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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2015 trường THPT Đầm Dơi, Cà Mau

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1 Mã đề thi 145 Họ, tên thí sinh: Số báo danh: PART I: MCQ TEST Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed 2. A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine 3. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. 4. A. teacher B. prefer C. offer D. flower 5. A. military B. satisfactory C. television D. generously Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 6. Since the flood, the number of homeless people __________ dramatically. A. are increasing B. had increased C. increase D. has increased 7. Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” - David: “ ____________” A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too 8. Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week. A. as much as twice B. twice as much as C. twice more than D. twice as 9. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, __________. A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech 10. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _____. A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there 11. I have a good job with good salary. You _________ send me any money, my lovely father. A. mustn’t B. had better C. mayn’t D. needn’t 12. She listened so attentively that not a word_______. A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn't miss D. did she miss 13. It’s essential that every student ________ all the lectures. A. attends B. attend C. has attended D. attended 14. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ______ the most. A. that influences farmers B. farmers that is influences C. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers 15. Let’s begin our discussion now, ______? A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we 16. There’s somebody walking behind us. I think we are ______. A. followed B. being followed C. following D. being following 17. _______, we tried our best to complete it. A. Thanks to the difficult homework B. Despite the homework was difficult C. Difficult as the homework was D. As though the homework was difficult SỞ GD- ĐT CÀ MAU TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẦM DƠI ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 90 phút 2 18. __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment. A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation 19. Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday. A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors 20. Edith Harlow has kindly agreed ______. You should ask him. A. to helping B. to help C. help D. helping 21. The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _____. A. the domestic marketer has B. the domestic marketer does C. those of the domestic marketer D. that which has the domestic marketer 22. - Lisa: “Have you been able to reach Peter?” - Gina: “……………” A. That’s no approval B. Yes, I’ve known him for years C. No, the line is busy D. It’s much too high 23. Overpopulation tends to create conditions which may result in ___ of food in developing countries. A. shortages B. surpluses C. failures D. supplies 24. Although my village is not far away from the city centre , we had no ______ until recently. A.electric B.electricity C. electrical D. electrify Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 25. We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication. A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions 26. Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest. A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full 27. He insisted on listening to the entire story A. whole B. funny C. interesting D. part 28. Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate. A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down 29. It takes me 15 minutes to get ready. A. to prepare B. to wake up C. to go D. to get up Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions . 30. So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world. A B C D 31. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of A B C the education of every child. D 32. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam. A B C D 33. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what A B C he won a Newberry Caldecot award. D 34. To building their nests, some birds use their bills as needles. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Health is something we tend to (35) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (36) ____ of it. But illness can come, even (37) _____ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (38) ______ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (39) _________, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (40) _____ 3 of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (41) ______ safer for children. The result is that (42) _________ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (43) ______ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020 ? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (44) ______. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. 35. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away 36. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned 37. A. if B. so C. when D. while 38. A. how B. what C. which D. when 39. A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover 40. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause 41. A. more B. much C. very D. quite 42. A. where B. when C. why D. whereas 43. A. desire B. hope C. want D. expect 44. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there is diversity of occupation- building inspector, supervisor, and real estate agent- that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many jobs such as hostels, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some jobs evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choices you make today need not be your final one. 45. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______. A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 46. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs 4 47. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______. A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing 48. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 49. The word “evoke” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from 50. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______. A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission 51. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that _______. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 52. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that _______. A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 53. Why does the author mention “ long, grueling hours without sleeps ” in paragraph 4? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 54. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32 nd president of the United States, was from a wealthy, well-known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterwards studied law. At age 39, Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, he continued his life in politics. In 1924, he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president, and eight years after that he was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more then 5,000 banks had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a bank holiday that closed all the banks so that no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s policies were destroying the American systems of government, and they opposed him in the same intense way that others admired him. In 1940, the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation to quit while the United States entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the nomination and went to an easy victory. 55. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Political aspects of Roosevelt’s life B. Problems during the Great Depression C. Roosevelt’s upbringing D. Criticisms of Roosevelt’s actions 56. Which one of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression 5 B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers 57. The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea the Roosevelt: A. Performed admirably B. Exerted himself physically C. Responded immediately D. Got assistance 58. As used in the first paragraph, the phrase “little by little” means ________ A. the smaller banks first B. Opened the banks for minimal services C. Opened the banks a few at a time D. Opened the bank for a short time 59. The word “full” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? A. Packed B. Loaded C. Overflowing D. Complete 60. Which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. Roosevelt served three terms of presidency B. Roosevelt couldn’t walk easily C. All American citizens supported Roosevelt’s policies D. Roosevelt studied law before he worked as a president 61. The word “affection” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? A. Fascination B. Fondness C. Lure D. Appeal 62. The word “unprecedented” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by______ . A. Unimportant B. Unheard of C. Unjustified D. Unhampered 63. It can be inferred from the passage that the people who liked Roosevelt best were_________ . A. Poor people B. Bankers C. Rich people D.Average workers 64. In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a feeling of: A. Reservation B. Determination C. Regret D. Threat PART II: WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in s uch a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 65. We started singing karaoke three years ago. → We have……………………………………………………………………………………………… 66. They say that two people escaped from the wall. → Two people are …………… 67. I didn’t know the answer so I failed the exam → If I had ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 68. The train couldn’t go because of the fog. →The Fog prevented ………………………………………………………………………………… 69. It’s a pity you didn’t speak English well. → I wish you ………………………………………………………………………………………… Part II. About 80 to 150 words, Write a paragraph about the disadvantages of the internet. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… THE END! 1 ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) 1D 2A 3D 4B 5B 6D 7B 8B 9D 10B 11D 12D 13B 14A 15A 16B 17C 18B 19C 20B 21C 22C 23A 24B 25B 26A 27A 28C 29A 30A 31C 32A 33C 34A 35B 36C 37C 38A 39B 40D 41B 42D 43D 44B 45A 46C 57B 48D 49B 50B 51B 52A 53B 54D 55A 56B 57C 58C 59D 60C 61B 62B 63D 64D PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) I. (0,5 điểm) 65. We started singing karaoke three years ago. → We have been singing/ have sung karaoke for three years. 66. They say that two people escaped from the wall. → Two people are said to have escaped from the wall. 67. I didn’t know the answer so I failed the exam → If I had known the answer, I wouldn’t have failed the exam. 68. The train couldn’t go because of the fog. →The fog prevented the train from going. 69. It’s a pity you didn’t speak English well. → I wish you had spoken English well. II. (1.5 điểm) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 1. Bố cục 0.40 o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 2. Phát triển ý 0.25 o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình 3. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.30 o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 4. Nội dung 0.30 o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% 5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.25 o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng 1.5 . D. As though the homework was difficult SỞ GD- ĐT CÀ MAU TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẦM DƠI ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 90 phút 2 18. __________is the existence. 1 Mã đề thi 145 Họ, tên thí sinh: Số báo danh: PART I: MCQ TEST Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 1. Bố cục 0.40 o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 2. Phát

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