CÂU HỎI TRẮC NGHIỆM CHUYÊN MÔN CHO SỸ QUAN QUẢN LÝ 3

F3 – MANAGEMENT What does "A/P" in a fixture note mean? A Additional premium B as per C all prepared D after peak What stipulates whether the vessel will be consigned to owner's agents or charterer's agents for inward or outward business? A agent's consignment B appointment clause C charter's freight D consignment clause Is an expression used in connection with the discharge of a cargo or part of a cargo where the Master deems fit to discharge at the nearest convenient port if a vessel runs the risk of being frozen in A distress freight B distance freight C Master's option D Master's option What does "b.t." in a fixture note mean? A berth terms B bills terms C both times D ballast tank As amended by the Protocol of 1968 and 1979, which of the following is Not true under the Hague-Visby? A Neither the carrier nor the ship shall be responsible for loss or damage arising and resulting from the Act of God B The carrier or the ship shall be liable for loss or damage arising or resulting from unseaworthiness C Neither the carrier nor the ship shall be responsible for loss or damage arising or resulting from act of neglect, or default of crew D The shipper shall not be responsible for loss or damage sustained by the carrier or the ship arising or resulting from any cause without the act, fault or neglect of the shipper What does "C.C." in a fixture note mean? A charter clause B certified copy C Continuation clause D charter copy What does "c & f" in a fixture note mean? A credit and finance B center and forward C cost and freight D costing and finance What does "c/I" in a fixture note mean? A certificate of indemnity B certificate of insurance C capacity included D cost of insurance What does "C/N" in a fixture note mean? A Cover Note B Clear Notes C Currency Notes D Currency Notes 10 What does "C/O" in a fixture note mean? A care of B Chief officer C Certificate of origin D credited over 11 What does "c.i.f." in a fixture note mean? A cost including freight B costs, insurance, fixed C credited if forwarded D cost, insurance and freight 12 What does "c.i.f & e" in a fixture note mean? A cost including freight and effects B center including forward end C cost, insurance, freight and exchange D cost including fire emergency 13 What does "c.p.d." in a fixture note mean? A charter party dues B cost port-dated C cost past due D cost per diem 14 What does "C.G.A." in a fixture note mean? A Cargo's proportion of General Average B Coast Guard Auxiliary C Center of b.b Gravity Axis D Cost of General Average 15 What does "c & i" in a fixture note mean? A costs included B cost and insurance C cost and indemnity D center aside 16 What does "c.r." in a fixture note mean? A cost ratio B current rate C cargo rate D constructive rate 17 Under Annex to the Hamburg Rules, the bill of lading must include, inter alia, the following Except _ A Place of issuance of the bill of lading B The number of original of bill of lading, if more than one C The freight to the extent payable by the consignee D Name, address and signature of the carrier or person acting on his behalf 18 What does "b.d.i." in a fixture note mean? A before discharging into B Bar draught C bulkhead deck included D Both dates inclusive 19 What does "B/P" in a fixture note mean? A Bills payable B bills paid C bills prepaid D British Petroleum 20 What does "c.t.l." in a fixture note mean? A cargo to load B cost total laytime C constructive total loss D cargo time lost 21 What does "D/d." in a fixture note mean? A Due date B Days after date C due diligence D delivery date 22 What does "d.w.c." in a fixture note mean? A daily weather count B discharging weather cancelled C deadweight capacity D discharging with consent 23 What does "f.a.a." in a fixture note mean? A free of all average B freight and average C free all alongside D for all amount 24 What does "D./P in a fixture note mean? A down payment B Documents against payment C Due payment D dispatch payment 25 What does "d.p." in a fixture note mean? A direct port B down payment C due payment D dispatch payment 26 What does "d.w." in a fixture note mean? A deadweight B dispatch wave C deadfreight waived D weather deck 27 What does "B/D" in a fixture note mean? A bar draught B before discharging C bill of demurrage D bulkhead deck 28 What does "B/R" in a fixture note mean? A bills received B bills receivable C bills returned D bills routed 29 What does "f.a.q." in a fixture note mean? A free of all questions B for all quotation C free alongside quay D fair average quality 30 What does "c.f." in a fixture note mean? A corrected for B correct freight C cost for D cubic feet 31 What does "f.c and s." in a fixture note mean? A for account of shipper B For charterer and shipper C Free of capture and seizure D for average ships 32 Under Annex to the Hamburg Rules, the bill of lading must include, inter alia, the following particulars Except _ A Address of the consignee B General nature of the goods C apparent condition of the goods D name & principal place of the business of the carrier 33 As amended in 1990, under the York-Antwerp Rules, which of the following is Not true? A No jettison of cargo shall be made good as general average unless cargo is carried in accordance with the recognized custom of trade B Damage done to a ship and/or cargo, by one in consequence made for the common safety by water down a ship's hatch for the purpose of making a jettison shall not be made good as general average C Loss or damage sustained by cutting away wreck or parts of the ship have been previously carried away or are effectively lost by accident shall not be made good as general average D Damage done to a ship and/or cargo by water or otherwise while extinguishing fire onboard the ship shall be made good as general average 34 What does "d.d.o." in a fixture note mean? A delivery date of B During discharge only D deliver documents over D Dispatch discharging only 35 What does "f.a.s." in a fixture note mean? A For all ships B Free alongside ship C for account of shipper D for average ships 36 What does "c.c" in a fixture note mean? A current cost B certified copy C correct copy D charter copy 37 What does "d.f." in a fixture note mean? A deadfreight B deadfreight free C delivered free D discharging for 38 When was the Model law on International Commercial Arbitration was adopted? A June 21, 1985 B June 21, 1984 C June 21, 1983 D June 21, 1982 39 Under the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law with respect to collision between vessels, which of the following is Not true? A If the collision is accidental, it is caused by force majcurre B If two or more are in fault, the liability of each vessel is in proportion to the degree of the faults respectively committed C If the collision is accidental, it is caused by human error D If the collision is caused by the fault of one vessel, liability lies one the vessel at fault 40 Under the Convention with Respect to Collision, how