Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cấp huyện

BỘ ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP CẤP HUYỆN NĂM 2020-2021 MỤC LỤC Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Hà Trung Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Thanh Hóa Đề thi học sinh giỏi mơn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Thọ Xuân Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phòng GD&ĐT Vĩnh Lộc Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 - Phòng GD&ĐT Nga Sơn Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 - Phịng GD&ĐT Triệu Sơn PHỊNG GD & ĐT ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN HUYỆN HÀ TRUNG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts) The Birthday Gift It is going to be my father's birthday What can I give him? I don't have much money I have looked all through the (1) ., and I have not found anything that I think he would like, or that I can afford I have thought very (2) about what to buy for him I thought that he might like some (3) ., but my father really doesn't eat many sweets I thought that he might like a new shirt, but he has lots of (4) I can't afford a new car or computer for him I was (5) him on the weekend He cut the grass, washed the car, took out the garbage, weeded the garden and (6) the plants I got an idea I went to my room and took out some paper, I cut (7) pieces of paper, and I wrote on them I wrote on one piece of paper that I would wash the car every weekend for the summer I wrote on another piece that I would (8) out the garbage every week for the summer I (9) wrote that I would cut the grass, weed the garden and water the plants every week for the summer I made a birthday (10) for my dad, and I put the pieces of paper inside it I went (11) and gave my gift to my dad My dad thought that the (12) was very thoughtful He said that it was a gift from the heart I did all those things for my dad all summer He said that he had a lot of free time because I (13) him so much My dad and I are good friends I don't mind doing things for him because I know that he is always there to help me out A good gift doesn't have to be something that (14) a lot My dad says that the best gifts are the ones that (15) how much you care for the other person I'm glad my dad liked his gift PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16 A durian B hurry C duty D computer 17 A character B chemistry C scheme D chapter 18 A wanted B returned C worried D preferred 19 A height B weight C eight D freight 20 A serious B sunbathe C sugar D symptom II Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21 A harvest B contain C flower D awful 22 A explore B cartoon C dislike D absence 23 A comfortable B anniversary C education D information 24 A decorate B equation C history D satellite 25 A interview B regular C restaurant D selection PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26 …………… your father play chess at the Chess Club, Lan? - Twice a week A How much B How long C How often D How many 27 My little brother is used to …………… late in the morning A stay B to stay C staying D stayed 28 My cousin, Ly Hung, is …………… student in our school A more intelligent B the most intelligent C intelligenter D intelligentest 29 The ………… always comes early, so my father gets his letters before he goes to work A engineer B mailman C porter D chemist 30 My friends agreed to come to the festival …………… from Thomas A except B only C apart D accept 31 Don't forget …………… your teeth before going to bed, little boys and girls! A to brush B brushing C about brushing D not to brush 32 I didn’t see the end of the movies last night because I …………… asleep A felt B fell C went D felled 33 We are rehearsing a play for our school anniversary …………… A celebrate B celebrated C celebrating D celebrations 34 I never play video games in my free time and A so does Ha B Ha doesn’t, too C Ha doesn’t, either D Neither doesn’t Ha 35 The letter is ……………… French but I can’t speak a word of French Can you help me? A in B with C by D on II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36 I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green (LEAF) 37 Now, the students in my class are having a check-up (MEDICINE) 38 Give me something to drink please! I’m dying of (THIRSTY) 39 You shouldn’t eat food because it’s not good for your health (HEALTH) 40 All of the us must remember to eat (SENSE) 41 Please help me with this sentence: “ is better than cure.” (PREVENT) 42 All the words in a dictionary are in order (ALPHABET) 43 People of all can join the walking activity (ABLE) 44 The noise in the city kept Hoa at night last week (WAKE) 45 Last Sunday, we went to the center (AMUSE) III Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46 I’m very hungry, Mom I think we should stop (have) ………………dinner 47 I (phone) ………………my parents when I arrive in Da Lat this afternoon 48 My father decided (not/ buy) ………………that new car 49 The worker (break) ………………his leg yesterday? 50 Mommy! Could you tell me how (make) ………………a conical hat? PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) British parents are always complaining that (51)……….…… children spend too much time (52)………………TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading A (53)……….……survey of people’s free time activities (54)………………that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55)……….……of the television set, that means over hours a day It is (56) ………………that the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week Every household in the county has a TV set and over half have two or more According (57)……………… the survey people not only watch TV in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as (58) ……………… We cannot deny that television also has some negative effects (59) ……….