than 15% oxygen while using a fresh air breathing apparatus is _ A indefinitely B under no circumstances C 30 minutes D 20 minutes 270 The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the A easier to extinguish B harder it is to extinguish C will run out of foam supply D use alternate extinguisher 271 If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of A second burn B heart beat C irregular breathing D pulse 272 The greatest danger in cold temperature when at sea in an inflatable liferaft is _ A colds B sea sickness C frost bite D hypothermia 273 Which of the following tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion? A A partially filled tank of diesel oil B An empty tank C A fully loaded tank of diesel oil D A fully loaded tank of gasoline 274 Where would you find the No.2 lifeboat on a tanker? A Forward starboard side B Forward portside C Aft starboard side D Aft port side 275 When the alarm bell on a breathing apparatus sounds, how much air supply remains? A 3-4 minutes supply of air B 5-6 minutes supply of air C 4-5 minutes supply of air D 6-7 minutes supply of air 276 If your vessel is to carry 10 portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least A double the number of foam extinguisher B 10% of the number of foam extinguisher C spare charges D spare charges 277 The most critical part of the bunkering operations which can result in oil spill is: A when taking samples B when the manifold is not properly connected C when the cargo pump is running D when the tanks are being topped off 278 When is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher required to be recharged? A After date of expiration B When the tank is empty C When there is a 25% less of weight D When there is a 10% loss of weight 29 279 The lowest temperature required to cause sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called A Ignition temperature B Auto-Ignition temperature C Fire temperature D Flash temperature 280 What is the expected time of survival for a person immersed in water of degrees Centigrade? A Less than 45 minutes B Less than 30 minutes C hour D Less than 20 minutes 281 If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will A reserve buoyancy will increase B will decrease metacentric height C decrease list or trim D increase list or trim 282 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen? A Methane gas B Non-flammable gas C Carbon monoxide D Carbon dioxide 283 Any tank is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of: A inert gas B flammable or toxic gases C combustible gas D oxygen 284 The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the A upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration B lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration C flammable or toxic gases D inert gas 285 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should _ A wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel B not approach the lifeboat C approach on the windward side D approach on the leeward side 286 Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of A explosimeter B combustible gas indicator C CO2 indicator D oxygen analyzer 287 Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only? A Red parachute flare B White star signal C Orange smoke signal D Red star signal 288 A combustible gas indicator is used to determine A to detect amount of oxygen B to detect combustible gases C the upper limit of vapors D the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air 30 289 The purpose of an explosimeter is A to detect combustible gases B to detect toxic gases C presence of flammable vapors D to check the lower limit of vapors 290 Which lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? A Orange smoke signal B Flare signal C A red parachute flare D Dye marker 291 Which of the following should Not be done to a person who has fainted? A Administer fluids B Elevate head C Apply inhalants D Lie the victim in unconscious positions 292 The heat generated by a fire will be transferred to a bulkhead or deck through: A convection B radiation C all of these D conduction 293 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be _ A should be recorded in liters B specified in parts per million C consistently recorded in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) D all of these 294 An oxygen indicator will detect A the amount of oxygen in space B the amount of inert gas system C the lower limit of oxygen D the upper limit of oxygen 295 Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? A Person who fainted B Fracture injury C Traumatic shock D Severe shock 296 When a patient has a high fever one of the safest and simplest ways to reduce his body temperature is by A cover with blankets B a tepid sponge bath C administer hot fluids D give antibiotics 297 The normal adult pulse rate is variable but generally falls in the range of _ A 60-80 per minute B 50-60 per minute C 40-60 per minute D 50-70 per minute 298 What should you include in the body of a radio message seeking advice for a medical emergency at sea? A Condition of the patient B Symptoms of illness C Age and sex of patient D All of these 31 299 When seeking