15 đề thi thử tiếng anh ôn thi đại học mới nhất

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.. Dung Purple Read the following

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15 Sample Tests For The National Examination Edited By: Ms Dung Purple

SAMPLE TEST 01

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Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 1 The criminal was sentenced to death because of of his crime

A the severity B the complexity C a punishment D the importance

Question 2 The discovery was a major for research workers

A That would be delightful Thanks B Well, let’s see

C Yes, please, if it’s no bother D Yes, I see

Question 4 You have a good feeling about yourself and when you volunteer

Question 5 If it their encouragement, he could have given it up

A had been for B hadn’t been C hadn’t been for D wouldn’t have been for

Question 6 By the end of this month I for this company for two years

A have been working B will have been working C will be working D will work

Question 7 Flooding in April is an unusual in this area

Question 8 Lorie is very thin, her young sister, who is quite heavy

Question 9 It is a fact that form of energy

A electricity being the most useful B electricity the most useful

C the most useful in electricity D electricity is the most useful

Question 10 Please and see us some time You‘re always welcome

Question 11 Only in the Civil War killed or wounded

Question 12 Prices of flats from a few thousand to millions of dollars

Question 13 John knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work

Question 14 As it was getting late, the boys decided to the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags

Question 15 The general public a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease

Question 16 I have to assure myself that I the best possible decision

Question 17 “Sorry, I’m late, Mike.” - “ .”

A Well, it’s worth a try B Not on my account C No, I wouldn’t mind at all D That’s all right

Question 18 Tony often watches TV after his parents to bed

Question 19 Mike: “Tell me what your dog’s like?” - Alice: “ .”

A Very quickly B Biscuit and bones C Very well, thank you D Big, black and hairy

Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress:

Question 20 A reindeer B engineer C pioneer D referee

Question 21 A dangerous B marvelous C conspicuous D numerous

Question 22 A establish B illustrate C intimidate D inheritance

Question 23 A expansion B conversion C precision D explosion

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Question 24 A eradicate B character C malaria D spectacular

Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

REALITY TELEVISION

Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000

Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused productions such as Big Brother

Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques

Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity

Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of program included in the genre In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living- environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors and conflicts Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word

“reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories It really is not reality TV It really is unscripted drama.”

Question 25 In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because

A they are agree with the statement B everyone agrees with the statement

C no one agrees with the statement D they want to distance themselves from the statement

Question 26 Reality television has

A always been this popular B been popular since before 2000

C only been popular since 2000 D been popular since approximately 2000

Question 27 Japan

A is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows

B has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere

C produced Big Brother

D invented surveillance focused productions

Question 28 People have criticized reality television because

A it is demeaning B it uses exotic locations C the name is inaccurate D it shows reality

Question 29 Reality TV appeals to some because

A it shows eligible males dating women B it uses exotic locations

C it shows average people in exceptional circumstances D it can turn ordinary people into celebrities

Question 30 Pop Idol

A turns all its participants into celebrities

B is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother

C is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother

D is a dating show

Question 31 The term “reality television” is inaccurate

C for talent and performance programs D for talent and performances programs

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Question 32 Producers choose the participants

A on the ground of talent B only for special-living- environment shows

C to create conflict among other things D to make a fabricated world

Question 33 Paul Burnett

A was a-participant on Survivor B is a critic of reality TV

C thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate D writes the script for Survivor

Question 34 Shows like Survivor

Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks

All life is sound We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46) _ by nature and everything in it For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47) his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe Children everywhere and without (48) _are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing The difference lies (49) _in what they do with these gifts That (50) _according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time Nature itself is full of sound, full of music Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to hear (51) _the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (52) _knows how many other audible manifestations of nature Man was born (53 _a world of sound Thunder filled him with fear and became a symbol of supernatural (54) _ In the roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons Dwellers at the seashore (55) _the temper of the gods by the sound of the waves Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity

Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 45 It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala

Lumpur last week

Question 46 Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group

Question 47 I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs

Question 48 If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now

Question 49 Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergency

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 50 The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease

A disabling B vexatious C dangerous D irreparable

Question 51 In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women

A superior B Mandatory C Benificial D Constructive

Question 52 Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals

A irrefuttable B Imminent C Formidable D Absolute

Question 53 The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operation against sea or shore based enemies

A unique B Novel C Exotic D Vital

Question 54 The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years

A absolutely B Relavently C Almost D comparatively

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Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each

of the questions

TALKING TO ELTON JOHN

Q - Do you miss doing the ordinary things in life?

A- I like plodding round the kitchen doing the things everybody else does I love going to the supermarket to do the shopping I come back with far more stuff than I need When I am on holiday in St Tropez, I love to get up at six in the morning to get the fresh bread So people often see me wheeling my trolley round the supermarkets in town

Q - Do you mind being recognized?

A - I’ve tried going out in disguise, but in the end most people recognize me, Ninety- nine percent are very pleasant, very polite But it’s frustrating if you get out of bed on the wrong side- and you do some days- and someone asks you for an autograph and they haven’t got a pen or a piece of paper But I enjoy my popularity; I don’t see the point in being a recluse

Q - You once said that you’re a bit of a loner

A- Yeah, I always have been By that I don’t mean that I’m alone It’s just that I like to be my own boss all the time Don’t confuse that with being lonely because I’m not I have lots of great friends around me Being successful has given me the confidence to do things I wouldn’t have had the courage to do otherwise But I still retain that shyness when I first meet people I’m never going to get rid of that

Q - You like your food, don’t you?

A- I’m one of those people who only have to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without even eating it I’ve always had a problem with my weight it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get depressed when I’m very overweight I dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill But I’m happy with the way I am at the moment If you exercise at least three or four times a week and play tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it (

…)

Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time?

A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now and then One thing I am interested in doing is writing a musical

Q - So do you think we see you on stage in your town musical one day?

