Đề thi thử THPT quốc gia môn tiếng anh năm 2015 trường THPT xuân mai, hà nội

1 SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NỘI TRƯỜNG THPT XUÂN MAI ĐỀ THI THỬ - KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. groom B. bamboo C. choose D. blood Question 2: A. motorbikes B. determines C. involves D. cultures Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. integrate B. recognize C. accurate D. attractive Question 4: A. enthusiast B. recognition C. commercialize D. accelerate Question 5: A. product B. nonsense C. around D. foreign Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister's wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived. A. ought to be B. must have been C. could be D. will have been Question 7: _______ in London, we will have sat on the bus for 10 hours. A. As we are going to arrive B. By the time we arrive C. When we will arrive D. By the time we will arrive Question 8: Peter _______ for thirty minutes before Mary arrived. A. had been waiting B. would be waiting C. was waiting D. has been waiting Question 9: My mother often __ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even the slightest one. A. overlooks B. neglects C. passes D. avoids Question 10: _______ on the stairs than the phone rang. A. No sooner had I stepped B. Had no sooner I stepped C. No sooner I had stepped D. Had I stepped no sooner Question 11: My grandfather is quite deaf so you will have to _______ up when you are telling him something. A. take B. catch C. keep D. speak Question 12: Women in ______ employment earn around 75% of that earned by men. A. doubted B. reserved C. paid D. economic Question 13: UNESCO was established to encourage _______ among nations in the areas of education, science, culture, and communication. A. workforce B. collaboration C. employment D. independence Question 14: - “______.” -"Never mind, better luck next time." A. I didn't get the vacant position. B. I couldn't keep my mind on work. C. I have a lot on my mind. D. I've broken your precious vase. Question 15: ______ our pre-paid order, they failed to send us the items in time. A. Regardless of B. Without any notice of C. With respect to D. On behalf of Question 16: It is so hot. Let's go swimming to _______ off. A. give B. make C. stay D. cool Question 17: _______with being so busy both at work and at home, she became increasingly tired and bad-tempered. A. Where B. Which C. How D. What Question 18: I don’t suppose there is anyone there, ______? A. is there B. don't I C. isn't there D. do I 2 Question 19: She has just bought ______. A. a French interesting old painting B. an interesting French old painting C. an old interesting French painting D. an interesting old French painting Question 20: Mary had a serious fever, missed school and fell _______. A. off B. behind C. after D. up Question 21: “What time shall we leave?” – “ ______________________.” A. The soonest the best B. Sooner better C. Soonest and best D. The sooner the better Question 22: - “Remember, they want someone who works well with people. You've got to show them how easy-going and personable you are!” - “_______________.” A. You see what I am like. Don't worry. B. Wait and see. Thanks C. Thanks. I hope so. D. Thanks. I will keep that in mind. Question 23: We spent nearly 3 hours waiting outside the station, then out _____ . A. came the star B. the star came C. did the star come D. be the star coming Question 24: Getting good education and making money themselves have given women more _______. A. freedom B. freed C. free D. freely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25: In synchronized swimming, the players perform beautiful maneuvers to music and diving. A. swimming suits B. tools for swimming C. scuba sets D. movements that need skill and care Question 26: Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information. A. invention B. attempt C. variety D. distribution Question 27: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. invented B. essential C. informative D. exciting Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions . Question 28: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May. A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement Question 29: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean. A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without backbones D. without ribs Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37% of the total housework, while the women estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70%. This ratio was not affected by whether the woman was working or not. When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80% - the majority of the household work – if their husbands did remainder. Research has shown that, if levels increase beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant. After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man’s share increases much less than the woman’s. