Quang Binh Training - Education Department Trung Hoa Secondry - High School Full name: The fourth test Class: 10 A Subject: English Marks: Time allotted: 45 minutes ( H ọc sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy này) I.Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others( 1ms) 1. A. maintain B. contain C. rainforest D. mountain 2. A. culture B. factory C. feature D. picture 3. A. national B. team C. turtle D. variety 4. A. attacked B. looked C. released D. wasted II. Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence.(2ms) 1. Some plants ………… us with medicines against cancer, AIDS and other sicknesses. A. give B. offer C. bring D. provide 2. At times, it can be……… for the keepers who look after wild animals in the new kind of zoo. A. dangerous B. safe C. secure D. unharmed 3. If I ……………you were coming, I’d have met you at the station. A. knew B. has known C. had known D. would know 4. This is the first national park to be ……………….in our country. A. organized B. set C. established D. found 5. People have sent ………………to investigate the seabed. A. submarines B. airplanes C. spaceships D. helicopters 6. If you ………… to me , you wouldn’t have got so much trouble. A. listened B. would listen C. had listened D. would have listened 7. Animal - lovers always take…………………….……their pets. A. care for B. care about C. care with D. care of 8. If you ……… to me yesterday, you ………… lost your bike. A. listen/will not B. listened/would not C. had listened/would not have D. had listened/hadn’t III. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tenses:(2ms) 1 . If I (know)………… ………his address, I would give it to you. 2 . If he worked more slowly, he (not make)…… ………… so many mistakes. 3 . He would have gone out if he ( finish) …………….……… ……his housework. 4 . They would have gotten wet if they ( not bring) …………… ……… rain coats. IV. Complete the second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one.(1,5ms) 1. I am not hungry, so I don't eat anything. => If I were ……………………………………… ……………………… … 2. He didn’t go to school on time this morning because the bus was late. => If the bus……………………………………… …………… 3. The Prime Minister opened the new school last year => The new school ……… . V. Give the correct form of the given words to complete the following sentence(1,5ms) 1. In this subject, we will learn how one species is dependent in another for…… ………………. (Survive) 2. Cuc Phuong National Park was ………… …opened in 1960. (Office) 3. The ……… is the place where orphaned or abandoned animals are taken care of. (Orphan) VI. Read the passage and choose the best answer.(2ms) Since 1961, the World Wildlife Fund has rescued over 30 mammals and birds from near extinction. It has supported conservation programs around the world and created 260 national parks on the five continents. One of the World Wildlife Fund’s most successful efforts has been the conservation of the polar bears. Their survival was endangered by hunters using rifles, motor - boats and aircraft. The World Wildlife Fund’s biggest land campaign has been the conservation of the tropical rain forests in order to protect different species of precious plants, birds and animals. 1. Where does the World Wildlife Fund have its program? A. In 260 nation parks B. All over the world C. In the tropical rain forests D. None of the places above. 2. The polar bears became one of the World Wildlife Fund’s interests because : A. They endangered hunters B. They lived in the tropical rain forests C. They were mammals D. Hunters were trying to kill them 3. The word species refers to: A. A groups of animals, plants , birds having some common characteristics. B. Groups of animals living in the tropical rain forests. C. Precious plants, birds and animals. D. Mammals and birds. 4. If people stop destroying the tropical rain forests: A. The World Wildlife Fund will be most successful. B. Different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be protected. C. Different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be endangered. D. Different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be in danger The end Đáp án và hướng dẫn chấm bài kiểm tra số 4 lớp 10-Học kỳ II I-Mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm.Tổng 1 điểm. 1-D 2-B 3-A 4-D II-Mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm.Tổng 2 điểm. 1-D 2-A 3-C 4-C 5-A 6-C 7-D 8-C III-Mỗi chỗ đúng 0,5 điểm.Tổng 2 điểm. 1. knew 2. wouldn’t make 3. had finished 4. had not brought IV-Mỗi câu đúng 0,5 điểm.Tổng 1,5 điểm 1- If I were hungry, I would eat something. 2- If the bus hadn’t been late, I would have gone to school on time this morning. 3-The new school was opened by the Prime minister last year. VI-Mỗi câu đúng 0,5 điểm.Tổng 1,5 điểm. 1-Survival 2-officially 3-orphanage VI-Mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm.Tổng 2 điểm 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-B The end Period, 70 Date of Preparing: 28/02/2010 THE THIRD TEST I Complete the folowing sentences, using the correct from of the verbs. (3 ms) 1. I would have bought a new car if I………… (have) enough money. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. If you…………… (phone) her, she would have gone out with us. ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 3. We would have played games if we…………….(have) free time. ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 4. My mother would have gone to Ha Noi if she………….(not be) ill last week. ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 5. If they had rain coat, they………………(not get) wet. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 6. What would happen if you……………… (press) this button? ………………………………………………………………………………………… II Put the verbs in the brackets in the correct form. (2 ms) 1. Everybody…… (tell) about the changes of the meeting yet? ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 2. When Tom came, the lesson ………(start) for 5 minutes. ………………………………………………………………………………………… … III. Read the following text and answer the questions (3 ms) Kakadu National Park (North Australia) covers an area of 12,432 square kilometers in northern Australia. The park was established in 1979 to preserve the culture of the Aborigines and maintain a good balance in ecology. The warm tropical climate provides good conditions for different species of fauna and flora to develop. At present, there about 300 Aborigines living in Kakadu National Park. A number of them are trained to become caretakers and managers of this park. 1. When was the Kakadu National Park established? ………………………………………………………………………………………… …. 2. Where is Kakadu National Park located? ………………………………………………………………………………………… …. 3. How many Aborigines are there in the park now? ………………………………………………………………………………………… … IV. One of your friends has invited you to go for a picnic to Phong Nha National Park Next weekend. Write a reply letter accepting or refusing his or her invitation.(2 ms) The end. Period, 71 Date of Preparing, 28/02/2010 TEST REMARK I. Aim. To help students get the correct answers of the test they have done. II. Steps. Fullname: The fourth test Class: 10 Subject: English Marks: Time: 45 minutes I. Complete the sentences using an adjective ending – ing or – ed of the verb in the brackets.(3 ms) 1. She was…………………………………….with her examination.( bore) 2. The spectators are…………………………….about the football match.(excite) 3. I am………………………………………by her beauty. ( fascinate) 4. In my opinion, English is very……………………………………( interest) 5. That story is too…………………………………………………(amuse) 6. Money can be …………………………………….everybody. (fascinate) II. Put a, an or the in numbered blanks.(2 ms) 1. Yesterday, my mother bought me …………(1) pen, ……… (2) ruler and ………….(3) eraser. 2. I have two new shirts……………(4) green one and ……………….(5) white one. 3. They live in ……………….(6) small house in…………….(7) countryside . They love their house very much so they always clean…………………(8) house everyday. III. Read the passage and answer the questions . (3ms) The most important championship in international football competition for women is the Women’s World Cup. Organised by FIFA – the sport’s largest governing body – its first tournament was held in 1991, sixty-one years after the first one for men. Although established not long ago, the Women’s World Cup is growing in popularity. Its first championship was held in China with 12 teams to sent to represent their countries. Eight years later. Over 650.00 spectators attended the finals, and nearly a billion viewers from 70 countries watched them on TV. And by the fourth tournament in 2003, the number of finalists has increased to 16. As FIFA estimates, the current 40 million girls and women playing football around the world will equal the number of men by 2010. 1. When was the first Women’s World Cup held? ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 2. How many teams attended in the first Women’s World Cup? ………………………………………………………………………………………… … 3. How many countries took part in the fourth tournament in 2003? ………………………………………………………………………………………… … IV. Write an announcement for a relief fund to support War invalids in July 27 th, using the cues given below.(2ms) Announcer: the mornitor of class 10 A Event: the musical performance of class 10A to raise money for War invalids in July 27 th Place: school meting hall Time: 7:30 p.m Saturday 20nd July Ticket price: 5,000 VND . Date of Preparing, 28/02/2 010 TEST REMARK I. Aim. To help students get the correct answers of the test they have done. II. Steps. Fullname: The fourth test Class: 10 Subject: English Marks:. 27 th, using the cues given below.(2ms) Announcer: the mornitor of class 10 A Event: the musical performance of class 10A to raise money for War invalids in July 27 th Place: school meting hall . câu đúng 0,25 điểm.Tổng 2 điểm 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-B The end Period, 70 Date of Preparing: 28/02/2 010 THE THIRD TEST I Complete the folowing sentences, using the correct from of the verbs.