radio advice about an injury, your message should include A time of accident B location of the victims of accident C when and how the injury occurred and what part of the body was injured, and if bleeding is prevented D all of these 300 When making a Buoyancy Test for life jackets, the buoyancy should be measured initially and after 24 hours of submersion to just below the water surface In life jacket Buoyancy Test, the difference between the initial and final buoyancy should not exceed how many percent of the initial buoyancy A 4% B 5% C 8% D 10% 301 In a Flotation Test, the person wearing the Immersion Test should be able to float face up with his mouth clear of the water by at least A 100 mm B 110 mm C 120 mm D 130 mm 302 What is the minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a passenger ship of 4,000 GRT and upwards with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles, through any adjacent hydrants? A 0.23 N / mm B 0.25 N / mm C 0.27 N / mm D 0.31 N / mm 303 The capacity required of portable fluid extinguishers shall not be more than A 13.5 liters B 13.0 liters C 15 liters D 12.5 liters 304 The capacity required of portable fluid extinguishers shall not be less than A liters B liters C 12 liters D 10 liters 305 Lifebuoys have a mass of not less than _ A 2.0 kgs B 2.5 kgs C 3.0 kgs D 3.5 kgs 306 Administration under Article of the Loadline Convention is defined as _ A The government of the state whose flag the ship is flying B The competency of the party whose flag the ship is flying C The flag of convenience whose flag the ship is flying D The government of the port state whose flag the ship is flying 307 In what loading zone is Davao Gulf? A Tropical Fresh B Fresh Water C Summer D Tropical 32 308 The periodical inspection in connection with the Ship's Loadline Certificate held: A Within months of the anniversary date of the periodical survey B Within months of the anniversary date of the immediate survey C Within months of the anniversary date of the completion of the annual survey D Within months of the anniversary date of the completion of the initial survey 309 The term "existing ship" under the International convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships means A ships navigating in inland waters B ships running in domestic trade C a ship which is not a new ship D a new ship 310 Which of the following loadline marking has a vessel the least submersion? A Winter water line B Summer water line C Tropical water line D Winter North Atlantic water line 311 The certificate that covers the protection of machinery casings is the _ A Loadline Certificate B Ships Construction Certificate C Ship Safety Certificate D Certificate of Inspection 312 "New tanker" means a tanker with a building contract after A June 1, 1979 B January 1, 1980 C June 1, 1982 D January 1, 1979 313 "New tanker" means a tanker which construction work started after: A January 1, 1979 B January 1, 1980 C June 1, 1982 D June 1, 1980 314 "New tanker" means a tanker constructed and completed after: A January 1, 1979 B January 1, 1982 C June 1, 1982 D June 1, 1980 315 "New tanker" means a tanker whose keel is laid after _ A January 1, 1979 B January 1, 1980 C June 1, 1982 D January 1, 1980 316 New oil tankers of 70, 000 tons deadweight and above satisfying the requirements for SBT may be designated as: A crude oil B crude oil / product carrier C product carrier D chemical carrier 317 Existing oil tankers satisfying the requirements for CBT should be designated as A crude oil B product carrier C chemical carrier D crude oil / product carrier 33 318 After survey, IOPP shall be issued in accordance with Reg of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 to any tanker of _ or more A 400 GRT B 500 GRT C 150 GRT D 250 GRT 319 Oil Record Book shall be provided to any ship other than Oil Tanker of or more A 400 GRT B 150 GRT C 500 GRT D 250 GRT 320 Pipelines should be standard to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges Its outside diameter should be _ A 132 mm B 185 mm C 183 mm D 215 mm 321 The rating for damage to living resources of less than mg/1 is A highly hazardous B moderately hazardous C slightly toxic D highly toxic 322 The rating to hazard to human health by oral intake of less than mg/kg is A highly toxic B highly flammable C highly hazardous D highly volatile 323 Is any reasonable means taken by any person after an incident has occurred to prevent or minimize pollution damage A corrective action B corrective measure C preventive measure D preventive action 324 The International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage apply exclusively to the following except: A pollution damage in the high seas and territorial waters of any contracting state B pollution damage cause in the territory of contracting state C pollution damage cause in the exclusive economic zone of a contracting state D pollution damage cause in an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea of a state determined by the state in accordance with international law 325 The owner of a ship registered in a contracting State shall maintain insurance or other financial security if she carries