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual number of hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as 3 thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, washing up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork in the marriage. In cases where men perform most of the housework, results were similar. The men also became depressed by the imbalance of labor. The research showed that the least distressed people are those who have equal share, implying that men could perform significantly more chores and even benefit from this. The research concludes “ Everybody benefits from sharing the housework. Even for women keeping house, a share division of labor is important. If you decide to stay at home to raise the children, you don’t want to become the servant of the house” (Adapted from LouisHarrision & Caroline Cushen, 2013) Question 30: The word remainder. in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______ . A. what is done B. what is fulfilled C. what is left D. what is share Question 31: Although women think men should share the housework, those who don’t have paid job agree to share ______ of the chores. A. 14% B. 37% C. 70% D. 80% Question 32: After getting married, ______ . A. women have a bigger house B. men do more housework C. men do less housework D. women do twice as much housework Question 33: Working women ______ . A. want their partners to do an equal share B. are anxious and depressed C. do 80% of the household D. would prefer not to have a job Question 34: Women who do not have a job become depressed ______ . A. if they have to do more than half of the housework B. because they have no respect C. when their husbands do not help them D. if their husbands do 29% of the chores Question 35: The word norm in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ . A. changing thing B. strange thing C. usual thing D. unequal thing Question 36: According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which ______ . A. men do more housework than women B. women and men divide the housework equally C. women do 80% of the housework D. women do 14 hours of housework Question 37: Objects of the survey were ______ . A. people of a wide range of ages B. married people C. working people D. unemployed people Question 38: The word estimated in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ . A. wanted B. divided C. hoped D. guessed Question 39: What is the most suitable heading for the passage? A. Difficulties of working women B. Unequal housework division C. Reason for women to be distress D. How to be happy couples Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The aspect of language use that is most worth changing is clarity and style of written prose. Expository writing requires language to express far more complex trains of thought than it was biologically designed to do. Inconsistencies caused by limitations of short-term-memory and planning, unnoticed in conversation, are not as tolerably when preserved on a page that is to be perused more leisurely. Also, unlike a conversational partner, a reader will rarely share enough background assumptions to interpolate all the missing premises that make language comprehensible. Overcoming one’s natural egocentrism and trying to anticipate the knowledge state of a reader at every stage of the exposition is one of the most important tasks in writing well. All this makes a difficult craft that must be mastered through practice, instruction, feedback, and – probably most important – intensive exposure to good examples. There are excellent manuals of compositions that discuss these and other skills with great wisdom. What is the most relevant is how removed their 4 practical advice is from the trivia of split infinitives and slang. For example, a banal but universally acknowledged key to good writing is to revise extensively. Good writers go through anywhere from two to twenty drafts before releasing a paper. Anyone who does not appreciate this necessity is going to be a bad writer. If clear writing is wanted, then this is the course that must be followed. Question 40: What is the main topic of the passage? A. The importance of repeated drafting in writing B. The difficulties involved in producing good writing C. The problems of conveying meaning to readers D. The importance of reading good writing Question 41: The phrase” trains of thought” is closest in meaning to _______ A. ways of thinking B. connected ideas C. continuous concepts D. logical thinking Question 42: Why does the author mention “ short-term memory”? A. To suggest that memories are not always accurate B. To show the problems of writing down memories C. To indicate the necessity for long-term memory D. To explain short-term memory is inadequate for complex writing Question 43: According to the passage, readers sometimes have difficulty understanding texts because _______ A. they have no knowledge of the subject matter B. there is no opportunity for them to check their assumptions C. they assume that the texts are too difficult D. some ideas are unconnected in the texts Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that good writers___________ A. are self-centered B. consider their readers C. convey knowledge precisely D. explain every point Question 45: The word “exposure” in the passage could best be replaced by_______ A. access B. detection C. approach D. pursuit Question 46: The author suggests that the best books about writing______________ A. contain