A - I doubt it I’m not interested in going into a theatre and performing every night You may find that strange but if you’re

on tour, you’re changing cities I played at the Hammersmith Odeon once for 14 nights and by the end of it I was going crazy It was like going to the office People who actually appear in plays and musical for two or three years have my greatest sympathy and admiration I never consider what I do as work

Question 55 When Elton goes out, he

A is recognized by 99% of the population B wears a disguise

C gets annoyed if he is recognized D accepts he will probably be recognized

Question 56 The phrase ‘a recluse’ is closest in meaning to

C a person who avoids other people D a person who gets frustrated with his popularity

Question 57 How has frame changed Elton John?

A He has become very bossy B He doesn’t like to be on his own

Question 58 The phrase ‘a loner’ is closest in meaning to

A a person who likes being alone

B a bossy person

C a person who is unhappy without other people around

D an only child in the family

Question 59 What does Elton John say about his weight?

A He is obsessed with his weight B He gets depressed when he diets

C He has learnt to control his weight D He wishes he were thin

Question 60 The word it in the last paragraph refers to

A his playing at the theatre for 14 nights B his going crazy after the performance

Question 61 What does the last paragraph tell us about his attitude to work?

A He loves doing the same thing day after day

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B He hates any sort of job which means following a routine and doing the same thing day after day

C He loves playing at the theatre

D He admires people who work hard

Question 62 Which of the following is not true about Elton John?

A He loves doing the shopping in supermarkets

B He prefers going out in disguise to avoid people

C He has a lot of friends

D Although he’s always had a problem with his weight, he doesn’t care much about it

Question 63 All of the following suggest that Elton John is basically happy with himself and his lifestyle EXCEPT

A He enjoys his popularity B He is happy with the way he is at the moment

C He never considers what he does as work D He’s always been a loner

Question 64 What is his future ambition?

A to appear in a play or musical B to break with his present routine

Question 69 He tried to escape but the police stopped him

 The police prevented

Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about YOUR HOBBY

SAMPLE 1: I consider playing guitar my favorite hobby because of many reasons First, I love getting the chances to play

for audience There is no greater feeling than playing music for people who want to listen It is very interesting to see people enjoy my performance Second, I love learning about new ways that can be done to make the songs unique For example, I recently get to know the way to pull off a string to make a note sound without picking the string There are many techniques

to make playing the guitar interesting and fun Third, I love to learn songs by my favorite bands That way, I can play along with a song instead of just singing alone Moreover, I get to improve my listening and playing skill by copying what I hear

In conclusion, playing for audience, learning new techniques and learning songs make playing the guitar my favorite hobby

SAMPLE 2: In my free time, I like reading a wide variety of books First of all, through reading books I can broaden my

knowledge more all over the world For examples, I read books, I can learn different cultures in many countries such as Japan, China, Singapore, and so on Second, I will be able to improve some necessary skills like skimming, scanning, guessing the meaning of the words from context by reading several foreign books to apply well in my practice at school as well as in my exam The most important reason is that I find it more convenient and easier to carry a book with me to any places and at any time For instance , when I take a break at school , I can bring my books and enjoy reading them in the schoolyard with my friends or by myself To sum up , with this passion I feel very relaxed and enjoyable in my life as well

as I recommend that everyone should have this hobby in their free time

-THE END -

SAMPLE TEST 02

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Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks

Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) _as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say Facial (2) _and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide The art of being ( 4) _lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) _to answer our question, and so we

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stop pressing them Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) _stability This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (7) _results For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) _into their private lives

After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9) _medical information Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10) _employee or a values colleague?

Question 6: A psychological B relevant C physical D similar

Question 8: A infringement B invasion C interference D intrusion

Question 9: A reticent B classified C confidential D secretive

Question 10: A conscientious B particular C laborious D thorough

Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases

Question 11 The concert didn't come _ our expectations

Question 12 Professor Alan insisted that every student _ their report by Friday

Question 13 - "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - " _"

Question 14 On September 9, 1950, California was admitted to the Union

A being thirty-first state B as the thirty-first state C for the thirty-first state D the thirty-first state

Question 15 James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so

Question 16 _ that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two years

A It is reported B They are reported C The report was D It was reported

Question 17 Having been served lunch, _

A the problem was discussed by the members of the committee

B the committee members discussed the problem

C it was discussed by the committee members the problem

D a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee

Question 18 “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “ ”

A Sorry, the seat is taken B Yes, I am so glad C No, thanks D Yes, yes You can sit here

Question 19 - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ". ."

A Yes, certainly B Sorry I have no idea C Not at all Help yourself D You can say that again

Question 20 Doing exercises may _ you to pass the exam

A make it easier for B make easier for C be easy for D make easy that

Question 21 _ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories

A On the contrary B On my part C On the whole D On the other hand

Question 22 In the early 16th century, the geography of the globe still _ a mystery

Question 23 Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _ again after a few weeks

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Question 24 The police carried out a _ search for the missing diplomat

Question 25 More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now native speakers by

three to one

Question 26 The government should take _ to reduce the current high unemployment rate

Question 27 The chairman requested that _

A the members study the problem carefully B with more carefulness the problem could be studied

C the problem was more carefully studied D the members studied more carefully the problem

Question 28 - "What do you think of football?" - " _"

A Of course, football players are excellent B It's none of my business

C Well, it's beyond my expectation D I am crazy about it

Question 29 His change of job has him with a new challenge in life

Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others'

Question 30: A collective B climatic C abundant D regional

Question 31: A emergency B concentration C humanity D phenomenon

Question 32: A continent B government C reference D museum

Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest

Question 33 A helicopter B hospital C hour D husband

Question 34 A money B notice C glance D thank

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions

Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even cause harm These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy of the job applicants Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out

The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect If a person has one noticeable good trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self-confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability

Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect This error occurs when interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier connected information Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few moments Studies have repeatedly demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant

The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who appears exceptionally intelligent Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is

Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection procedures have been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability Of the various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests

Question 35 The word “they” in line 6 refers to _

Question 36 The word “this” in line 20 refers to _

A measure cognitive ability B devise personnel selection

C predict candidate suitability D devise accurate tests

Question 37 This passage mainly discusses the _

A Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants

B Inadequacy of interviewing job applicants

C Effects of interviewing on job applicants

D Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants

Question 38 According to the passage, the hallo effect _

A exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions

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B takes effect only when a candidate is well -dressed

C stands out as the worst judgmental error

D helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability

Question 39 The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _

Question 40 According to the passage the first impression _

A can easily be altered B is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices

C is the one that stays with the interviewer D has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant

Question 41 The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _

Question 42 The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate

suitability EXCEPT the _

A primacy effect B halo effect C contrast effect D cognitive effect

Question 43 The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _

Question 44 The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?