a cargo of oil in bulk more than _ A 2,000 tons B 1,800 tons C 2,500 tons D 1,000 tons 326 One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with dedicated ballast tank is: A sounding meter B an oil content meter C tank diagram D water pressure 327 Level "A" Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO) has: A the highest recovery capability B the lowest recovery capability 34 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 C no recovery capability D none of these Spills of persistent oils with greater than 1.0 specific gravity A not readily evaporate and are difficult to recover B vapors evaporate and easy to recover C rapidly evaporate and difficult to recover D not readily evaporate and are moderately difficult to recover A Tonnage Certificate is issued to a vessel when it meets serving requirements, one of which the vessel must: A be issued a certificate of inspection B 79 feet or more in length C engage in international trade D admeasure over 100 GRT The official identification of a vessel is found in the A Loadline Certificate B Ship Construction Certificate C Certificate of Documentation D Exemption Certificate Double bottom is fitted on cargo ships other than tankers as far as practicable and compatible with the design and proper working of the ship _ A from the bulbous bow to the rudder post B from the forward collision bulkhead to the aft deadwood C from forward bulkhead to aft bulkhead D from the collision bulkhead to the after peak bulkhead The STCW Convention may be denounced by any Party anytime after how many years from the date on which the Convention entered into force for that Party? A B C D Training and Assessment are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention? A Regulation I / B Regulation I / C Regulation I / D Regulation I / The use of simulators are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention? A Regulation I / 10 B Regulation I / 14 C Regulation I / 12 D Regulation I / 16 The responsibilities of companies are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention? A Regulation I / 14 B Regulation I / 12 C Regulation I / 10 D Regulation I / 16 Under the STCW Code, Table A contains the specifications of minimum standard of: A use of simulators B training and assessment C pass the licensure examination D competence Which regulation deals with roro passenger ships under the STCW Convention? A Regulation VI / B Regulation V C Regulation V / D Regulation V / 35 338 What does the Arabic number stand for when reference is made to Reg I / 6? A Article B Regulation C Chapter D Resolution 339 What does quarantine officer issue to a ship when it finds a specific deficiency on the ship? A Provisional free pratique B Clearance free pratique C Certificate of free pratique D Control free pratique 340 Where was the International Health Regulations 1969 adopted? A Geneva B London C Hamburg D Warsaw 341 A ship which has no superstructure on the freeboard deck as defined in the revised PMMRR is _ A bulkhead deck B flush deck ship C cargo space D freeboard deck 342 The distance measured vertically downwards amidships from the upper edge of the deck line to the upper edge of the related loadline as defined in the revised PMMRR is: A loadline B deckline C freeboard assigned D freeboard deck 343 The uppermost complete deck exposed to weather and sea which has permanent means of closing all openings in the weather part thereof as defined in the revised PMMRR is _ A reserve buoyancy B deckline C freeboard assigned D freeboard deck 344 The moulded depth amidships, plus the thickness of the freeboard deck stringer plate as defined in the revised PMMRR is A depth of freeboard B freeboard deck C freeboard assigned D freeboard distance 345 As per revised PMMRR, inspection of hull, boilers, machinery, firefighting/life saving appliances, pilot ladders, navigation lights and details specified in the certificate shall be made _ A every years B annually C months D every years 346 Passenger ships not classed as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be drydocked every A years B months C year D years 36 347 As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, ships shall be provided with at least two independent means for communicating orders between navigating bridge and the machinery space or control room, one of which shall be A steering gear B engine telephone alarm C telemotor D engine telegraph 348 All required portable fire extinguishers as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall weigh not exceeding A 12 kgs B 23 kgs C 21 kgs D 13.5 kgs 349 A fireman's outfit as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall consist of the following personnel equipment Except: A an electric lamp with a minimum burning period of hour B a rigid helmet providing effective protection against impact C a breathing apparatus of an approved type D an axe to the satisfaction of the administration 350 Class A ships as stipulated in the revised PMMRR are A yachts B cargo ships C tanker ships D passenger ships 351 Every ship documented in the Philippines as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be assigned a/an A year built B