many interval of year(s) are there from the date of casualty before actions for recovery are barred? A Two B Three C One D Four 41 Is an expression frequently used when negotiating for the chartering of a ship, as regards rate of loading and discharge, loading and unloading expenses; appointment of charterer's or owner's agents at port of loading and discharge A charter agreement B both ends C contract of affreightment D engagement terms 42 Expresses remuneration for the brokers for their intermediary in negotiating and arranging the charter in a certain percentage of the freight A brokers fee B brokers charter C brokers commission D brokerage 43 When as the Annex I Convention on the High Seas was held? A April 29, 1958 B April 29, 1957 C April 29, 1956 D April 29, 1955 44 Where was the Annex I Convention on the High Seas held? A New York B London C Brussels D Geneva 45 Arbitration is international if: A One of the parties have designated and arbitrator other than his country of business B The parties to an arbitration agreement have at the time of the conclusion of that agreement C The parties have expressly agreed that the subject matter of the arbitration agreement relates to more than one country D One of the place of arbitration if determined in, or pursuant to, the arbitration agreement 46 The of the cargo can be changed while the vessel is en route to her destination by endorsement of the bill of lading A Consignee B Ownership C Freight D Destination 47 Except for ,when a vessel is delivered on time charter, a certificate of delivery is drawn up which contains the following A Quantity of bunkers onboard at the time of delivery B Quantity of water for boilers C Date and hour of delivery D Date and place of delivery 48 Is a charter party in which neither the nature of the cargo nor the port(s) of destination are specified A Charterers account B Owners account C Open charter D Owners & charterers account 49 What does "D/A" in a fixture note mean? A Vessel must discharge afloat B Average Delivery C District Attorney D De-activated 50 What does "D/C" in a fixture note mean? A Deviation Clause B Debit Credit C Demurrage Count D District of Columbia 51 As soon as the cargo is shipped, it is customary to insert a special clause in voyage charter parties relieving the charterers from further liability This clause is called A cesser clause B exception clause C relief clause D liability clause 52 In charter party covering fixture on an f.i.o basis implies that the loading and unloading expenses are for charterer's account, charterers appoint their agents to attend to ship's business They are called _ A charterer's agents B chartering agents C ship's agent D husbanding agents 53 With respect to collision, when was the Convention at Brussels done? A Sept 23, 1980 B Sept 23, 1910 C Sept 23, 1950 D Sept 23, 1972 54 Held at Geneva, when was the UN Convention on conditions for Registration of Ships, Annex V done? A April 7, 1986 B May 7, 1986 C Feb 7, 1986 D March 7, 1986 55 In order to take up the space required for their shipments, brokers who have been specially appointed by large importers or exporters are called A chartering agents B chartering brokers C ship's agents D charterer's agents 56 What acts as intermediaries between shipowners seeking employment for their vessels and charterers requiring the services of a ship? A Ship's agents B Chartering agents C Chartering brokers D Charterer's agents 57 If the charter party provides for shippers to arrange for delivery of the goods within reach of ship's tackle, this provision in the charter party is called A free alongside B free in port C alongside ready D wharfage ready 58 What expression is usually intended to convey that there are no unusual terms in the charter party? A exception-free charter B Direct charter C Clean charter D non-clause charter 59 What is a 7-day notice of the shipowner to the charterers of the expected date of readiness at the port of loading? A clear days B first notice C advance notice D second notice 60 Is a non-performance of an agreement that shall be proved damages not exceeding the estimated amount freight A Damage claim clause B Ready ship C Penalty clause D Freight claim clause 61 When a tramp vessel loads cargo to fill up remaining spaces because cargo offerings not come up to expectation and charge lesser freight, this is called A distress freight B reduced freight C convenience freight D deadfreight 62 Payable at destination upon delivery to consignees, freight on cargo shipped is called _ A receiver freight B advance freight C consignee freight D consigned freight 63 Shipowners undertake to carry goods by sea or to put a vessel at the disposal of charterer for the purpose against payment of a certain rate of freight mutually agreed in advance This is called _ A charter party B contact of shipment C affreightment D contract of carriage 64 During her stay at their port, the remuneration for the agents who have attended to the ships business is called _ A agency fee B agents fee C husbanding fee D agents attendance fee 65 Is a percentage of commission that is due to charterers on the amount of freight on signing Bills of Lading A charterers commission B Advance freight commission C freight commission D Address commission 66 Is an expression used for shipments under a charter party, the practical terms of which correspond with the regular terms for shipment of the commodity concerned by the regular lines operating in the particular trade A liner terms B regular terms C regular line terms D berth terms 67 On which the vessel must be ready to load at the latest, the date mutually agreed upon between shipowners and charterers is called A closing date B canceling date C opening date D loading date 68 When loaded in such a way that upon sailing she is down to her marks, a vessel is said to be _ A full and down B fully loaded C displacement D loaded to marks 69 Is the latest date for delivery of goods for shipment by the vessel in question A closing date B final acceptance C final acceptance date D cargo closing date 70 Is an expression relates to a full cargo, in accordance with the custom of the port, which will bring the vessel down to her permissible draught A deadweight B full and complete cargo C full capacity D loaded displacement 71 Which of the following relates to the rates applying to shipments by the regular lines engaged in the trade in question? A shipping rates B shipment rates C berth rates D cargo rates 72 In grain charter parties, freight may be payable per ton of 2240 lbs On Bill of Lading weight or net weight delivered as may be agreed between the contracting parties This is called: A draftage B net freight C dreading D freightage 73 Means that after delivery of the vessel in the first port of loading, charterers will pay all additional port changes, cost of loading and discharging in the first and any additional port of loading and in the port or ports of discharge A net charter B charterers all C charterers charges D