A More information on the kinds of judgmental effects

B Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants

C Other selection procedures included in interviewing

D More information on cognitive ability tests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 45 The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners grow in their own

garden

Question 46 There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another

Question 47 Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness

Question 48 A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the

education of every child

Question 49 So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 50 Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money

Question 51 The situation seems to be changing minute by minute

A from time to time B time after time C again and again D very rapidly

Question 52: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat

Question 53 Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting fate

A Taking a risk B losing heart C having panic D going round in circles

Question 54 Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher He just couldn’t control his temper

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides No other force that affects the sea is so strong Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep

The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun In theory, there is

a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day

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And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies The tidal movements are strongest

when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the

lunar month and are called the spring tides At these times, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two

heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to

draw a high tide into the harbors Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the

apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called

neap tides occur Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month

Question 55: Neap tides occur when

A the Moon is full

B waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational attraction

C the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction

D the Moon is farthest from the Sun

Question 56: The word felt in line 3 is closest in meaning to

A detected B dropped C explored D based

Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect

one object in space has on the tides is

A temperature B density C size D distance

Question 58: What is the cause of the spring tides?

A The Earth’s movement around the Sun

B The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon

C Seasonal changes in the weather

D The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth

Question 59: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A similarly B interestingly C unusually D unpredictably

Question 60: What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water

B The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water

C Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water

D The waves created by ocean currents are very large

Question 61: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to

A characteristically B similarly C surprisingly D actually

Question 62: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides?

A Lines 1 – 4 B Lines 7 - 9 C Lines 11 - 14 D Lines 9 - 11

Question 63: The word configuration in line 14 is closest in meaning to

A surface B unit C arrangement D center

Question 64: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT

A Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides B Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do

C The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon D The time of high tide is later each

day

WRITING

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it

Question 65 She was made to type these letters before going home

 The boss made

Question 66 The street is bad and narrow It leads to my school

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Part 2: In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the person that you admire most

-THE END -

SAMPLE TEST 03

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks

Question 1 Let’s go for a walk, _?

Question 2 I am well _ with the problems encountered in starting a business

Question 3 That news came very fast They’ll be surprised

Question 4 The sink in the locker room tends to _

Question 5 – “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” “ _ ”

A OK But I’ll call you later B I’ll say we will!

C I’m tired I’ll go home early D What a wonderful idea!

Question 6 - “Excuse me I’m trying to find the library.” “ _”

A Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you B Look no further!

C Find it yourself I’m busy D Oh, nice to meet you

Question 7 I haven’t had a week I seem to have done nothing at all

Question 8 All the plans have been put _ for the time being

Question 9 We found some real _ at the market

Question 10 There was a table in the kitchen

A beautiful large round wooden B large beautiful round wooden

C beautiful round large wooden D golden large beautiful round

Question 11 It was _ that we spent the whole day at the beach

A so nice a weather B such nice weather C such nice a weather D so a nice weather

Question 12 According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree,

A my education will be employed by the university B employment will be given to me by the university

C the university will employ me D I will be employed by the university

Question 13 Some teachers argue that students who using a calculator may forget how to do mental calculation

Question 14 The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcasted _ on TV and radio

Question 15 Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as _ as possible

Question 16 If you do not want to _ the chance, _ a decision soon

Question 17 Near the parked is a famous landmark the Unification Palace

Question 18 The problem needs to be urgently

Question 19 The city _ at one time prosperous, for it enjoyed a high level of civilization

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following sentence

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Question 20 A moaned B presented C viewed D robbed

Question 21 A position B consider C visit D president

Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest

Question 22 A apply B persuade C reduce D offer

Question 23 A different B important C impressive D attractive

Question 24 A familiar B impatient C uncertain D arrogant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions

The brain is the center of the nervous system in all vertebrate and most invertebrate animals Some primitive animals such as jellyfish and starfish have a decentralized nervous system without a brain, while sponges lack any nervous system at all In vertebrates the brain is located in the head, protected by the skull and close to the primary sensory apparatus of vision, hearing, balance, taste, and smell

Brains can be extremely complex The cerebral cortex of the human brain contains roughly 15–33 billion neurons, perhaps more, depending on gender and age,linked with up to 10,000 synaptic connections each Each cubic millimeter of cerebral cortex contains roughly one billion synapses These neurons communicate with one another by means of long protoplasmic fibers called axons, which carry trains of signal pulses called action potentials to distant parts of the brain or body and target them to specific recipient cells

The brain controls the other organ systems of the body, either by activating muscles or by causing secretion of chemicals such as hormones and neurotransmitters This centralized control allows rapid and coordinated responses to changes in the environment Some basic types of responsiveness are possible without a brain: even single-celled organisms may be capable of extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it Sponges, which lack a central nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and even locomotion In vertebrates, the spinal cord by itself contains neural circuitry capable of generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking However, sophisticated control of behavior on the basis of complex sensory input requires the information-integrating capabilities of a centralized brain

Despite rapid scientific progress, much about how brains work remains a mystery The operations of individual neurons and synapses are now understood in considerable detail, but the way they cooperate in ensembles of thousands or millions has been very difficult to decipher Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell

us that brain operations are highly organized, while single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons, but how individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown

Question 25 What is the main topic of the passage?

A Brain – human’s most complex part of the body

B Brain’s main function

C An overview of the most complex part of the body – Brain

D The brain’s complex operation

Question 26 It can be inferred from the passage that

A Jellyfish and starfish do not have brain

B The number of neurons in the cortex is about 15 – 33 billion, irrespective of age and gender

C The sponge has brain but not nervous system

D Neurons communicate with one another by targeting themselves to specific recipient cells

Question 27 The word “linked” in the 2nd paragraph could be best replaced by

Question 28 Which the following is mentioned in the passage?

