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Bộ 8 đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án

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Hãy tham khảo Bộ 8 đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án để giúp các em biết thêm cấu trúc đề thi giữa học kì 2 như thế nào, rèn luyện kỹ năng giải bài tập và có thêm tư liệu tham khảo chuẩn bị cho kì thi học kì sắp tới đạt điểm tốt hơn.

BỘ ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ MƠN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12 NĂM 2020-2021 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN MỤC LỤC Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT Đồn Thượng Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT Thị Xã Quảng Trị Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT Phan Ngọc Hiển Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án – Đề số MA DE 132 SỞ GD VÀ ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THƯỢNG MÃ ĐỀ THI: 132 Trang 1/4 ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 12 (CB) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (khơng tính thời gian giao đề) Số Question đề thi: 40 Question – Số trang: 04 trang - Họ tên thí sinh: - Số báo danh : Choose the underlined part that needs correcting This morning we were interviewed a number of candidates, but none of them impressed us A B C D African elephants are more larger and heavier than Asian elephants, and they have got bigger ears A B C D Widespread habitat destruction have driven many species on this island to the verge of extinction A B C D Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences below Never have I read such a hard-to-pick-up-again long story like the one you recommend It's terrible A read-worthy B disaster-stricken C water-proof D novel-like It's possibly that the injury in the last game that makes her performance unsuccessful today A unlikely B namely C solely D similarly Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences Keep quiet You _ talk so loudly in here Everybody is working A must B may C mustn't D needn't This test _ in pen Pencils are not allowed A must be writing B must write C must have written D must be written Where is camera I lent you last Sunday? A a B Ø (no article) C the D an Her academic performance has improved It is becoming A better and better B the more gooder C more and more good D gooder and gooder 10 It took Bob a long time to get _ the breakup of his marriage A over B across C along with D through 11 Tim didn't pass the exam He spent too much time playing games He _ harder A must have worked B had had worked C need have worked D should have worked 12 If a defender _ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking team is awarded a penalty throw or shot A punches B commits C interferes D touches 13 _ is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars A Water polo B Rowing C Windsurfing D Swimming Anna: "She is honest, friendly and very helpful." 14 Jane: " " A How old is our new classmate? B What does our new classmate like? C How does our new classmate look like? D What is our new classmate like? MA DE 132 Trang 2/4 15 Humans depend on species _ to have food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture A fertilizer B diversity C destruction D contamination 16 Everybody says that I take _ my father We are both decisive and stubborn A up B after C over D along 17 Known worldwide by its panda logo, WWF is _ to protecting the world's wildlife and the rich biological diversity that we all need to survive A objected B aim C legal D dedicated The larger a drop of water, freezing temperature 18 A its higher B the highest C the higher its D higher than its - John: "It's is from 1.2 to 1.5 m high" 19 Daisy: " " A How long is a giant panda? B What high is a giant panda? C What is the height of a giant panda? D How is tall a giant panda? Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the one given 20 It isn't necessary for you to hand in your homework today A Your homework can't be sent today B You mustn't hand in your homework today C Your homework must be sent today D You needn't hand in your homework today 21 I'm sure he did this because I saw him standing there A He may have done this because I saw him standing there B He can have done this because I saw him standing there C He must have done this because I saw him standing there D He need have done this because I saw him standing there 22 His fondness for English increases with his proficiency A The more proficiency he is, his fondness for English increases B The more proficient he is at English, the more fondness he is C The more fondness for English increases, the more his proficiency is D The more proficient he is at English, the more he likes it 23 Scuba-diving is more interesting than snorkeling A Snorkeling isn't as interesting as scuba-diving B Scuba-diving is less interesting than snorkeling C Snorkeling is more interesting than scuba-diving D Scuba-diving isn't as interesting as snorkeling 24 We are going to organize a surprise party for Dad on Sunday A A surprise party is going to be held for Dad on Sunday B A surprise party are going to be held for Dad on Sunday C A surprise party for Dad is going to hold on Sunday D Dad is going to hold a surprise party on Sunday Read the passage and choose the best answer Every four years, the Summer Olympic Games kick off with an elaborate opening ceremony that welcomes athletes from every competing nation However, preparations and celebrations for the Olympic Games start long before the opening ceremony The true beginning of the Olympic celebration is the lighting of the Olympic torch and the relay that carries the flame to the host city The Olympic torch is lit at a