charteres account 74 Is an expression which means that a vessel can be ready to load at short notice where a reasonable dispatch may be expected A prompt ship B ready ship C ship ready in all aspects D surveyed & passed ship 75 Is drawn up containing a summary of the principal conditions of a charter party as soon as the negotiations about the chartering of a vessel have resulted in the fixture of a ship A agreement B charter party C fixing letter D fixing conditionsV 76 Is an expression which means that dispatch money will not be paid in the event loading or discharging operations are completed within the time allowed under the charter party A free in and out B free dispatch C free in and out basis D free alongside 77 Is an expression which means that laydays will commence to count as soon as the vessel has arrived at the port of loading or discharge, whether a berth is available or not, provided, of course, the ship is ready to load or to discharge in every respect and written notice of readiness has been given by the master A an arrived ship B ready in all respect C free of turn D arrived ship and ready 78 Define the minimum responsibilities and liabilities as well as the maximum rights and immunities of ocean carriers A Hague rules B Visby rules C Hamburg rules D Hague-visby rules 79 As a rule, owners have pay the cost of loading and unloading the cargo, it being the duty of the charterer to deliver the cargo free alongside at the port of loading and for consignees to take a delivery from alongside at the port of destination, in each case free of charge to the vessel This is called _ A free alongside B free of charge C owner's choice D free in and out 80 This expression relates to the equipment of the vessel such as anchors, chains, and lifeboats A Gears B Apparel C Accessories D Ship's equipment 81 On her vessel under time charter, _ is not for the account of the shipowners A port chargers B wages C provisions D maintenance and repair 82 Under time charter, _ is not for the charterers account A fuel B wages C cleaning of holds D crew wages 83 A payment calculation resulting from the hire of a vessel on a voyage charter is shown below Compute the voyage charter payment at an assumed rate of US $5.00 per ton Assumed vessel size - 50,000 DWT Less: allowance for: Vessel stores and water - 500 tons Bunkers - 2000 tons Voyage charter payment equals: A $ 237,500.00 B $ 231, 5000 C $ 250, 000 D $ 235, 5000 84 According to the Marine Insurance Act, when the proposal of the assured is accepted by the insurer whether the policy is issued or not, a contract of marine insurance is considered concluded A optional cover B open cover C prepaid cover D cover agreement 85 Is an expression commonly used for an agreement whereby the assured is automatically covered for all shipments at specified premiums or at rates to be arranged A optional cover B prepaid cover C automatic cover D open cover 86 Are drawn up in amplification of a contract in order to lay down right an/or obligations between both contracting parties A back letter B back-up letter C guarantee letter D back-up agreement 87 Is a term used to described a vessel which has listed as the result of shifting of cargo or solid ballast to such an extent that her railing is submerged and her righting power is insufficient to restore the original position A top heavy ship B on her beam ends C unstable ship D ship with negative GM 88 Would best fit into a commercial situation under which the charterer undertakes to arrange and pay for the transport of the goods A Time Charter B Voyage Charter C Bareboat Charter D Demise Charter 89 In proportion to its value, _ shows the contribution in detail in the general average A average part B average statement C average premium D average contribution 90 Giving rise to an act of general average a/an is drawn up in which cargo owners undertake to pay their proportionate share in general average in the event of extraordinary occurrences A average deposit B average guarantee C average bond D average bank cheque 91 Is the calculation of the charter party under a voyage charter A normally in proportion to the allocation of the loss-off time risk B fixed by the shipowner C fixed in proportion to the time required D fixed in proportional to the cargo size or in the form of a lump sum for the voyage 92 Calculate the monthly time charter payment for a vessel of 50,000 DWT with a charter rate of US$3.00 per DWT per 30-day period, with an assumed off-hire of 1.5 days A US$142, 500 B $150, 000 C $147, 500 D $450, 000 93 A 40, 000 DWT dry cargo bulk carrier is assume to be under voyage charter to transport 38, 000 tons of cargo at a rate of US$10.00 per ton The length of the voyage is assumes to be 60 days with voyage expenses (bunkers, canal tolls, port charges, commissions) totaling $120,000 Under these assumptions, find the equivalent time charter rate per DWT per month A $3.20 per dwt per month B $3.50 per dwt per month C $3.25 per dwt per month D $3.45 per dwt per month 10 268 Under the regulation of the STCW Convention, _ concerns Training and Assessment A Regulation III/6 B Regulation I/6 C Regulation II/6 D Regulation IV/6 269 What does the roman numeral stand for in reference to the regulation II/2? A Article B Resolution C Regulation D Chapter 270 The chapter of the 1995 STCW Convention that concerns the master and deck department is A III B II C V D IV 271 Except for , the following are purposes of ships A To record the number of ships a flag State is responsible of B To list the ships entitled to fly the State's flag and which, therefore, come within the national jurisdiction of that State, and for which the State is responsible C To grant or confirm the nationality of the vessel D To record properly rights and registerable charges on the ship 272 What rules deal with a carrier's responsibilities and liabilities for the "loss and damage" under contracts of carriage of goods by sea? A London Rules B Hamburg Rule C Hague-Visby Rules D York-Antwerp Rules 273 governs the interpretation of the 1995 STCW Convention A Vienna Convention B Hague-Visby Rules C Hague Rules D Geneva Convention 274 The part of the 1995 STCW Convention that provides the legal basis for mandatory minimum requirements for the issue of certificate of proficiency in fast rescue boat is A Regulation VI/2 B Regulation V/2 C Regulation V/1 D Regulation V/3 275 Of the 1995 STCW Convention requires the compliance with the mandatory minimum requirements for certification of masters and chief mates on ships and 500 gross tonnage or more A Chapter V B Chapter II C Chapter III D Chapter IV 276 Requires that any practical test required under the STCW Convention is required to be c Carried out under the immediate supervision of an assessor duly qualified A Regulation I/14 B Regulation I/12 C Regulation I/6 D Regulation I/7 30 277 A ship can be detained in port if the port State Control Officer (PSCO) believes that the watchkeeping standards are not being maintained is the particular