A Sponges, which have no central nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and locomotion

B All animals have brain protected in skull

C 1 cm3 in cerebral cortex contains about 1,000,000,000 synapses

D Neural circuitry in spinal cord can control even complex response to stimuli from external environment

Question 29 The word “This” in the 3rd paragraph refers to:

A the brain B the action of the brain C response D hormones and neurotransmitters

Question 30 Which of the following is impossible without the brain?

A extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it

B generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking

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C control behavior on the basis of complex sensory input which requires the information-integrating capabilities

D coordinated body contractions and even locomotion

Question 31 The word “decipher” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

Question 32 Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell us

A how individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown B the works of brain are highly

organized

C single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons D nothing

Question 33 The word “complex” in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by

Question 34 The passage can be described as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of

the blanks

Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts Drought, storms, and fires can change

ecosystems Some changes (35) _the ecosystem If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to

live If a kind of plant die (36) _, the animals that (37) _it may also die or move away Some changes are

good for ecosystem Some pine forests need (38) _for the pine trees to reproduce The seeds are sealed inside

pinecones Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds (39)

Polluting the air, soils, water can harm ecosystems Building (40) _on rivers for electric power and

irrigation can harm ecosystems (41) _the rivers Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down (42) _destroy

ecosystems Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of (43) _fish, cutting

down trees, and building dams They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people (44)

_causing harm to ecosystems

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correction

Question 45 Isabella danced in her bare feet and wore loose-fitting clothing garments that allowed her freedom of

movement

Question 46 Most fatty acids have been founded as essential components of lipid molecules

Question 47 Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that ever lived

Question 48 In seeking its representative writers, twentieth-century America seems to be searching for someone who

chronicle the chaos and lack of direction reflected in some contemporary values

Question 49 The enclosing card gives details about room rates and services

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of

the following questions

The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive materials at

the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011 The

plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO) This

accident is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts

consider it to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are

involved

At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned maintenance

The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators starting up to run the

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control electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors The plant was protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 meters (19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake The entire plant was flooded, including low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying cooling seawater The connection to the electrical grid was broken All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown The flooding and earthquake damage hindered external assistance

Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the upper cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires broke out at reactor 4 Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat Fuel rods stored in pools in each reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools dropped Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi) radius evacuation around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged Grid power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and explosions, remained inoperable Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent access to carry out repairs

Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan 30–50 km from the plant showed radioactive cesium levels high enough to cause concern Food grown in the area was banned from sale It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium-137 indicate that the releases from Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to prepare food for infants Plutonium contamination has been detected in the soil at two sites in the plant Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3

Question 50 What is the main topic of the passage?

A Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident

B Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time

C The nuclear power accident – Japanese catastrophe

D The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant

Question 51 It can be inferred from the passage that _

A The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident

B The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011

C Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident

D Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident

Question 52 The word “ongoing” in the passage is closest in meaning to _

Question 53 The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by _

Question 54 All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _

A The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami

B The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country

C The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour

D The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage

Question 55 According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?

A The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall

B The highest wave was 46 ft in height

C The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance

D The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired

Question 56 According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred?

A The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19th century

B Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food

C The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children

D Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3

Question 57 The word “inoperable” in the passage could be best replaced by _

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Question 58 When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive?

Question 59 Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph?

A to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident

B to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident

C to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium

D to give an example of soil containing natural resource

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest meaning to the underlined part in each

of the following questions

Question 60 The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer

Question 61 As all of us cannot be available today, let’s put off the discussion till later

A present for the event B scheduled for the event C arranged for the event D appointed for the event

Question 62: Fallout from a nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the vegetation

Question 63 To prepare for a job interview, you should jot down your qualifications, work experience as well as some

important information about yourself

A What you have experienced C your own qualities in real life

B Your bio data and special qualities D what you have earned through study

Question 64 The activists were accused of contaminating the minds of our young people

C nurturing D keeping in the dark

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions, questions from 3 - 5

Question 5 A successive B apprentice C attendance D atmosphere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions,

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questions from 6 - 25

Question 6 The boy did his homework

A by himself B his own self C on himself D by his own

Question 7 Peter’s got so _ to opera that it has become a constant companion of his life

A used to listening B used to listen C used in listening D use to listen

Question 8 - “May I use your car for a few days?” - “ _”

Question 9 being tired, I went for a picnic with my family

A That B Since C Although D Despite

Question 10 Preparing for a job interview can be very _

Question 11 This knife is very blunt It needs _

A sharpeningly B sharpen C sharpening D sharply

Question 12 Not until the end of the 19th century _ become a scientific discipline

A plant breeding has B did plant breeding C plant breeding had D has plant breeding

Question 13 This road, _, is narrow and winding

A which the two villages are joined B which the two villages are joining

C which joins the two villages D joins the two villages

Question 14 I am going to _ my dress dry- cleaned

Question 15 She is very absent-minded She _ her cell phone three times

Question 16 - “You look ill What’s wrong with you?” - “ _”

A No, sir B No matter C Not at all D Nothing

Question 17 He is unhappy because his parents do not _ very well

Question 18 Although the exam was difficult, _ the students passed it

Question 19 - “You really have a beautiful blouse, Mary I have never seen such a perfect thing on you” - “ ”

A Good idea Thanks for the news B Thanks, Tom That’s a nice compliment

C Well, that's very surprising! D Yes, it's our pleasure

Question 20 By _ the household chores, he can help his mother after going home from school

Question 21 The youths nowadays have many things to do in their _ time

Question 22 I was not _ to go to parties in the evening until I reached the age of eighteen

Question 23 Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, _?

