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Đề thi và đáp án môn tiếng Anh của tỉnh Thanh hóa trong kỳ thi HSG cấp tỉnh năm học 2017 2018. Đính kèm file word là file nghe để cho học sinh nghe trong quá trình thi. GV, HS có thể tải về làm thử rồi so sánh đáp án có luôn trong file. GV cũng có thể tải về để ôn luyện cho HS.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HĨA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Số báo danh KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11- THPT Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 09/ 3/ 2018 Đề thi có 08 trang SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU • Bài nghe gồm phần, phần nghe lần, lần cách khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu • Mở đầu kết thúc nghe có tín hiệu nhạc Thí sinh có phút để hồn chỉnh trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc nghe • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có nghe PART I You will hear a radio announcer giving information about the competition Listen carefully and fill in the missing information in the numbered space NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS NEEDED (5pts) Competition Take a photograph showing (1) _ First prize: Holiday at (2) _ Bay, Jamaica Second prize: (3) _ worth £500 Closing date: (4) _ Age must be: (5) _ PART II Listen to Elisa, a rock star talking about her activities in the morning and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts) The first thing Elisa does every day is she checks her email messages T/F Elisa writes a couple of replies to the music journalists T/F After eating a pastry with coffee, Elisa reads newspapers and magazines T/F Elisa’s car arrives to take her to the studio at about 11.00 T/F 10 Elisa drinks a cup of coffee and talks about the ideas with her fans in the studio T/F PART III You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.(5pts) 11 How long has he been in his present job? A Since 2005 B For three months C For about three years D For three weeks 12 Why does he want a new job? A For a change C To see new friends 13 What does he like most about his job? A The right to take actions and make decisions C Working conditions 14 What kind of person are they looking for? A Someone prepares to work overtime C Someone who wants to get on 15 What qualifications does Peter have? A A certificate of law C A postgraduate diploma B To get promotion D To earn more money B His colleagues D High salary B Someone who is punctual D Someone who is helpful B A school leaving certificate D A degree SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts) 16 A complete B command C common D community 17 A clothes B breaths C mouths D youths 18 A leader B measles C great D teacher Question II Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts) 19 A inform B polite C police D politics 20 A history B mathematics C literature D physics SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Question I Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts) 21 Far _being poor, he is a millionaire A away B of C but D from 22 Various societies define _ in many rather complex ways A that is successful B what success is C that success is D what is success 23 Her father is a _ drinker He is always drinking A strong B addictive C heavy D capable 24 Scott’s tunes were a _ of classical European and African beat A mixture B combine C mix D combination 25 We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is the law A beyond B over C above D onto 26 I accidentally broke the by stepping on it I apologized to them for my carelessness A child’s toys B children’s toy C child’s toy D children’s toys 27 You should consider the _ carefully before you make a decision A pros and cons B safe and sound C spick and span D adds and ends 28 _ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music A Being considering B Considering C Considered D To consider 29 “Who was the man with you yesterday?” - “He was _.” A the next door man B the man next to the door C the man next by the door D the man next door 30 Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and is not A the second B the other C another D other Question II Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (8 pts) 31 I don’t know why you always (talk) in class, boys? 32 Tom will never forget (send) _ to a boarding school when he was just years old 33 There were some people (row) _ on the river 34 It was our fault to keep Mary waiting so long She (inform) in advance 35 He has been writing a letter to his family for half an hour Now he (post) it 36 If television had been invented in the eighteenth century, George Washington (interview) regularly on the evening news 37 Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) to Vietnam since yesterday 38 Sam (not receive) _ the parcel the last time I spoke to him Question III Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (7pts) 39 His busy schedule made him completely to his students (ACCESS) 40 Rescue team held out little hope of finding other (SURVIVE) 41 I really believe that it would be a major mistake to _ any drugs (CRIME) that are currently illegal 42 My lazy brother is about the history of Vietnam (KNOW) 43 The comedian joked about a plane crash and some in the audience thought he was being 44 The shark’s is somewhat unfair as fatal attacks are (RESPECT) (NOTORIOUS) extremely rare 45 Everyone thinks Ben is a weatherman, but he’s actually a _, (CLIMATE) who is far more advanced Question IV The passage below contains mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ) Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet (5 pts) Line 10 Language is considered a significant means for communication in international relations People in modern world have no longer been bound to their own countries Moreover, in keeping informed with speedily scientific developments nowadays, they must widen their cooperative relations with those highly developing nations in other parts of the world Due to the fact that no one is able to communicate with any natives in the world, it is necessary for people to choose to learn a foreign language as a world-widely common means of communication That is why English has been chosen by almost people to be a foreign language to master More and more people use English and the number of those who learn English as a foreign language has been increased so rapidly that it is the highest nowadays Example: Line 1: for→ of SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 points) In the age of alternative sources of energy, solar energy has come to the forefront To harness energy from the sun, or solar energy, one