provisions of the 1995 STCW Convention that empowers the PSCO to effect such detention A Regulation I/4 B Regulation I/8 C Regulation I/2 D Regulation I/7 278 The part of the 1995 STCW Convention that provides the legal basis for mandatory minimum requirements for training in advanced fire fighting is A Regulation VI/5 B Regulation VI/4 C Regulation VI/3 D Regulation VI/2 279 Of the 1995 STCW Convention covers voyage planning A Chapter VI B Chapter III C Chapter V D Chapter VII 280 Of the 1995 STCW Convention specifies the mandatory minimum requirements for certification of masters and chief mates on ships of 500 gross tonnage or more A Chapter II B Chapter IV C Chapter V D Chapter III 281 The mandatory minimum requirements for the training and qualifications of masters on roro passenger ships include additional familiarization in: A watchkeeping in port B medical first aid and medical care C watchkeeping at sea D crisis management 282 What does the Arabic number in reference to the Regulation I/6 stands for A Article B Regulation C Chapter D Resolution 283 Provides the basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention A Regulations B National law of State signatory to t the Convention C Resolutions D Articles 284 Is the one who inspects on the compliance to regulation I/4 of the 1995 STCW Convention A port state control officer B quarantine officer C shipowner's representative D marine surveyor 285 States the number of able seamen required on board A ABS Code B Classification of Certificate C Certificate of Inspection D Solas Certificate 286 Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary Certificate of inspection The Temporary Certificate A expires months after it is issued B must be changed for a regular Certificate within months C is restrained n the custody of the master D has the full force of the regular Certificate of Inspection 31 287 The following certificates are issued by the Coast Guard except _ A Award of Official Number B Classification of Inspection C Certificate of Inspection D Safety equipment Certificate 288 The recommendations of the general provisions that proposals for routeing measures beyond the territorial sea should be adopted by IMO, any safety zone which exceeds should be submitted to IMO for adoption A 500 meters B 1,500 meters C 800 meters D 2,000 meters 289 Per classification society, all ships and their machinery must be surveyed at prescribed intervals or special survey normally being held at A year interval B years interval C years interval D years interval 290 As defined in the Harmonized System of Ship Survey and Certification 1988, the type of survey that includes general or partial inspection made after a repair due to casualty investigations is called _ A additional survey B charterer's survey C owner's survey D underwriter's survey 291 Where is the official identification of a vessel found? A Classification Certificate B Certificate of Documentation C Loadline Certificate D Certificate of Inspection 292 The deficiency(ies) which may pose danger to safety, property and environment is/are: A Qualified person absent from work B Crew not certified C Watch arrangements bad D all of these 293 Is indicated by The Tonnage Certificate A displacement tons B power tons C measurement tons D deadweight 294 What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented? A net tons B 100 GRT C 200 GRT D 500 GRT 295 As stated in the convention, periodical surveys are done every A current ship B existing ship C covered ship D an approved ship 296 In carrying out a "Maneuverability Test" for life rafts, it should be demonstrated that with the paddles provided, the life raft is capable of being propelled when fully taken in calm conditions over a distance of at least how many meters? A 100 meters B 25 meters C 50 meters D 60 meters 32 297 After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the certificate? A one B two C none D three 298 Theoretically non-earning spaces, gross tonnage less deducted is called A registered tonnage B deadweight C net tonnage D underdeck tonnage 299 Every ship shall take each such measures for ships under its flag as are necessary to ensure safety at sea with regard to the following, interalia Except A The use of signals B The maintenance of communications C The hull and machinery D Prevention of collision 300 State acting through the competent international organization shall establish international rules for the purpose of the following except A climination of pollution of the marine environment B prevent pollution of the marine environment C control pollution of the marine environment D reduce pollution of the marine environment 301 If the PSCO proceed to a more detailed inspection on a ship, the following shall be taken into account Except A Muster list B Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate C Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate D Equipment in excess of convention or flag State requirements 302 Sources of information about possible violation of the discharge provisions under Annexes I & II of Marpol 73/78 by the PSCO can be indicated on the following, Except A Reports by Masters, Article and Protocol I of Marpol 73/78 B Reports by official bodies, Article of Marpol 73/78 C Reports by crewmember/s, Article of Marpol 73/78 D Reports by other parties, Article of Marpol 73/78 303 Which of the following is False when PSCO conducts control of operational requirements on a ship? A When carrying out operational control, the PCSO as far as possible, should ensure that there is no interference with normal shipboard operation B The PSCO should impose operational tests or physical demands C PSCO should not require demonstration of operational aspects which would unnecessarily delay the ship D PSCO has to determine whether the operational proficiency of the crew as a whole is of sufficient level to allow the ship to sail without danger to persons onboard or harm to the marine environment 304 Operational requirements verified by PSCO include the following Except A operation of the machinery B manuals and instructions C oil and oily mixtures from machinery spaces D duties and responsibilities of every crew onboard 305 In verifying the structure of the ship, PSCO takes into account the following Except A hull maintenance B accommodations C general state on deck D condition of ladderways, guard rails, pipe coverings and areas of corrosions 33 306 A Solas approved lifebuoy should weigh A not less than 2.5 kg B not less than 2.0 kg C not less than 1.5 kg D not less than 1.0 kg 307 The PSCO's assessment of the safety structure of the ship should be based on the _ carried onboard A Survey Report File B Weekly Safety Committee Report C Official logbook D Safety Report File 308 The conditions by PSCO under which noxious liquid substances are permitted to be discharged into the seas include the following Except A quantity B quality C ppm of the substance D category of the substance and sea area 309 When determining