Question 24 This factory produced motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006

A twice as many B as twice as many C as twice many D as many as twice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction, questions 26-35 Question 25 The salad tasted so well that my brother returned to the salad bar for another helping

Question 26 A mosquito is filled with blood is carrying twice its own weight

Question 27 Joseph Ford, the politician who was kidnapped last week as he was driving for his office, was released

unharmed

Question 28 Ozone layer acts as an umbrella against most of the Sun’s dangerous rays

Question 29 Neither Jane nor Sarah explained me why they were so late

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 36 - 37

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Question 30 The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country

Question 31 My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly which four comics

she was going to buy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 38 - 40

Question 32 It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger

Question 33 Around 150 B.C the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to

brightness

Question 34 S Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr Mayo’s outstanding

humanitarianism

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 - 50

The general principles of dynamics are rules that demonstrate a relationship between the motions of bodies and the

forces that produce those motions Based in large part on the work of his predecessors, Sir Isaac Newton deduced three laws

of dynamics, which he published in his famous Principia

Prior to Newton, Aristotle had established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest, and that unless a force acted upon it to maintain motion, a moving body would come to rest Galileo had succeeded in correctly describing the

behavior of falling objects and in recording that no force was required to maintain a body in motion He noted that the effect

of force was to change motion Huygens recognized that a change in the direction of motion involved acceleration, just as did

a change in speed, and further, that the action of a force was required Kepler deduced the laws describing the motion of planets around the sun It was primarily from Galileo and Kepler that Newton borrowed

In short, Newton’s laws of Motion are: (1) a body at rest remains at rest, and a body in motion remains in motion

along a straight line, unless acted upon by an unbalanced force, (2) if an unbalanced force acts upon a body, the momentum

of the body changes in proportion to the force and in the same direction as the force, (3) to every action or force, there is an equal and opposite reaction

Question 35 What was the main purpose of this passage?

A To demonstrate the development of Newton’s laws B To establish Newton as the authority in the field of physics

C To discredit Newton’s laws of motion D To describe the motion of planets around the sun

Question 36 The word “predecessors” in the passage refers to _

C those who published their work D those who agreed with the ideas

Question 37 The phrase “prior to” in the passage could best be replaced by which of the following?

A before B after C with D simultaneously

Question 38 Which of the following scientists established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest?

A Galileo B Kepler C Aristotle D Newton

Question 39 The word “it” in line 6 refers to _

A rest B body C state D motion

Question 40 Who was the first scientist to correctly describe the behavior of falling objects?

A Aristotle B Newton C Kepler D Galileo

Question 41 According to Huygens, when was acceleration required?

A For either a change in direction or a change in speed B Only for a change in speed

C Only for a change in direction D Neither for a change in direction nor for a change in speed

Question 42 According to this passage, Newton based his laws primarily upon the work of _

Question 43 The word “momentum” in the passage is closest in meaning to _

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Question 44 Which of the following describes Inertia or the principles of bodies at rest?

A Newton’s first law B Newton’s third law C Newton’s law of motion D Newton’s law of dynamics

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 - 60

In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains: the

strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H Hess in 1946 He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with

a fathometer Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic Like offshore canyons, guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory They are believed to be extinct volcanoes Their flat tops indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep

as 8,200 feet Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at

the center Dredging from the tops of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the

eroded tops of what were once islands Some of this material is over 80 million years old Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago

Question 45 What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?

A To trace the career of Arnold Guyot B To describe feature of the undersea world

C To present the results of recent geologic research D To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains

Question 46 The word “conceal” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A Contain B Erode C Hide D Create

Question 47 The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of _

A a fathometer B computer analysis C a deep-sea diving expedition D research submarines

Question 48 The author indicates that Arnold Guyot

A was Harry Hess's instructor B invented the fathometer

C named the guyot after himself D taught at Princeton University

Question 49 What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?

A The first guyot was discovered there

B No guyots have ever been found there

C There are more guyots there than in any other ocean

D It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there

Question 50 The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in common?

A Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves

B Both present oceanographers with a mystery

C Both were formed by volcanic activity

D Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea

Question 51 According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of _

A less than 600 feet B between 600 and 3,200 feet

C between 3,200 and 6,500 feet D more than 8,200 feet

Question 52 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble” in the passage?

A Fragments B Mixture C Columns D Core

Question 53 According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?

A Erosion and volcanic activity

B The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level

C Mountain building and the action of ocean currents

D High tides and earthquakes

Question 54 According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?

A In 1946 B In the nineteenth century

C From 8,000 to 11,000 years D 80 million years ago

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 -64

Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting Using both hands shows respect as does a (55) _ bow of the head In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand, they are greeted with a bow Women are more (56) _ to bow the head than to shake hands Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (57) _ by a given name For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name People address (58) _ by their given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived (59) _ to the other person These titles are family related rather than professional Among colleagues, for example, the (60) _ of the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh ("Older Brother") A (n) (61) _ greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao (“Hello”) Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (62) _

on greeting

Vietnamese people have a strong (63) _ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival Therefore, it is (64) _ to visit someone without having been invited Gifts are not required, but are appreciated Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents

65 She knows more about it than I do

68 The garden still needs digging

 The garden hasn’t

69 Susan felt sick, because she ate four cream cakes

Question 1 A language B aviation C attraction D applicant

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions

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Question 3 A accomplish B establish C abolish D acronym

Question 4 A companion B comfortable C compliment D competence

Question 5 A mechanic B memorial C mechanism D machine

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting

Question 6 Children’s games, which are amusements involve more than one individual, appear to be culturally universal Question 7 When I came back I realized that my camera had been disappeared

Question 8 If either of you take a vacation now, we won’t be able to finish this work

Question 9 Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons

Question 10 Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 11 Question 41.My daughter saw an elephant this morning but she ……….one before

A had never seen B has never seen C never sees D never had seen

Question 12 He thought the talk was fascinating His friend, _, fell asleep halfway through it

A although B nevertheless C however D B or C

Question 13 Have you really got no money _the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?

A although B in spite of C because of D in case

Question 14 The doctor gave the patient _examination to discover the cause of his collapse

A a thorough B a whole C an exact D a universal

Question 15 Her book is about the _between women and men

A unequality B disequality C inequality D non-equality

Question 16 This section of the car park is _for visitors

A private B reserved C given D put

Question 17 The role of women in society has been greatly _in the last few years

A overlooked B overtaken C overcome D overcast

Question 18 Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have _ to pre-school children

A access B approach C denial D recognition

Question 19 He has been _from running a political office for five years

A missed B avoided C made D barred

Question 20 Delegates will meet with _from industry and the government

A represented B representative C representatives D representers

Question 21 Sports drinks have caught _ as consumers have become more health- conscious

A in B at C out D on

Question 22 He was _ teacher!