ceremony in Olympia, Greece, where the ancient games were held One requirement for the Olympic flame is that it must be created using only sunlight and a mirror The flame is lit months before the games, and the first runner begins the great relay among the ruins of the ancient Olympic stadium MA DE 132 Trang 3/4 The first modern Olympic torch relay took place in Berlin, in the summer of 1936 At the beginning, runners were mainly selected from the Olympic athletes, but later, regular citizens ― including children, old people, and people with disabilities ― began to participate as well Carrying the torch is a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity and a great honor Traditionally, the torch is carried on foot However, sometimes other kinds of transport are needed When the torch must go overseas, it is sent on a private plane The torch has also been carried underwater For the Sydney Summer Games in 2000, a diver swam with the torch! At the end of the relay, the flame is used to light a giant pot The light, a symbol of the Olympic spirit, burns throughout the games 25 The passage is mainly about _ A the tradition of the Olympic flame and torch relay B the sports in the Summer Olympic Games C the Olympics in ancient Greece D the Olympic opening ceremony 26 Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A People with disabilities can carry the torch B The torch is always carried on foot C The Olympic flame is created using sunlight and a mirror D The light from the Olympic flame continues to burn during the Games 27 The Olympic Games truly begin when _ A the opening ceremony takes place B athletes from competing nations arrive C the Olympic torch is lit D the first sport event takes place 28 The torch is lit in Greece because that is where _ A the ancient games were held B the Olympics are held every year C the flame is always burning D there are a lot of mirrors and sunlight 29 The word kick off in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A take place B start C announce D compete Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others' in the same group 30 A organize B diving C survive D physical 31 A banned B reduced C conserved D appalled Choose the word that is different from the rest in the position of the main stressed syllable 32 A psychology B activity C dictionary D biology 33 A novel B office C romance D comic Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences below 34 Viet Nam's successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/an outstanding example for other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method A excellent B energetic C ordinary D peaceful 35 They had to put off their trip because of the bad weather A continue B organize C postpone D cancel Choose the answer that best fits each gap in the text below MA DE 132 Trang 4/4 The vast number of species prevailing on planet Earth is the result of evolutionary processes that have been operating (36) _ life originated about 3.5 billion years ago As new species evolved, a small number of species that became misfits in the prevailing environment (37) _ extinct (background extinction) However, the rapid increase in human population and humanity's greed for luxurious living have resulted in marked environmental degradation, particularly in the recent decades, increasing species extinction hundred or even thousand-fold compared to background extinctions, thus precipitating the 'sixth mass extinction' crisis Unlike the past five mass extinctions that were due to natural catastrophes, the sixth mass extinction would be exclusively the (38) _ of human activities Habitat loss and its degradation, overexploitation of bio-resources and climate change have been the main drivers of the sixth mass extinction crisis Amongst human-induced environmental changes, climate change is going to affect humanity more than (39) _ changes Apart from exterminating a large number of both terrestrial and aquatic species, these changes bring down crop productivity and (40) _ substantially, thus seriously compromising ecosystem services essential for human welfare Mitigating human-induced environmental changes has become one of the highest priorities for the humanity to sustain biodiversity and human welfare 36 37 38 39 40 A after A came A reason A others A qualified B until B went B cause B the others B quality C when C reached C end C any other C qualifying _ THE END _ D since D remained D result D another D qualify MA DE 209 SỞ GD VÀ ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THƯỢNG MÃ ĐỀ THI: 209 Trang 5/4 ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 12 (CB) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (khơng tính thời gian giao đề) Số Question đề thi: 40 Question – Số trang: 04 trang - Họ tên thí sinh: - Số báo danh : Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences below It's possibly that the injury in the last game that makes her performance unsuccessful today A solely B similarly C unlikely D namely Never have I read such a hard-to-pick-up-again long story like the one you recommend It's terrible A disaster-stricken B water-proof C novel-like D read-worthy Choose the answer that best fits each gap in the text below The vast number of species prevailing on planet Earth is the result of evolutionary processes that have been operating (3) _ life originated about 3.5 billion years ago As new species evolved, a small number of species that became misfits in the prevailing environment (4) _ extinct (background extinction) However, the rapid increase in human population and humanity's greed for luxurious living have resulted in marked environmental degradation, particularly in the recent decades, increasing species extinction hundred or even