if the muster list is in accordance with the regulation, PSCO may verify the following Except A the correct emergency alarm B the muster list shows the duties assigned to the different members of the crew C the muster list specifies which officers are assigned to maintenance of life saving and fire fighting appliances D the muster list specifies the substitutes for key persons who may become disabled 310 During abandon ship drill, PSCO should observe the following, Except: A summoning of crew to the muster station with the required alarm B sounding the correct alarm signals C reporting to the stations and preparing for duties as describe in the muster list D checking that crew are suitably dressed 311 On cargo ships, PSCO requires that lifeboats and davit-launched liferafts are capable of being launched within a period of A 15 minutes B 20 minutes C 10 minutes D 30 minutes 312 The PSCO may determine if responsible ship's personnel are familiar with their duties related to operating essential machinery Except: A emergency and standby sources of electrical power B auxiliary steering gear C bilge and fire pumps D oily water separator 313 The PSCO may determine if all operational requirements of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 have been met, taking into account the following Except: A the quantity of oil residues generated B the effective operation of the oily water separator C the capacity of sludge and bilge holding tank D the capacity of the oily water separator 314 The PSCO may determine if all operational requirements of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 have been met, taking into account the following Except: A type of tanks B capacity of the tanker C type of cargo D inspection of Oil Record Book and/or Cargo Record Book 34 315 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following shall be noted Except: A port of departure and destination if observed at sea B particulars of ship suspected of contravention C particulars of slick D identification of observer 316 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following particulars of the ship shall be noted Except: A name of ship B reason for suspecting the ship C dater and time (UTC) of observations or identification D name of the Master 317 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following particulars of the slick shall be noted Except: A date and time of observation B position of slick in latitude and longitude C type of slick observed D approximate distance in nautical miles from the nearest land 318 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following particulars of the observer shall be reported Except: A name, address and contact number of the observer B organization with which observer is affiliated (if any) C observer's status with the organization D observation made from aircraft, ship, shore or otherwise 319 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of Marpol 73/78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following method of observation and documentation shall be included Except: A visual B flight or sea surface observation C conventional photographs D samples taken from slick 320 The PSCO can identify the ship substandard by the following Except A the absence of principal equipment required by the Convention B non-compliance of equipment required by the Convention C if the crew is multinational and can hardly communicate with each other D substantial deterioration of the ship or its equivalent because of poor maintenance 321 During inspection the PSCO should further assess whether the ship and/or crew is able to the following Except A maintain proper propulsion and steering B perform its daily duties and responsibilities C fight fires effectively in any part of the ship if necessary D abandon ship speedily and safely and effect rescue if necessary 322 The PSCO is guided with a list of detainable deficiencies Under areas of the SOLAS Convention, the following are considered Except A failure of proper operation of propulsion and other essential machinery as well as electrical installations B insufficient cleanliness of engine room, excess amount of oily water mixture in bilges and improper operation of bilge pumping arrangements C failure of proper operation of emergency generator, lighting, batteries and switches D poorly maintained lifeboats and/or lifesaving appliances 35 323 The following should be observed by the PSCO in determining the safe manning of a ship Except: A the capability to operate equipments in case of an emergency B the capability to maintain safe navigation, engineering and radio watches C the capability to moor and unmoor the ship safely D the capability to manage the safety functions of the ship when employed in a stationary or near-stationary mode at sea 324 The following should be observed by the PSCO in determining the safe manning of a ship Except: A the ability to operate all watertight closing arrangements and maintain them in effective condition, and also deploy a competent damage control party B the ability to operate all on-board fire fighting and emergency equipment and life saving appliances C the ability to operate the main propulsion and auxiliary machinery and maintain them in safe condition to enable the ship to overcome foreseeable perils D the ability to operate the emergency generator in case of emergency 325 In applying principles to be observed in determining the safe manning of a ship, the PSCO should take proper account of existing IMO, ILO, ITU and WHO instruments in force which deal with following Except A watchkeeping B safety management C competent Master and officers D hours of work or rest 326 For a more detailed inspection, the PSCO checks the following Except: A competency of officers and crew on board B drills C accommodation D food and catering 327 PSCO when checking Loadline/Hull structure shall consider the following Except: A loadlines and freeboard marks inspected B deck plating and general structure satisfactory C draft marks readable D weathertight doors satisfactory 328 PSCO when checking Accident Prevention shall consider the following Except: A access to ship and working spaces satisfactory B accident prone area properly labeled C deck openings and machinery presenting hazards to personnel properly protected D warning notices or signs displayed 329 When checking operational requirements, PSCO shall consider the following Except: A fire and abandon ship drills B damage control, abandon ship and fire fighting satisfactory C communication between key crew members and with passengers on board satisfactory D information on proper cargo carriage/stowage available 330 In case deficiencies which caused detention cannot be remedied in the port of inspection PSCO may allow the ship to proceed to the nearest appropriate repair port on conditions that the following procedures be observed: A the ship under detention should be in a condition to safety undertake the voyage to the repair port B the flag