A how good a B so good a C so a good D what a good

Question 23 It's a program that gives some insight into the _ life of the Victorians

A household B inner C house D domestic

Question 24 _having a good salary, he also has a private income

A What's more B Furthermore C Apart from D From

Question 25 Sue: “ How long is the seminar ?” Kim: “ - knowledge, it takes about three hours.”

A To my best B To the best of my C In my best of D In my best

Question 26 Not until home that he had taken someone else's bike

A he got/ he realized B he got/ did he realize C did he get/ he realized D he got/ he did realize

Question 27 Susan: - Did your brother go to France ? Jack: - No, our parents suggested that we _ there at night

Question 28 - Why not open the windows to let _ clean air in ? - I’d rather you didn’t air in our town is

quite polluted ?

Question 29 at his lessons, still he couldn’t catch up with his classmates

A Hardly as he worked B Hard as he worked C Hard as he does D Hard as he was

Put a suitable word in the blank by marking the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

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Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know that an “ intranet” is? It is this : just as the Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (30) _ company In fact, intranets make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (31) computers and people This (32) that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service If your intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (33) which is stored in different places in the company In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (34) where it comes from A company intranet can , of course, be used for unimportant information like office memos or canteen menus But an intranet should (35) - important information which people need to make decision about new products, costs and so on The intranet is (36) to share their information with other people (37) , many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others Another problem which often occurs is (38) top managers like to use the intranet to “ communicate down” rather than to “ communicate across” That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (39) information between themselves and others working in the same organization

Question 31 A contact B introduce C distinguish D compare

Question 33 A parts B information C elements D properties

Question 37 A Luckily B Consequently C However D Unfortunately

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 49

In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources Fortunately, there are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both

cost- effective and earth – friendly Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power

Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system

is growing steadily

Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces electricity Geothermal energy is

50, 000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power

Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale

Question 40 What is the main topic of this passage ?

A The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources

B How energy resources are tapped from nature

C Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized

D Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide

Question 41 According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ?

A Because fossil fuels are no longer available

B Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth

C Because they are free and available worldwide

D Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage

Question 42 Which of the following words could best replace the word “ harnessing”

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Question 43 According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?

A They are being used in many undeveloped countries

B They can convert geothermal energy to electricity

C They are more expensive than solar panels

D They contain photovoltaic cells

Question 44 According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production ?

A They both require the use of a generator B They both use heat from the earth’s surface

C They both require fairly simple technology D They are both conventional and costly

Question 45 Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:

“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to generate geothermal power”

A after the phrase ” earth-friendly” B after the phrase “ growing steadily”

C after the phrase “ by geothermal power” D after the phrase “ global scale”

Question 46 According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power ?

A There is very little of it available in Iceland

B It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide

C It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels

D There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world

Question 47 What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?

A It is widely used form of energy for heating homes

B Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses

C It is not effective for use in private homes

D It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy

Question 48 What does the author imply about alternative energy sources ?

A Many different types of alternative energy sources exist

B Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use

C Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce

D Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power

Question 49 What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage ?

A To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use

B To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use

C To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources

D To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 50 to59

Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours There are two very different types of

flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks, have become flat in what might be called the obvious way Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings” They look as though they

have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “ the right way up” Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and

halibut have become flat in a different way There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “ taller” than they are wide They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces,

which undulate through the water as they move Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies- However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was

effectively useless – In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “ moving” around the other side We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish It starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened , but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso- like vision Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side

Question 50 The passage is mainly concerned with:

A symmetrical flatfish B bony flatfish C evolution of flatfish D different types of flatfish

Question 51 The phrase “ hugging the contours” in the line 1 means:

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A swimming close to the seabed B hiding in the sand at the bottom of the sea

C Floating just below the surface D Lying still on the sea bottom

Question 52 In lines 2 5, the author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that:

A become asymmetrical B appear to fly C have spread horizontally D resemble sharks

Question 53 It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish:

A have one eye each side of the head B have one eye underneath the head

C have two eyes on top of the head D have eyes that move around the head

Question 54 The word “conversely” in line 5 is closest in meaning to:

A Similarly B Alternatively C Inversely D Contrarily

Question 55 According to the passage, fish such as plaice:

A have difficulties in swimming B live near the surface

Question 56 The word “ undulate” in line 9 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

Question 57 In line 10, the word “ this” refers to

A the migration of the ancestors B the practice of lying on one side

C the problem of the one eye looking downwards D the difficulty of the only one eye being useful

Question 58 According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is:

Question 59 It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is:

A often confusing B pretty normal C very difficult D full of danger

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, questions 38 - 40

60 In certain types of poisoning immediately give large quantities of soapy or salty water in order to induce vomiting

61 He was mystified by the look on the stranger's face

62 I was horrified to see the child about to cross the expressway alone

63 The secretary left after weeks of harassment by the manager of her department

64 It is very discourteous to intrude during someone's conversation

WRITING:

65 It isn’t necessary to finish the work today

 You don’t

66 Sally finally managed to get a job

 Sally finally succeeded

67 That’s the last time I go to that restaurant

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions

Question 1: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory

Question 2: Mr Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A punctuality B technological C characteristic D representative

Question 5: A effectiveness B accountancy C satisfaction D appropriate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 6: We _ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it

A were checked our homework B had our homework checked

C have our homework checking D had checked our homework

Question 7: You can go to the party tonight _ you are sober when you come home

Question 8: She must _ in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell

A have been working B be working C have worked D work

Question 9: I'm sorry, but I've got _ much work to do to come to the beach today

Question 10: It’s essential that every student _ the exam before attending the course

Question 11: I decided to go to the library as soon as I _

A would finish what I did B finished what I did

C finished what I was doing D finish what I did

Question 12: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, _ ancient Peruvians did

through natural processes

Question 13: Please cut my hair _ the style in this magazine

A the same length like B the same length as C the same long like D the same long as

Question 14: _ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years

A For a number of tigersB The number of tigers C A number of tigers D That the number of tigers

Question 15: _, he would have been able to pass the exam

A Studying more B Had he studied more C If he studied more D If he were studying more

Question 16: Mark: -“ _” Helen: “Oh, thank you I just got it yesterday.”