classification society C official number D hull material 352 The number of qualified, competent and certificated officers and ratings on board a ship who can safely operate her at all times as stipulated in the revised PMMRR is contained in the _ A crew list B passenger ship certificate C safe manning D exemption certificate 353 Ships engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000 passengers and having 12 hours or less voyage duration shall carry _ A one registered nurse or midwife B one medical practitioner C one registered nurse D one medical practitioner and one registered nurse 354 When did the R.A 8544 took effect? A 1991 B 1998 C 1996 D 1999 355 Republic Act No 8981 is also known as _ A Philippine Merchant Marine Act B Maritime Manning Agencies of Act 1995 C The PRC Modernization Act of 2003 D Philippine Ports Authority Act 1997 37 356 The statement wherein the state (the Philippines) recognizes the important role of Professionals in nation building is embodied in _ A Art II, Section of R.A 8544 B Section 7, para (h) C Section 7, para (h) D Section Republic Act 8981 357 A statement of policy when the Philippines desires to "promote the sustained development of a reservoir of professionals whose competence has been determined by honest and credible licensure examinations is enshrined in _ A Art II, Section of R.A 8544 B M.C 40-2002 C Section 2, R.A No 8981 D Regulation VI / 358 What is the term of the chairperson of the Professional Regulation Commission under the R.A 8981? A years B years C years D years 359 R.A 8981 provides that "the Commission shall establish and maintain a high standard of admission to the practice of all professions and at all times ensure and safeguard the integrity of all licensure examination." This is _ A a three-man commission B an exercise of the powers and functions of the commission C issuance of endorsement certificate D specification of subjects for licensure examination 360 The responsibility of publishing the list of successful examinees is prescribed under _ of R.A 8981 A Section 7, paragraph (h) B Section 7, paragraph (g) C Section 7, paragraph (e) D Section 7, paragraph (d) 361 The PRC is duty-bound "to provide schools, colleges and universities with copies of the syllabi or terms of specifications of subjects for licensure examinations." Under what particular section of R.A 8981 is this prescribed? A Section 7, paragraph (a) B Section 7, paragraph (b) C Section 7, paragraph (d) D Section 7, paragraph (e) 362 Once a certification of registration or certificate of competency is issued to the marine deck and engine officers, these "certificates cannot be withdrawn, cancelled, revoked or suspended except for just cause." This particular provision of law is specified under _ of R.A 8981 A Section 7, paragraph (e) B Section 7, paragraph (a) C Section 7, paragraph (c) D Section 7, paragraph (d) 363 To implement the program for full computerization of the operation of the Commission, PRC is authorized to use its income, in addition to its annual budget, an amount not exceeding: A 45 million pesos a year for a period 0f 10 years B 45 million pesos a year for a period of years C 45 million pesos a year for a period of years D 45 million pesos a year for a period of years 38 364 Under transitory provision of R.A 8981 the former Executive Director of PRC shall serve as: A examiner B board member C chairman of marine deck officer D assistant commissioner 365 The minimum safe manning of ships for which Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR apply, takes cognizance of which of the following? I Size of ships: tonnage and type II Care of passenger's safety III Radio and health personnel regulations A I and II only B I and III only C I, II, and III D II and III only 366 The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVIII of PMMRR is assessed on a case to case basis I upon request of the company II upon request of the master of the vessel subject to the approval of the company A I only B II only C Both I and II D Neither I nor II 367 Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of fishing vessels engaged in coastwise voyage 150 to 250 gross tonnage should at least be a licensed _ A Major Patron B Minor Patron C Second Mate D Second Mate or Major Patron 368 Regulation XVII / of the PMMRR adopts the HSC code under IMO MSC Resolution No 36(63) dated 20 May 1994 This code applies to passenger high speed crafts which not proceed in the course of its voyage more than hours at operational speed from a place of refuge when fully loaded A B C D 369 Category A high speed craft as defined by Regulation XVII / of the PMMRR are passenger crafts carrying not more than passengers A 400 B 500 C 480 D 450 370 What certificate is required before a ship can be issued a CWL? A Safe Manning Certificate B International Tonnage Certificate C Certificate of Inspection D Exemption Certificate 371 A ship Safety Certificate is issued by MARINA valid for a period not exceeding: A years B years C years D years 39 372 If a Ship Safety Certificate expires at sea, MARINA may extend it until the port where it is to be surveyed but in no case shall it be more than _ A month