State or classification society acting on behalf of the flag State shall issue single voyage certificate C the PSC inspection from and any release notice shall make clear to which port the ship is allowed to sail D the ship owner or Master submits a letter of guarantee that the ship can be safely navigated to the repair port 36 331 Which of the following is False regarding PSCO inspection? A Inspections will be carried out specifically to confirm compliance with the ISM Code B Inspections will not be carried out specifically to confirm compliance with the ISM Code C Compliance with the ISM Code will be determined during normal port State Control inspections D All commercial ships regardless of the date of construction are to comply with the ISM Code 332 For the purpose of PSCO, all ships should carry the following certificates and documents Except: A Certificate of Registry B International Load Line Certificate C International Pollution Prevention Certificate D Intact Stability Booklet 333 For the purpose of PSCO, cargo ships should carry the following certificates and documents Except: A Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate B Cargo Ship Pollution Prevention Certificate C Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate D Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate 334 Which of the following House Bills is an Act to modernize in government policies towards shipping in the Philippines amending for the purpose certain laws, and for other purposes? A House Bill No 193 B House Bill No 391 C House Bill No 139 D House Bill No 913 335 Which of the following House Bills is an Act to promote the development of the Philippine Domestic Shipping? A House Bill No 2411 B House Bill No 4121 C House Bill No 4211 D House Bill No 2414 336 Under the tax credit on Domestic Capital Equipment of the Domestic Shipping Act, how many percent of tax credit value of the national internal revenue and existent duties would be waived in favor of the domestic shipper purchase from a domestic manufacturer on any spare parts, equipment and materials? A 90% B 70% C 80% D 100 % 337 Which of the following government authorities shall be primarily responsible for the enforcement of maritime safety rules and regulations for vessels under Philippine Registry? A Philippine Coast Guard B Maritime Police C MARINA D all of these 37 338 Which of the following government authorities shall be primarily responsible for the enforcement and ensuring that only competent, properly trained and duly licensed masters, pilots and seafarers are allowed to board and man ships of Philippine Registry? A Philippine Regulations Commission B Philippine Coast Guard C MARINA D TESDA 339 Under the Philippine rules and regulations, how many percent capital/shares shall a NonFilipino citizen is/are allowed to invest in a domestic shipping company? A 50% B 70% C 60% D 40 % 340 A Certificate of Public Convenience is a license or authority issued to a vessel that mets the safety standards in accordance with the domestic rules and regulations Which of the following government authorities issue this certificate? A MARINA B Maritime Police C Philippine Coast Guard D Philippine Ports Authority 341 Which of the following Philippine Ports Authority Memorandum Circular covers the " Guidelines on the Movement and Documentation of Domestic Container Cargoes at South Harbor Manila? A No 02-2002 B No 24-2003 C No 04-2003 D No 24-2002 342 Which of the following Philippine Ports Authority Memorandum Circular covers the " Regulation on the proper Marking and Labeling of Dangerous Cargoes? A No 25-2002 B No 25-2003 C No 24-2002 D No 24-2003 343 Which of the following Philippine Ports Authority Memorandum Circular covers the " Accomplishment and Submission of the Revised Vessel Information Sheet" The Port Operation Management System (POMS) requires a comprehensive vessel information from all vessels calling the ports in order to create and update information/data about the physical description of the vessel for purposes of maintaining a vessel master file for Vessel Information Management System (VIMS) A No 08-2002 B No 07-2003 C No 07-2002 D No 08-2003 344 Charges on vessel/s engaged in foreign trade including those engaged in barter trade, that enter any port, whether private or government shall be charged port dues on each call based on GRT is A USD 0.081/ton B USD 0.801/ton C USD 0.071/ton D USD 0.701/ton 345 Which of the following has the power to impose, fix, collect and receive in accordance with the schedules approved by its Board, such fees necessary for the licensing, supervision, inspection, approval and accreditation of domestic ship operators A Martime Police B Philippine Coast Guard C MARINA D Philippine Ports Authority 38 346 The Philippine Ports Authority is a government corporation specially charged with the financing, management and operations of public ports throughout the archipelago Its as spelled out in its charter is to implement an integrated port system that is aimed at accelerating maritime trade and commerce and carry forward the government objective by transforming the Philippines into a newly industrialized country Which of the following Decree covers this charter? A No 587 B No 857 C No 785 D No 578 347 Passenger Ship Safety Certificate is issued under the provisions of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea The vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of of the Convention A Reg 1/7 B Reg 1/8 C Reg 1/9 D Reg 1/10 348 In regards Passenger Ship Safety Certificate, the ship has been surveyed complying with the requirements of the Convention as regards: A all of these B the structure, main and auxiliary machinery, boilers and other pressure vessels C the watertight subdivision arrangements and details D the subdivision loadlines 349 In regards Passenger Ship Safety Certificate, the ship has been surveyed as regards: A line-throwing appliance and radio installations used in life-saving appliances B all of these C structural fire protection, fire safety systems and appliances and fire control plans D the life-savoing appliances and the equipment of the lifeboats, liferafts and rescue boats 350 In regards Passenger Ship Safety Certificate, the ship has been surveyed as regards: A radio installations B functioning of the radio installations used in lif-saving appliances C all of these D shipboard navigational equipment, means of embarkation for pilots and nautical publications 351 Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate is issued under the provisions of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea The vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of of the Convention A Reg 1/9 B Reg 1/8 C Reg 1/10 D Reg 1/7 352 Intermediate Survey for tankers 10 years of age and over is required under of the Solas convention A Reg 1/10 B Reg 1/9 C Reg 1/8 D Reg 1/7 353 Which type of survey is done to tankers 10 years of age and over required under Reg 1/10 of the Convention? A Annual Survey