thousand-fold compared to background extinctions, thus precipitating the 'sixth mass extinction' crisis Unlike the past five mass extinctions that were due to natural catastrophes, the sixth mass extinction would be exclusively the (5) _ of human activities Habitat loss and its degradation, overexploitation of bio-resources and climate change have been the main drivers of the sixth mass extinction crisis Amongst human-induced environmental changes, climate change is going to affect humanity more than (6) _ changes Apart from exterminating a large number of both terrestrial and aquatic species, these changes bring down crop productivity and (7) _ substantially, thus seriously compromising ecosystem services essential for human welfare Mitigating human-induced environmental changes has become one of the highest priorities for the humanity to sustain biodiversity and human welfare A until A remained A reason A any other A qualify B when B reached B result B the others B quality C after C came C cause C others C qualified D since D went D end D another D qualifying Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others' in the same group A banned B reduced C conserved D appalled A organize B diving C physical D survive Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the one given 10 We are going to organize a surprise party for Dad on Sunday MA DE 209 Trang 6/4 A A surprise party are going to be held for Dad on Sunday B A surprise party for Dad is going to hold on Sunday C A surprise party is going to be held for Dad on Sunday D Dad is going to hold a surprise party on Sunday 11 It isn't necessary for you to hand in your homework today A You needn't hand in your homework today B Your homework must be sent today C Your homework can't be sent today D You mustn't hand in your homework today I'm sure he did this because I saw him standing there 12 A He can have done this because I saw him standing there B He may have done this because I saw him standing there C He need have done this because I saw him standing there D He must have done this because I saw him standing there 13 His fondness for English increases with his proficiency A The more proficient he is at English, the more he likes it B The more proficient he is at English, the more fondness he is C The more proficiency he is, his fondness for English increases D The more fondness for English increases, the more his proficiency is 14 Scuba-diving is more interesting than snorkeling A Scuba-diving isn't as interesting as snorkeling B Snorkeling isn't as interesting as scuba-diving C Snorkeling is more interesting than scuba-diving D Scuba-diving is less interesting than snorkeling Read the passage and choose the best answer Every four years, the Summer Olympic Games kick off with an elaborate opening ceremony that welcomes athletes from every competing nation However, preparations and celebrations for the Olympic Games start long before the opening ceremony The true beginning of the Olympic celebration is the lighting of the Olympic torch and the relay that carries the flame to the host city The Olympic torch is lit at a ceremony in Olympia, Greece, where the ancient games were held One requirement for the Olympic flame is that it must be created using only sunlight and a mirror The flame is lit months before the games, and the first runner begins the great relay among the ruins of the ancient Olympic stadium The first modern Olympic torch relay took place in Berlin, in the summer of 1936 At the beginning, runners were mainly selected from the Olympic athletes, but later, regular citizens ― including children, old people, and people with disabilities ― began to participate as well Carrying the torch is a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity and a great honor Traditionally, the torch is carried on foot However, sometimes other kinds of transport are needed When the torch must go overseas, it is sent on a private plane The torch has also been carried underwater For the Sydney Summer Games in 2000, a diver swam with the torch! At the end of the relay, the flame is used to light a giant pot The light, a symbol of the Olympic spirit, burns throughout the games 15 The word kick off in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A take place B start C announce D compete 16 The Olympic Games truly begin when _ A the Olympic torch is lit B athletes from competing nations arrive C the first sport event takes place D the opening ceremony takes place 17 The passage is mainly about _ MA DE 209 Trang 7/4 A the sports in the Summer Olympic Games B the Olympics in ancient Greece C the tradition of the Olympic flame and torch relay D the Olympic opening ceremony 18 Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A People with disabilities can carry the torch B The Olympic Flame is created using sunlight and a mirror C The light from the Olympic flame continues to burn during the Games D The torch is always carried on foot 19 The torch is lit in Greece because that is where _ A the Olympics are held every year B the ancient games were held C there are a lot of mirrors and sunlight D the flame is always burning Choose the underlined part that needs correcting 20 African elephants are more larger and heavier than Asian elephants, and they have got bigger ears A B C D 21 Widespread habitat destruction have driven many species on this island to the verge of extinction A B C D 22 This morning we were interviewed a number of candidates, but none of them impressed us A B C D Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences 23 Humans depend on species _ to have food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture A diversity B contamination C fertilizer D destruction 24 Keep quiet You _ talk so loudly in here Everybody is working A mustn't B must C needn't D may 25 If a defender _ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking team is awarded a penalty throw or shot A punches B touches C commits D interferes 26 Tim didn't pass the exam He spent too much time playing games He _ harder A need have worked B had had worked C must have worked D should have worked 27 _ is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars A Water polo B Windsurfing C Swimming D Rowing 28 Known worldwide by its panda logo, WWF is _ to protecting the world's wildlife and the rich biological diversity that we all need to survive A objected B aim C legal D dedicated It took Bob a long time to get _ the breakup of his marriage 29 A through B along with C over D across - John: "It's is from 1.2 to 1.5 m high" 30 Daisy: " " A What is the height of a giant panda? B How long is a giant panda? C What high is a giant panda? D How is tall a giant panda? 31 Everybody says that I take _ my father We are both decisive and stubborn A after B over C along D up 32 The larger a drop of water, freezing temperature A higher than its B its higher C the higher its D the highest Anna: "She is honest, friendly and very helpful." 33 Jane: " " MA DE 209 A How does our new classmate look like? C What does our new classmate like? Trang 8/4 B What is our new classmate like? D How old is our new classmate? 34 Her academic performance has improved It is becoming A more and more good B the more gooder C better and better 35 Where is camera I lent you last Sunday? A the B an C a 36 This test _ in pen Pencils are not allowed A must be writing B must write C must have written D gooder and gooder D Ø (no article) D must be written Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences below 37 They had to put off their trip because of the bad weather A postpone B organize C continue D cancel 38 Viet Nam's successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/an outstanding example for other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method A energetic B ordinary C excellent D peaceful Choose the word that is different from the rest in the position of the main stressed syllable 39 A office B novel C romance D comic 40 A activity B dictionary C psychology D biology _ THE END _ Question 24 She brought a lot of money with her so that she needed buy some duty-free goods A brought B with C needed buy D duty-free goods Question 25 Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found A lack B financial C urban areas D are found Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 26 The last time I talked to Rose was two years ago A I haven’t talked to Rose for two years B I haven’t talked to Rose two years ago C I haven’t talked to Rose since two years D I hadn’t talked to Rose for two years Question 27 My sister is often sick because she doesn’t physical exercise A If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick B If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick C If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick D If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would sick Question 28 They think that the prisoner escaped by climbing over the wall A The prisoner is thought to escape by climbing over the wall B The prisoner is thought escaped by climbing over the wall C The prisoner is thought having escaped by climbing over the wall D The prisoner is thought to have escaped by climbing over the wall Question 29 The church is over 500 years old Our class visited it last summer A The church which our class visited it last summer is over 500 years old B The church that our class visited it last summer is over 500 years old C The church which our class visited last summer is over 500 years old D The church our class visit last summer is over 500 years old Question 30 The workers finished their work They left for home A The workers left for home before finishing their work B Having finished their work, the workers left for home C The workers had left for home before finishing their work D Having to leave for home, the workers finished their work Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks Manuel Gonzalez comes from Spain He usually lives in Madrid and works (31) a journalist for a Spanish newspaper, but two years ago he decided to take a year (32) work to live in different countries in Europe and write a book about Europeans He spent the first two months in Scandinavia (33) information and then moved to Germany for a month At present he is staying in Paris, where he is renting a flat for five weeks Four years ago he wrote a (34) travel guide to Spain and now he is working hard to have the same (35) with his book about Europeans Question 31 A in B for C by D as Question 32 A off B to C away D from Question 33 A collected B to collect C collecting D collection Question 34 A best-sell B best-sold C best-selling D best-to- sell Question 35 A succeed B success C successful D successfully ĐÁP ÁN 1C 2B 3B 4D 5C 6A 7D 8A 9B 10C 11B 12A 13C 14D 15B 16B 17A 18C 19A 20D 21B 22C 23D 24C 25B 26A 27C 28D 29C 30B 31D 32A 33C 34C 35B ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ MƠN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Đề 5) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A subscribed B launched C inspired D welcomed Question 2: A sour B hour C pour D flour Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs front the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A conserve B achieve C employ D waver Question 4: A perseverance B application C agriculture D dedication Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise Question 6: (A) More than ten students (B) have failed the exam, (C) that surprised (D) the class teacher Question 7: The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C) extinct (D) have increased Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: He is exhausted He around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the guests arrive A has been running B has run C be running D was running Question 9: Barack Obama is President of United States A the/ the B a/ C the/ D the/ an Question 10: John would like to specialize computer science A of B to C in D at Question 11: he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came A Hardly had B No sooner had C No longer has D Not until had Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their parents So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones A long-term B up-to-date C weather-beaten D wide-ranging Question 13: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she it A would accept B wouldn't accept C wouldn’t have accepted D would have accepted Question 14: John asked me that film the night before A that I saw B had I seen C if I had seen D if had I seen Question 15: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural A solidarity B identity C assimilation D celebration Question 16: Waste paper can be used again after being A produced B recycled C wasted D preserved Question 17: - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school" - “ ” A Sorry to hear that B Thanks It’s certainly encouraging C Of course D I am glad you like it Question 18: The government is aiming 50 % reduction unemployment A to/in B at/in C at/of D for/of Question 19: No one enjoys in public A being made fun of B to be made fun of C making fun of D to make fun of Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents He asked a local passerby the way to the post-office Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange - John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?” - Passer-by: “ ” A Not way, sorry B Just round the corner over there C Look it up in a dictionary! D There’s no traffic near here Question 21: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange - Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!” -Lora: “ ” A No, I don't think so B Oh, you don't like it, you? C Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s D Thanks, my mum bought it Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 22: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice A being considerate of things B remembering to right things C forgetful of one’s past D often forgetting things Question 23: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society A informative B delighted C exciting D essential Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we A interested B dissatisfied C excited D shocked Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly A gently B cleverly C reasonably D brutally Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 26: However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality A His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn B His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality C He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality D No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause A He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty B If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause C Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause D He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor Question 28: I thought Ỉ should not stay at home yesterday A I regretted staying at home yesterday B I regretted for staying at home yesterday C I regret for staying at home yesterday D I regret to stay at home yesterday Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park People should not cut down the trees in the park A People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park B People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park C People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park D People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park Question 30: Most of the classmates couldn't come He invited them to the birthday party A Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come B Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come C Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come D Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't make jokes (31) you in the UK and USA when you first meet people They work in a very organized way and prefer to one thing at a time They don't like interruptions or (32) changes of schedule Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments At meeting, it’s important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (33) speaker If you give a presentation, you should focus (34) facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (35) a person asks you to Question 31: A while B as if C such as D as Question 32: A sudden B suddenly C abruptly D promptly Question 33: A other B others C another D the other Question 34: A on B to C at D in Question 35: A if only B as C unless D since ĐÁP ÁN 1C 2C 3D 4C 5C 6C 7D 8A 9A 10C 11A 12C 13C 14C 15B 16B 17B 18D 19A 20B 21C 22D 23D 24C 25A 26B 27C 28A 29B 30A 31D 32A 33D 34A 35C ... đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21... mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án - Trường THPT Phan Ngọc Hiển Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án – Đề số Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp. .. LỤC Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án - Trường THPT Đồn Thượng Đề thi học kì mơn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 20 20 -20 21 có đáp án - Trường THPT Thị Xã Quảng Trị Đề thi học kì

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