must receive it (51) _directly from the Sun or through very brief intermediate processes An example of the (52) _is when crops which were grown using solar input are then used as fuel or biomass Solar energy has many (53) _, from heating cool buildings to racing cars It can also be converted directly into electricity Importantly, it is generally considered (54) _for the environment, since it produces almost no known hazards However, there are many criticisms of solar energy It is often not a (5) _ or viable alternative in cold climates or places (56) _go without seeing the sun for long periods of time It is also very difficult to transport Power towers may be used to store solar energy for a limited period of time, so when there is little or no (57) _in certain regions, this source of power can not be utilized Thus, though many environmentalists and other (58) strongly advocate solar energy as a prime source of power, harvesting it and using it on a long-term basis are (59) _ Until more of these basic problems have been ironed out, there seems to be little hope that this will (60) into a major source of energy for our communities Question II Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space Write the answers on your answer sheet (10pts) INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION Television has changed the (61) of people in every industrialized country in the world In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting (62) have been made TV, although not essential, has become an integral part of most people’s lives It has become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major (63) of culture, and a keeper of traditions (64) when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer The poor quality of programs does not elevate people (65) greater understanding, but rather maintains and encourages the status quo The primary reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV development and the (66) of TV TV in American began with the radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with TV Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio programs improved, and (67) actually produced the programs Thus, coming from the capitalistic, profit - oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily (68) reflecting and attracting society rather than innovating and experimenting with new ideas Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to so (69) that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging TV in America today remains, to a large extent, with the same organization and standards (70) it had thirty years ago The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the entire system 61 A habit B hobby 62 A experiments B observations 63 A transmitter B transporter 64 A Yet B Nevertherless 65 A with B for 66 A economy B economics 67 A much B a few 68 A concerned with B related to 69 A expects B requires 70 A since B because Question III Read the passage and choose the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts) C lifestyle D interest C surveys D interviews C transistor D transformer C Moreover D If C towards D into C economical D economist C few D many C responsible for D keen on C thinks D suggests C as D although best answers to questions below Write the In the early days of the United States, postal charges were paid by the recipients and charges varied with the distance carried In 1825, the United States Congress permitted local postmasters to give letters to mail carriers for home delivery, but these carriers received no government salary and their entire compensation depended on what they were paid by the recipients of individual letters In 1847 the United States Post Office Department adopted the idea of a postage stamp, which of course simplified the payment for postal service but caused grumbling by those who did not like to prepay Besides, the stamp covered only delivery to the post office and did not include carrying it to a private address In Philadelphia, for example, with a population of 150.000, people still had to go to the post office to get their mail The confusion and congestion of individual citizens looking for their letters was itself enough to discourage use of the mail It is no wonder that, during the years of these cumbersome arrangements, private letter - carrying and express businesses developed Although their activities were only semi-legal, they thrived, and actually advertised that between Boston and Philadelphia they were a half - day speedier than the government mail The government postal service lost volume to private competition and was not able to handle efficiently even the business it had Finally, in 1863, Congress provided that the mail carriers who delivered the mail from the post offices to private addresses should receive a government salary, and that there should be no extra charge for that delivery But this delivery service was at first confined to cities, and free home delivery became a mark of urbanism As late as 1887, a town had to have 10.000 people to be eligible for free home delivery In 1890, of the 75 million people in the United States, fewer than 20 million had mail delivered free to their doors The rest, nearly three-quarters of the population, still received no mail unless they went to their post office 71 What does the passage mainly discuss? A The increased use of private mail services B The development of a government postal system C A comparison of urban and rural postal services D The history of postage stamps 72 It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the United States in the early 19 th century A the recipient had to pay to receive the letters B the recipient paid the same for all kinds of letters C postage stamps for letters came into use D the mail carriers earned a lot of money from the government 73 Which of the following was seen as a disadvantage of the postage stamp? A It had to be purchased by the sender in advance B It increased the cost of mail delivery C It was difficult to affix to letters D It was easy to counterfeit 74 Why does the author mention the city to Philadelphia? A It was the site of the first post office in the United States B Its postal service was inadequate for its population C It was the largest city in the United States in 1847 D It was commemorated by the first United States postage stamp 75 The private postal services of the 19 th century claimed that they could which of the following better than the government? A Deliver a higher volume of mail B Deliver mail more cheaply C Deliver mail faster D Deliver mail to rural areas 76 The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to