B Unscheduled Survey C Periodical Survey D Intermediate Survey 39 354 Mandatory Annual Survey is done to ships in accordance with of the Convention A Reg 1/6 (b) B Reg 1/6 (a) C Reg 1/6 (c) D Reg 1/6 (d) 355 Which type of survey is done to ships in accordance with Reg 1/6 (b) of the Solas Convention? A Periodical Survey B Unscheduled Survey C Intermediate Survey D Annual Survey 356 Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate is issued under the provisions of the International Safety of Life At Sea The vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of of the Convention A Reg 1/9 B Reg 1/8 C Reg 1/10 D Reg 1/7 357 Regulation 1/8 of the Solas Convention requires the issuance to ships of A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate B Passenger Ship Safety Equipment Certificate C Passenger Ship Safety Construction Certificate D Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate 358 Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate is issued after the survey as regards: A all of these B the ship complied with the requirements of the Convention as regards the safety systems and applaiances and fire control plans C the life saving appliances and the equipment of the lifeboats, liferafts and rescue boats were provided in accordance with the requirements D the ship was provided with a line-throwing appliance and radio installations used in life-saving appliances in accordance with the requirements of the Convention 359 Intermediate Survey is done to tankers of 10n years and over required by _ of the Solas Convention A Reg 1/9 B Reg 1/8 C Reg 1/10 D Reg 1/7 360 Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate is issued in accordance with _ of the SoLas Convention A Reg 1/9 B Reg 1/10 C Reg 1/8 D Reg 1/7 361 Regulation 1/9 of the Solas Convention requires ships to be issued: A Cargo Ship Safety Certificate B Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate C Cargo Ship Radio Equipment Certificate D Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate 362 For how long does a buoyant signal shall continue to emit smoke when submerged in water under 100 mm of water? A 15 seconds B 30 seconds C 20 seconds D 10 seconds 40 363 At which depth shall the hydrostatic release on a float-free liferaft automatically release the liferaft? A not more than meters B not more than meters C not more than meters D not more than meters 364 When a davit-launched liferaft is suspended on its lifting hook or bridle, which of the following is True? A it can withstand a load of times its full complement of persons and equipment B it can withstand a load of times its full complement of persons and equipment C it can withstand a load of times its full complement of persons and equipment D it can withstand a load of times its full complement of persons and equipment 365 Lifeboats shall have sufficient strength to withstand a drop into the water at a height of at least A meters B meters C meters D meters 366 Solas stipulates that ships of 500 GRT or more shall have at least one international shore connection with an outside diameter of _ A 178 mm B 176 mm C 174 mm D 172 mm 367 Solas stipulates that ships of 500 GRT or more shall have at least one international shore connection with an inside diameter of A 62 mm B 60 mm C 64 mm D 58 mm 368 Solas stipulates that mustering of passengers on a ship engaged in an international voyage which is not a short international voyage shall take place _ A within 24 hours after leaving port B within 24 hours after their embarkation C within one week after embarkation D within one week after leaving port 369 Solas stipulates that if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in abandon ship and fire drills in the previous month, the drills of the crew shall take place _ A within 24 hours after ship leaves port B within 48 hours after ship leaves port C within 24 hours after embarkation D within 48 hours after embarkation 370 Onboard training in the use of lifesaving appliances shall be given not later than A 24 hours after embarkation B 48 hours after embarkation C week after embarkation D weeks after embarkation 371 Onboard training in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take place at intervals of not more than _ A months B months C months D months 41 372 When vertically fired, a rocket parachute flare shall reach an altitude of at least A 310 meters B 320 meters C 300 meters D 330 meters 373 How long is the burning period of rocket parachute flare? A at least 40 sec B at least 45 sec C at least 50 sec D at least 55 sec 374 How long is the burning period of hand flares? A at least 55 sec B at least 45 sec C at least 50 sec D at least 60 sec 375 SOPEP, under Reg 26, Annex of Marpol 73/78 shall be carried in oil tanker of: A 150 GRT or more B 300 GRT or more C 100 GRT or more D 500 GRT or more 376 SOPEP, under Reg 26, Annex of Marpol 73/78 shall be carried in every ship other than oil tankers of A 300 GRT or more B 150 GRT or more C 400 GRT or more D 500 GRT or more 377 Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided in a new product tanker of tons deadweight or more A 20,000 B 30,000 C 40,000 D 70,000 378 Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided in an existing crude oil tanker of _ tons deadweight or more A 30,000 B 70,000 C 20,000 D 40,000 379 Periodical survey of a passenger ship includes the following Except: A cabins B machinery and equipment C ship's bottom D outside boilers 380 The rate of discharge of oil in liters per hour divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant is called: A rate of discharge of oil content B rate of discharge of oil per 100 ppm C discharge rate of oil to equal parts of water D instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content 381 How are corrosives classified? A Class B Class C Class D Class 4.1 42 382 Packages containing dangerous goods shall be labeled to make clear its dangerous: A Contents B Classification C properties D extent 383 An ID number conforming to the IMO ship ID scheme adopted by the Organization shall be issued to all cargo ships of _ A 300 GRT B 100 GRT C 150 GRT D 500 GRT 384 Before a passenger ship is put in service, the following are surveyed Except: A machinery and equipment B cabins C ship's bottom D inside/outside of boilers 385 The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ship Carrying Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk is known as A MEPC Code B BCH Code C IBC Code D DCB Code 386 The discharge into the sea of substances in Category D is allowed provided the following are met Except: A the ship is enroute at a speed of at least knots B such a mixture are of a concentration not greater than one part of the substance in 10 parts of water C the discharge is made at a distance of not less than 12 miles from the nearest land D the effluent is more than 100 ppm 387 The discharge into the sea of substance in Category B is allowed provided the following are met Except: A the ship is enroute at a speed