A What a beautiful dress you have on! B How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!

C You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? D When have you got this beautiful

dress?

Question 17: Fire safety in family houses, _ most fire deaths occur, is difficult

Question 18: _ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve

A In the end B At the height C On the top D At the bottom

Question 19: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _ repair

Question 20: We intend to _ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one

Question 21: _ that she burst into tears

A So angry was she B Such her anger C She was so anger D Her anger was so

Question 22: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _

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A out of reach B out of practice C out of stock D out of work

Question 23: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _ her at the Fair yesterday

Question 24: – “I think we should recycle these bags It will help protect the environment – “ _”

A Never mind B I can’t agree with you more C You can say that again D It’s

rubbish We shouldn’t use it

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting

Question 25: Children’s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be (C)

culturally (D) universal

Question 26: When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared

Question 27: If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won’t be able (D) to finish this work

Question 28: Among the (A) world’s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945

Question 29: (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily

(D) among the population

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions

Question 30: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water

Question 31: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt

Question 32: She was brought up in a well-off family She can’t understand the problems we are facing

Question 33: The Civil War in 1863 cut the United States into two nations - a southern Confederacy and a northern Union

Question 34: Relaxation therapy teaches one not to fret over small problems

A worry about B get angry about C get involved in D look for

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the late nineteenth century The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal

Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of papers The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character in the

United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst The “Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it

introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on

Wilhelm Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897,

served as the prototype for future American strips It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters,

and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind The first appeared in the Chicago

American in 1904 It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of

daily newspapers around the country

Question 35: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?

A In the order in which they were created

B From most popular to least popular

C According to the newspaper in which they appeared

D In alphabetical order by title

Question 36: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT

_

A feature the same character in each episode B include dialogue inside a balloon

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C appear in a Chicago newspaper D characterize city life in a humorous way

Question 37: The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to _

Question 38: The word “staple” is closest in meaning to _

A new version B huge success C regular feature D popular edition

Question 39: The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to _

Question 40: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?

A Their comic strips are still published today B They owned major competitive newspapers

C They established New York’s first newspaper D They published comic strips about the newspaper war

Question 41: The word “it” refers to _

Question 42: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?

A Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings B They were about real-life situations

C Readers could identify with the characters D They provided a break from serious news stories

Question 43: To say that Richard Outcault had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the following?

A Hearst warned Outcault not to leave the World B Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World

C Hearst fired Outcault from the World D Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World

Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The differences between early and modern comic strips

B Features of early comic strips in the United States

C The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories

D A comparison of two popular comic strips

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might (45) _ to brain cancer So far, the data are not conclusive The scientific evidence does not (46) _ us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (47) _ On the other hand, current research has not yet (48) _ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones

Numerous studies are now going (49) _ in various countries Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer (50) _, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation

(51) _ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long (52) _ of time Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either At the moment, research is in fact showing the (53) _ and they may be just as dangerous It is also thought that young people (54) _ bodies are still growing may

be at particular risk

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have

scientific names As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic

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diversity and distribution Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking

difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions

For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about

700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and

the whole of Europe supported only 321 This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed

A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly understood

Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal

communication" citations, even for vertebrates In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase

In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species It is hoped

that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized

Question 55: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A Their physical characteristics B Their adaptation to different habitats

Question 56: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to " _"

Question 57: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they

_

A are found mainly in temperate climates B have been given scientific names

C are simple in structure D are viewed positively by people

Question 58: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to " _"

Question 59: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to " _"

Question 60: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT

_

A differences between temperate and tropical zones

B variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants

C patterns of distribution of species in each region

D migration among temperate and tropical zones

Question 61: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where _

A a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established

B butterflies are affected by human populations

C butterfly behavior varies with climate

D documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species

Question 62: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A European butterfly habitats

B Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

C Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region

D Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

Question 63: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _

A there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution

B we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution

C we know much about butterfly evenness distribution

D we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

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Question 64: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to " _"

WRITING:

65 We can’t afford to buy the car

Top of this year ‘s popular (4) are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons, plane trip and parachuting , and hot air ballooning Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach – churning , while water rafting (5) down rapids

The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (6) I recently met an octogenarian who celebrated (7) the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson

Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century Unfortunately I was only a (8) relation

Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (9) the less extravagant or less adventurous among us However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal

at the Eiffel Tower I can (10) dream Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it

Question 3: A perfectly B dearly C outrageously D explicity

Question 4: A experiments B extravagances C exposures D expenses

Question 7: A attaining B arriving C reaching D getting

Question 10: A however B but C nevertheless D anyway

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions

Question 11: A invalid B predict C pretend D preface

Question 12: A mausoleum B conservative C disqualify D magnificant

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones

Question 14: A amused B supposed C expressed D pleased

Question 15: A account B south C southern D amount

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that could best replace the

underlined part without changing the meaning of the sentence

Question 16: Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases

Question17 : In the United States, a party can nominate a single candidate for office

Question 18 : The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries

Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!

Question 20 : A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first meeting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built

as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh It is the largest single structure in the world The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering

feat The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based

on astronomical observations

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past

Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?

Question 21: What has research of the base revealed?

A.there are cracks in the foundation B Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body

C The lines represent important events D A superior race of people built in

Question 22: Extraterrestrial beings are _

C researchers in Egyptology D living beings from other planets

Question 23: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages

A.To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly

B To permit the high priests to pray at night

B To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife

D To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh

Question 24: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to

Question 25: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?

A.Architects’plan for the hidden passages B Pathways of the great solar bodies

C Astrological computations D Dates of important events taking place throughout time

Question 26 : In the second passage , the word ‘ prophesied’ is closest in meaning to

Question 27: What is the best title for the passage?