B months C months D months 373 Which transferred the safety function of the Philippines Coast Guard to MARINA? A P.D 474 B E.O 125/125-A C R.A 8544 D M.C 1-42 374 Which issue authority for motorizes boats with outriggers to carry passengers? A Philippine Coast Guard B Philippine Ports Authority C MARINA D Port District 375 MARINA's jurisdiction covers the various sectors of the country's maritime industry except: A Monitoring Training Programs B Accreditation of Overseas shipping companies C Engaged in the business of carrying passengers in the inter-island trade D Maritime Manning Agencies 376 MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following offices except: A Board of Marine Inquiry B Application for Bareboat chartering C Enforcement of International Convention of STCW D Minimum Service Standard for Philippine Registered Inter-island for passenger vessel 377 When was the Philippine Ports Authority created? A 1990 B 1977 C 1978 D 1980 378 Cebu Port Authority was created through A R.A 8544 B P.D 857 C R.A 7621 D M.C 40-2002 379 Which field office deliver frontline services and organized into semi-autonomous units? A MARINA B Board of Marine Inquiry C Classification Society D Port District Office 380 Vessels engaged in foreign trade that the berth at any government port of call shall be charged Dockage At Berth per GRT per calendar day or fraction thereof, provided that, for the purpose of computation, a maximum of 50,000 GRT at US$: A $ 0.25/GRT B $ 0.20/GRT C $ 0.30/GRT D $ 0.35/GRT 381 The measurement of a standard shipping container that are specified by the International Standards Organization? A 20 ft x 8.5 ft B 20 ft x 8.0 ft C 20 ft x 9.0 ft D 20 ft x 9.5 ft 40 382 A Security Level at which further specific protective security measures shall be maintained for a limited period of time when a security incident is probable or imminent, although it may not be possible to identify the specific target is _ A Security Level B Security Level C Security Level D Security Level 383 A CSO is designated by the _ A Company Operating the ship B ISPS Code C ISM Code D Ship Security Officer 384 The function which is most important in the accomplishment of objective is _ A making a right choice B selecting goals C coordinating D production 385 What are the three basic kinds of skills that all managers display? A Technical, human, conceptual B Responsibility, strategy, production C Technical, survival, human D Conceptual, strategy, human 386 Overcoming resistance to planned change may best be accomplished by: A identify the symptoms B involving the crew in planning process C managers interacting with employees D taking them seriously 387 One of the most important things to look for in a job when seeking employment is _ A a good boss B human resource management C expected behavioral pattern D the top management level 388 The criteria involved with the principle of respect for persons includes: A integrating B survival C self-esteem D taking them seriously 389 The word "organization" has two meaning; the first implies a/an , the second refers to A continuous; a process B coaching; a process C coordination; a process D institution; a process 390 To safeguard personnel working on or near a hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be observed? A Do not use counterbalance if weights are not movable B Lifting appliances should be use in a manner likely to subject them to excessive overturning moments C Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded D Lifting gears should not be supported by outriggers 391 To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should first: A start the suction valves and open the sea chest B start the cargo pump and close the sea chest C start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves D stop the cargo pump, then close sea suction valves 41 392 Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should Not follow which of these practices? A Throwing materials from high places to the deck B Access hatch lids should be capable of being easily and safely opened from above and if practicable from below C Safety signs which includes hazard warning should be used D Guard rails or fencing should consist of an upper and intermediate rails 393 When is the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? A Only when there is chance of them being seen by rescue vessels B During daytime only C During night time only D Anytime 394 To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must _ A pull the hydrostatic release B pull the release lanyard C connect heaving line to a lanyard D release the strap 395 In a station bill, what information must be entered in a station bill? A Position and Category of each person B Duties and station of each person during emergencies C Plans of each deck of accommodation D Engine room plans 396 Lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts immediately after abandoning the ship to look for A any floating lifejackets B life saving appliances C debris floating D survivors in the water 397 When entering a compartment which is on fire _ A the flames should be beaten back with a straight stream B