of at least 10 knots B the tank has been prewashed, and the washing discharged to a reception facility C the discharge below the waterline D the discharge is made at a distance of not less than 12 miles from the nearest land 388 The rating for damage to living resources of 10 - 100 mg/l is A moderately toxic B slightly toxic C highly toxic D non-toxic 389 The rating for damage to living resources of 100 - 1000 mg/l is A moderately toxic B highly toxic C practically non-toxic D non-toxic 390 The rating to hazard to human health by oral intake of greater than 5000 mg/kg is: A non-hazardous B highly hazardous C practically hazardous D slightly hazardous 391 Flammable solids are labeled _ A green label B yellow label C orange label D red and white label 43 392 A smoke signal of a lifebuoy tested in waves of at least 300 mm high should function for at least A 20 minutes B 15 minutes C 25 minutes D 30 minutes 393 A Rocket Parachute Flare vertically fired should be accurately measured that the burning period should not be less than A 30 seconds B 20 seconds C 40 seconds D 50 seconds 394 In carrying out a Jump Test on the Inflatable liferaft, it should be demonstrated _ A all of these B that a person can jump on the liferaft at a height of at least 4.5 meters without damaging the liferaft C that the person jumping on the liferaft should weigh not leass than 75 kg D hat the number of jumps performed should be equal to the number of persons for which the liferaft is to be approved 395 Which of the following is required in an inflatable liferaft? A damage test B inflation test C righting test D all of these 396 For a Free Fall Test on a lifeboat designed for free fall launching, which should be taken into account? A conditions of unfavorable list and time B all of these C conditions of unfavorable locations of center of gravity D extreme conditions of load 397 Individual garments for protection against hypothermia should A not sustain burning or melting when enveloped in a fire for a period of seconds B always be worn during abandonment C not be damaged when wearer is climbing up and down a stairs of meters high D all of these 398 Noxious substances if discharged into the sea would present a recognized environmental hazard, it would require _ A special anti-pollution measures B special attention in operational conditions C special operational measures D stringent anti-pollution measures 399 The main objectives of making the guidelines for SOPEP are: I to assist masters in the implementation of environment protection II to assist shipowners in preparing SOPEP III to assist governments in developing and enacting domestic laws which give force to and implement the cited regulation A II & III B I & III C I & II D all of these 400 The guidelines developed to assist in the preparation of SOPEP comprise three primary sections except: A introduction B mandatory provisions C preface D non-mandatory provisions 44 [...]... requirements 30 2 Sources of information about possible violation of the discharge provisions under Annexes I & II of Marpol 73/ 78 by the PSCO can be indicated on the following, Except A Reports by Masters, Article 8 and Protocol I of Marpol 73/ 78 B Reports by official bodies, Article 8 of Marpol 73/ 78 C Reports by crewmember/s, Article 6 of Marpol 73/ 78 D Reports by other parties, Article 6 of Marpol 73/ 78 30 3... Position of ship III Approximate quantity and type of oil IV Circumstances of discharge and general mark A I and II B III and IV C II and III D all of these 222 Ensures that the provisions regarding steps to control oil discharge are complied with A Protocol of Marpol 73 B Reg 23, Annex I of Marpol 73/ 78 C Reg 26 Annex I Marpol 73/ 78 D Reg 22(2) Annex V of Marpol 73/ 78 24 2 23 Under UNCLOS, which of the... peroxide is _ A Class 5.2 B Class 5.4 C Class 5 .3 D Class 6.1 131 The classification of infectious substance is _ A Class 1 B Class 6.2 C Class 2 D Class 3 14 132 The classification of radioactive materials is _ A Class 8 B Class 6 C Class 7 D Class 4.1 133 The classification of corrosive materials is A Class 7 B Class 4.1 C Class 8 D Class 6 134 To make clear its dangerous , packages containing... upwards? A 0.17 N/mm2 B 0 .35 N/mm2 C 0.52 N/mm2 D 0 .31 N/mm2 167 Oil Record Book shall be provided to any ship (other than oil tankers) _ under Reg 20 of Annex I or Marpol 73/ 78 A 500 GRT or more B 150 GRT or more C 30 0 GRT or more D 400 GRT or more 168 Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a new product carrier with a deadweight of _ tons and above A 70,000 B 20,000 C 30 ,000 D 40,000 18 169... Marpol 73/ 78 A 150 GRT B 500 GRT or more C 100 GRT or more D 30 0 GRT or more 176 SOPEP should be carried to every ship (other than oil tankers) of under Reg 26, Annex I of marpol 73/ 78 A 500 GRT or more B 400 GRT or more C 150 GRT or more D 30 0 GRT or more 19 177 Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a new crude oil tanker with a deadweight of tons and above A 70,000 B 20,000 C 30 ,000 D... passenger ships shall carry at least immersion suit/s complying with the requirements of Reg 33 (Solas) A 1 B 2 C 4 D 3 13 122 Solas stipulates that there should be at least one international shore connection with an outside diameter of _ on ships of 500 GRT or more A 184 mm B 182 mm C 176 mm D 178 mm 1 23 Solas stipulates that there should be at least one international shore connection with an inside... Class 4.5 C Class4 .3 D Class 4.4 146 The classification of substance that emit flammable gases when it contact with water is: A Class 5.1 B Class 4 .3 C Class 5 .3 D Class 5.2 147 The classification of oxidizing substance is _ A Class 5 .3 B Class 5.2 C Class 6.0 D Class 5.1 148 The date of entry into force of the 1978 Protocol was -according to Marpol A Oct 2, 1984 B Oct 2, 19 83 C Oct 2, 1982 D Oct... coverings and areas of corrosions 33 30 6 A Solas approved lifebuoy should weigh A not less than 2.5 kg B not less than 2.0 kg C not less than 1.5 kg D not less than 1.0 kg 30 7 The PSCO's assessment of the safety structure of the ship should be based on the _ carried onboard A Survey Report File B Weekly Safety Committee Report C Official logbook D Safety Report File 30 8 The conditions by PSCO under... minutes C 10 minutes D 30 minutes 31 2 The PSCO may determine if responsible ship's personnel are familiar with their duties related to operating essential machinery Except: A emergency and standby sources of electrical power B auxiliary steering gear C bilge and fire pumps D oily water separator 31 3 The PSCO may determine if all operational requirements of Annex I of Marpol 73/ 78 have been met, taking... 34 31 5 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/ 78 Annex II discharge provisions, the following shall be noted Except: A port of departure and destination if observed at sea B particulars of ship suspected of contravention C particulars of slick D identification of observer 31 6 In reporting to any PSCO or flag State of possible contravention of the Marpol 73/ 78