explanation about grammar B. explain colloquial expressions C. include examples of good writing D. concentrate on writing skills Question 47: The word “banal” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______ A. weak B. poor C. common D. modest Question 48: The word “this” in the last sentence of the passage refers to___________ A. extensive drafting B. practical advice C. acknowledged key D. intensive exposure Question 49: The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A. conveying meaning in writing is easier than in conversation B. Writing can be learned from a good manual C. There is no substitute for revision in good writing D. Writing is a biological process with its own style Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. All over the world, people are changing the face of the earth. Wild areas are cleared for farming and to build roads and expand cities. Our factories, cars, and power stations poison the….(50) with polluting gases and chemical waste. As well as transforming the environment, we are destroying habitats, the home of……(51) plants and animals. Living things have evolved over millions of years. Many animals and plants can only…….(52) in certain environments. When such areas destroyed, wildlife cannot always…… (53) to the new conditions and some species 5 may…….(54) out. Thousands of species of plants and animals face extinction because of human activities. People can also…….(55) from habitat destruction. When forests are cut down, earth is washed away, this causes crop failures and starvation. There is the future to consider, too; plants provide essential foods and can also be used in medicines. If species…… (56) extinct, their potential value will never be known. The scale of destruction is enormous. Swamps, forests, grasslands and jungles are being cleared at an increasing extend. Half of the world’s tropical rainforests have…… (57) been destroyed. Coral reefs, called the forests of the ocean because they are so rich in life, are…… (58) around the world. We must limit the damage to habitats now………(59) they remain a valuable resource for the future. Question 50: A. floor B. place C. ground D. environment Question 51: A. both B. each C. every D. either Question 52: A. go B. attend C. survive D. persist Question 53: A. adapt B. use C. stand D. bear Question 54: A. fade B. die C. give D. run Question 55: A. fill B. damage C. suffer D. experience Question 56: A. get B. die C. result D. become Question 57: A. still B. even C. already D. yet Question 58: A. spoilt B. violated C. wasted D. threatened Question 59: A. so that B. in case C. in order to D. as a result Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 60: The first important (A) requirements for you to become (B) a mountain climber are (C) your strong passion and you have good health.(D) Question 61: Many a (A) pop star find (B) it difficult to avoid (C) the interference of mass media in their life(D). Question 62: Hardly did he enter (A) the room when (B) all the lights (C) went (D) out. Question 63: Publishing in the UK, (A) the book has won (B) a number of awards in (C) recent regional book fairs. (D) Question 64: A professor of economy (A) and history at our university developed (B) a new theory of the relationship between (C) historical events and financial crises. (D) PART 2: WRITING TASK Part A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. I’d rather be hungry than eat that food . - I prefer…………………… 2. There are many factors contributing to air pollution. - Factors ………………… 3. Huy said that whatever happened, it was Hoa’s fault. - Huy blamed 4. While I strongly disapproved of your behavior, I will help you this time. - Despite my …………………………… 5. The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan. - But for Part B. Write a paragraph about a job you like doing best after graduating from upper secondary school. You should write at least 140 words. 6 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2015-THPT XUÂN MAI 1. TRẮC NGHIỆM A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 1 0 17 O 33 O 49 O 2 0 18 O 34 O 50 O 3 O 19 O 35 O 51 O 4 O 20 O 36 O 52 O 5 O 21 O 37 O 53 O 6 O 22 O 38 O 54 O 7 O 23 O 39 O 55 O 8 O 24 O 40 O 56 O 9 O 25 O 41 O 57 O 10 O 26 O 42 O 58 O 11 O 27 O 43 O 59 O 12 O 28 O 44 O 60 O 13 O 29 O 45 O 61 O 14 O 30 O 46 O 62 O 15 O 31 O 47 O 63 O 16 O 32 O 48 O 64 O 2. TỰ LUẬN 1. I prefer being hungry to eating that food. 2. Factors contributing to air pollution are numerous. 3. Hung blamed Hoa for what happened. 4. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. 5. But for the manager’s generous contribution, I could not continue my plan. . 1 SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NỘI TRƯỜNG THPT XUÂN MAI ĐỀ THI THỬ - KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE. upper secondary school. You should write at least 140 words. 6 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2015 -THPT XUÂN MAI 1. TRẮC NGHIỆM A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 1 0 17 O 33 O. word norm in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ . A. changing thing B. strange thing C. usual thing D. unequal thing Question 36: According to the passage, a good relationship is