the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog C the flames should be beaten inside the compartment D the flame should be beaten back outside the door 398 Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include _ A one-fourth the daily ration twice during the day B one-fourth the daily ration once during the day C one-half the daily ration twice during the day D one-half the daily ration once during the day 399 Water consumed within the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel _ A will pass thru the body and absorbed by one system B will pass thru the body with very little being absorbed by the system C will be absorbed by our system immediately thence passing the urine D will not be absorbed by our system instead it will be directly urinated 400 Certificate of Financial Responsibility attest that the vessel A has the minimum required amount of P & I B has financial reserves to meet expected crew costs of an intended voyage C will assume the responsibility for any damage or lose to the shipper D has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oilS 42 [...]... Position of ship III Approximate quantity and type of oil IV Circumstances of discharge and general marks A II and III B I and II C III and IV D All of these Ensures that the provisions regarding steps to control oil discharge are complied with: A Protocol of Marpol 73 B Reg 23 Annex I of Marpol 73 /78 C Reg 26 Annex I of Marpol 73 /78 D Reg 22 (2) Annex V of Marpol 73 /78 18 173 Under OPA 90, how many barrels... 17 164 165 166 1 67 168 169 170 171 172 C 20 m D 79 m Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a (an) _ with deadweight of 20,000 tons and above A existing product tanker B new crude oil tanker C new product carrier D existing crude oil tanker The basis of the requirement of _ , the recommendation on testing acid evaluation of life saving appliances have been developed A chapter V, Solas 1 974 ... Presidential Decree 97? A P.D 9 97 B P.D 474 C R.A 8544 D R.A 8981 236 The Philippine Merchant Marine Act of 1998 is also known as _ A R.A 8981 B P.D 474 C P.D 9 97 D R.A 8544 2 37 A declared policy of the state (the Philippines) to "promote and insure the safety of life and property at sea" is enshrined in A Art II, Section 2 of R.A 8544 B Section 2, R.A 8981 C Art II, Section 2 of R.A 76 21 D E.O 125... developed A chapter V, Solas 1 974 B chapter III, Solas 1 974 C chapter IV, Solas 1 974 D chapter VI, Solas 1 974 The 1983 Solas amendments to the 1 974 Convention entered into force on A 1 July 1988 B 1 July 1989 C 1 July 1992 D 1 July 1986 You are the chief mate of a 30,000 DWT tank ship that is engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73 /79 8 Which of the following is true? A The Certificate... C the use of signals D prevention of collisions 176 As amended, Chapter I of the STCW 1 978 contains the A Regulations B General Provisions C Code D Recommendations 177 Under the STCW Convention, _ would apply to Masters and Chief Mates who have sailed on tankers of 500 GRT or more A Reg II/2, V/1 B Reg II/1, V/1 C Reg II/3, V/1 D Reg II/4, V/1 178 Under the STCW Convention deals with passenger... non-hazardous 125 The "Carriage of Dangerous Goods" is fully covered in A Chapter VI of Solas 1 974 B Chapter VII of Solas 1 974 C Chapter V of Solas 1 974 D Chapter IV of Solas 1 974 126 Is required for Immersion Suits and Thermal Protective Aids A Field of vision test B Ergonomic test C Donning Test D All of these 1 27 In carrying out a "Maneuverability Test" for life rafts, it should be demonstrated that with... 1 979 B January 1, 1980 C June 1, 1982 D January 1, 1 979 313 "New tanker" means a tanker which construction work started after: A January 1, 1 979 B January 1, 1980 C June 1, 1982 D June 1, 1980 314 "New tanker" means a tanker constructed and completed after: A January 1, 1 979 B January 1, 1982 C June 1, 1982 D June 1, 1980 315 "New tanker" means a tanker whose keel is laid after _ A January 1, 1 979 ... call II Area of operation nearest to where the company's principal office is located A I only B Either I or II C II only D Neither I nor II 243 When was the MARINA created? A July 1 974 B January 1 974 C June 1 974 D May 1 974 244 Under what PPA Memo circular falls the Performance of Harbor Pilots in rendering pilotage services to vessels? A M.C 10-2003 B M.C 20-2001 C M.C 30-2000 D M.C 40-2002 245 There... supply of air B 5-6 minutes supply of air C 4-5 minutes supply of air D 6 -7 minutes supply of air 276 If your vessel is to carry 10 portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least A double the number of foam extinguisher B 10% of the number of foam extinguisher C 4 spare charges D 5 spare charges 277 The most critical part of the bunkering operations which can result in... passenger ships other than ro-ro passenger ships A Reg V/4 B Reg V/2 C Reg V/3 D Reg V/5 179 Is the part of the 1 978 STCW Convention that has not been amended by the 1995 STCW Convention A Code B Resolution C The Articles D The Regulation 180 There are _ chapters that comprise the 1995 STCW Convention A 6 B 8 C 17 D 7 181 What does the Roman numeral stand for in reference to the regulation II/2? A Regulation