A Boston and Philadelphia B businesses C arrangements D letters 77 The word “cumbersome” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A quick and safe B slow but safe C slow and complicated D safe and efficient 78 In 1863 the United States government began providing which of the following to mail carriers? A salary B housing C transportation D free postage stamps 79 The word “confined” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A granted B scheduled C recommended D limited 80 All of the following statements are true of the American postal service in the second half of the 19th century EXCEPT A Delivery service distinguishes cities from the countryside B People paid more to get their letters delivered to their home C Small towns did not provide delivery service D About 55 million people had to get to the post office to receive their mail SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts) Question I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts) 81 The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect But for 82 You are under no obligation to accept their offer You can please _ 83 Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life Martin's poor 84 I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to him I wish _ 85 Mick thought that we were married Mick was _ Question II Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given Do not change the form of the given word Write the answers on your answer sheet (5pts) 86 In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club (REGRETS) 87 Don’t worry There will be another chance (KEEP) 88 His choice always followed what his wife decided (STEP) 89 We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept 90 The fridge is completely empty (CONSEQUENCE) (LEFT) Question III Essay writing (10 pts) It is said that young people should volunteer work while studying Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words to support your opinion - THE END SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HĨA KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM ( HDC gồm 04 trang) Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 09/ 3/ 2018 SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts) PART I You will hear a radio announcer giving information about the competition Listen carefully and fill in the missing information in the numbered space (5pts) family life Silver Sand camera 31, August over 18 PART II Listen to Elisa, a rock star talking about her activities in the morning and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts) T F F T 10 F PART III You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.(5pts) 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 A 15 D SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts) 16.C 17.B 18.C Question II Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts) 19.D 20.B SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Question I Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence (10 pts) 21.D 26.B 22.B 27.A 23.C 28.C 24.A 29.D 25.C 30.B Question II Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (8 pts) 31 are always talking 35 is going to post 32 being sent 36 would have been interviewed 33 rowing 37 has come 34 should have been informed 38 hadn’t received Question III Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (7pts) 39 inaccessible 43 disrespectful 40 survivors 44 notoriety 41 decriminalize 45 climatologist 42 unknowledgeable Question IV The passage below contains mistakes ( from 31 to 36 ) Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet (5 pts) 46 Line 3: speedily → speedy 47 Line 4: developing → developed 48 Line 7: world- widely → world- wide 49 Line 8: almost → most 50 Line 10: increased → increasing SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts) 51 either 56 that/ which 52 latter 57 sunlight 53 purposes 58 proponents/supporters 54 safe 59 problematic 55 practical 60 turn Question II Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space Write the answers on your answer sheet (10pts) 61 C 62 B 63 A 64 A 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 A 69 B 70 C Question III Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts) 71 B 76 B 72 A 77 C 73 A 78 A 74 B 79 D 75 C 80 B 10 SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts) Question I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it (5 pts) 81 But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail 82 You can please yourself (yourselves) about whether you accept their offer or not 83 Martin's poor health doesn't stop ( prevent ) him from enjoying life 84 I wish I had gone to the airport to say goodbye to him 85 Mick was under the impression that we were married Question II Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given Do not change the form of the given word (5pts) 86 I had no regrets about/on/ over leaving/ having the club in the end 87 Keep your end up, there will be another chance 88 His choice was always in step with his wife’s decision/ what his wife decided 89 We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of oversleeping 90 There is nothing left in the fridge Question III Essay writing (10 pts) Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme Format: pts ( coherence, cohesion , style ) The essay should include parts: a Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly b Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples c Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment) Content : 5pts A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument 11 Note: - Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree - Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her own opinion in the conclusion Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures ) B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM: - Tổng điểm toàn : 100 điểm - Thang điểm: 20 Tổng số điểm câu làm Điểm thi = - Điểm thi làm tròn đến 0,25 - THE END 12 ... DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HĨA KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2017 -2018 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM ( HDC gồm 04 trang) Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) ... ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM ( HDC gồm 04 trang) Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 09/ 3/ 2018 SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts) PART I You will hear a radio announcer giving information... B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM: - Tổng điểm toàn : 100 điểm - Thang điểm: 20 Tổng số điểm câu làm Điểm thi = - Điểm thi làm tròn đến 0,25 - THE END 12