A.Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid

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C Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

Question 28: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A Observation of the celestial bodies B Advanced technology

C Advanced tools of measurement D knowledge of the earth’s surface

Question 29: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?

C As a tomb for the Pharaoh D as an engineering feat

Question 30: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?

A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies

B It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops

C It was built by a super race

D It is very old

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question Question 31: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two hundred people

_ away

A would have turned B would turn C had been turned D would have to be turned

Question 32: _ he was good at physics in lower grade, he was terrible at it in grade 12

Question 33: It is better to try to work _ rather than against Nature

Question 34: In the years _ all the trees will disappear if nothing is done to protect them

Question 35: Large numbers of Americans watch and participate in sports activities, _ a deeply in grained part of

American life

Question 36: The accused _guilty to all charges

Question 37: Mrs Archer is known _ the finest collection of twentieth century art in private hands

Question 38: Mark is nearsighted He _ glasses ever since he was ten years old

Question 39: I like your new car What _ is it?

Question 40: It _ able to finish it in an hour

A couldn’t be too hard if you are B can’t have been too hard if you were

C can’t have been too hard if you had been D couldn’t be too hard if you had been

Question 41 : “ Let’s have supper now “ -“ ”

A You aren’t eating B I won’t C There aren’t any D Bill isn’t here

Question 42: _ an emergency arise, call 911

Question 43: _ in business, one must be prepared to take risks

Question 44: I don’t like this wine I like _

Question 45: The house is found _ down

Question 46: Please look through these papers _ your pleasure

Question 47: Only in the last few days _ to repair the swimming pool

A anything has been doneB has done anything C has anything been done D has there anything been done

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Question 48: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr Green, please “ – “ ”

A Sorry, can you say that again? B I’m sorry, I’ll call again later

Question 49 : _ percent in the population of Canada speak English?

Question 50 : ‘’ Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’ - “ ”

A I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention B Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each

Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England As early as the American Revolution It was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball , three outs per inning , a nine man team “The New York Game” spread rapidly , replacing earlier localized forms From its beginnings, baseball was seen

as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society At its inception it was it was

played by and for gentlemen A club might consists of 40 members The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often

providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners

During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games By 1868 it was said that a club

would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine , and their” muffins “ (the gently duffers who once ran the

game) Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871 The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors

in joint-stock company clubs The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age” Profits soared, player’s

salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into

being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda

pop and peanuts In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American

League

Question 51: What is the passage mainly about?

A the origin of baseball

B the commercialization of baseball

C the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

D the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 52: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”

B hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop

in baseball

C the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized

D business – minded investors were only interested in profits

Question 53: The word “ inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to

Question 54: The word “ lavish “ in line 11 is closest in meaning to

Question 55: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?

A a team might consist of 40 members B the president would choose teams from among the members

C they didn’t play on weekend D they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine Question 56 : According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true except

A commercialism became more prosperous B the clubs are smaller

C outstanding players got extra income D people gamed on the outcome of games

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Question 57 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “ Golden Age”?

A wooden stadiums replaced open fields B a weekly periodical commenced

C the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed

D profits soared

Question 58: The word” somewhat” in line 21 is closest in meaning to

A to a significant extent B to a minor extent C to not the same extent D to some extent

Question 59: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to

A the Western League B growing cities C the Midwest D the American League

Question 60: Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part following that needs correcting Question 61 : At the rate the clerks were processing the applications Joe figured that it will take four hours for his to be

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it mean the same as the sentence printed before it

65 Those pictures are beautiful

A are walking B have been walking C were walking D had been walking

Question 2: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the birthmark on his face

Question 3: _ from Bill, all the students said they would go

Question 4: Not until a monkey is several years old _to exhibit signs of independence from its mother

A beginning B does it begin C and begin D it begins

Question 5: These days almost everybody the danger of smoking

A know of B are aware of C is aware about D is aware of

Question 6: Had the drought not lowered the reservoir the ancient village

A wouldn't be discovered B wouldn't have been discovered

C can't have been discovered D can't be discovered

Question 7: It was not good to walk outside in _

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A such a fearful cold B such fear coldness C such fearful cold D so fearful a cold

Question 8: Mary: “Do you think it will rain? “ Jenny: “Oh! ”

A I don’t hope B I hope not C I don’t hope so D It’s hopeless

Question 9: It is believed _ causes insomnia

A too much caffeine which B that too much caffeine

C it in too much caffeine D too much caffeine that

Question 10: The train accident _ the other train’s departure by a few hours

A sent back B called off C delayed D retained

Question 11: Not only much bigger than any other planets, but unlike the planets, it consists completely of gaseous

material

A Sun is B the Sun, which is C is the Sun D that the Sun

A I don’t agree, I’m afraid B Yes, I’d love to

Question 13: to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser

A Being not B Not having been C.Have not been D Having not been

Question 14: She has to pass all her exams or _she would have no holiday

A instead B else C therefore D though

Question 15: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to a woman

A depends on B replies on C waits on D congratulates on

Question 16: A few diseases are still _in the world

A treatable B untreatable C treated D untreated

Question 17: That beautiful girl died of an morphine

Question 18: He me to believe that they had left the district

Question 19: He was completely _by her tale of hardship

Question 20: Uncle Ho’s desire was that our country might other countries in the world

A be fed up with B make use of C keep pace with D take grand for

Question 21: Sarah is a young girl with and a straight nose

A almond-shaped eyes B almond-eyed shape C eyes shaped almond D almond-shape eyed

Question 22: You shouldn't _ to your teacher like that It was very rude

Question 23: Don’t bother me while I _

Question 24: Oh, no! My wallet has been

Question 25: There's someone at the door it

Readthefollowingpassage and markthe letter A,B,C,orDonyouranswer sheettoindicatethe correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40

The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for George Washington to live in

it It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants President and Mrs.John Adams, who moved in on November

1, 1800 When the Adamses moved in, the White House was not yet complete, and the Adamses suffered many

inconveniences; for example, the main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry Thomas Jefferson, the third president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new architectural features such as the terraces on the east and west ends

When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to leave.All the

remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed.It was not until December of 1817 that

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