…… children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered their results in (60) ……….……at school 51 A he B they C their D theirs 52 A to watch B watch C watching D watched 53 A late B lately C recent D recently 54 A show B shows C showing D to show 55 A between B behind C opposite D front 56 A surprise B surprises C surprising D to surprise 57 A to B in C from D at 58 A well B good C happy D also 59 A special B specialise C especial D especially 60 A learn B learned C learning D to learn II Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 = 2.0pts) Mark Twain is a famous American writer His (61) .………….… was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and “Mark Twain” was (62) .………….… pen-name Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63) .………….… the Mississippi river in the USA The boy (64) .………….… many friends at school and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories (65) ………….….Samuel was twelve, his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66) ………….… of a painter Samuel always (67) ………….… to be a sailor and when he was twenty he found work on the river boat After some time he (68) ………….… the boat and went to live in California Here he began to write short (69) ………….… under the name of Mark Twain He sent (70) .………….….to newspapers The readers liked his stories very much III Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) I get a lot of letters at this time of year from people complaining that they have a cold which won’t go away There are so many different stories about how to prevent or cure a cold, it’s often difficult to know what to Although colds are rarely dangerous, except for people who are already weak, such as the elderly or young babies, they are always uncomfortable and usually most unpleasant Of course, when you have a cold, you often buy lots of medicines which help to make your cold less unpleasant, but you must remember that nothing can actually cure a cold or make it go away faster Another thing is that any medicine which is strong enough to make you feel better could be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness so always check with your chemist or doctor to see whether they are all right for you And remember they might make you sleepy – please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, as far as avoiding colds is concerned, whatever you may be told about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep strong and healthy – you’ll have less chance of catching a cold, and if you do, it shouldn’t be so bad! 71 What should/ you/ before/ buying/ medicine/ cold/ if/ already taking/ drugs/ ?/ ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 72 In/ what/ case/ colds/ dangerous/ ?/ ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 73 What/ people/ often/ do/ when/ have/ cold/ ?/ ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 74 What/ writer’s/ advice/ avoid/ colds?/ …………………………………………………………………………………………….? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 75 What/ this passage/ from/ ?/ …………………………………………………………………………………………….? …………………………………………………………………………………………… PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76 For me - Going fishing is more interesting than reading books at home -> I prefer ……… …………………………………………………………………………… 77 My uncle is a slower and more careful driver than I am -> My uncle drives………………….………………………….……………………………… 78 We didn’t enjoy the trip because of the heavy rain -> The heavy rain prevented…….……………………………………………………………… 79 Life in the past is not as comfortable as life nowadays -> Life nowadays………………………………….………………………………………… 80 It took us about two hours to plant those trees yesterday -> We spent II Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81 We/ going/ have/ two- week/ summer vacation/ Da Nang/ next month/ / -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 82 You/ should/ eat/ variety/ food/ without/ eat/ too much/ anything/ / -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 83 My mother/ worried/ about/ let/ me/ go/ zoo/ alone yesterday/ / -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 84 Visitor/ spoke/ too quickly/ me/ understand/ what/ said/ / -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 85 Miss Lan/ not/ go/ schoo/l last Monday/ because/ sickness/ / -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… III Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ĐÁP ÁN PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts) stores hard candy clothes watching watered out take also 10 card 11 downstairs 12 gift 13 helped 14 costs 15 show PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2= 1.0 pt) 16 B hurry 17 D chapter 18 A wanted 19 A height 20 C sugar II Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21 B contain 22 D absence 23 A comfortable 24 B equation 25 D selection PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26 C How often 27 C staying 28 B the most intelligent 29 B mailman 30 C apart 31 A to brush 32 B fell 33 D celebrations 34 C Ha doesn’t, either 35 A in II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36 leaves 37 medical 38 thirst 39 unhealthy 40 sensibly 41 prevention 42 alphabetical 43 abilities 44 awake 45 amusement III Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46 to have 47 will phone 48 not to buy 49 Did break 50 to make PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51 - C their 52- C watching 53 - C recent 54 - B shows 55 - D front 56 - C surprising 57 - A to 58 - A well 59 - D especially 60 - C learning II Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts) 61 name 62 his 63 on 64 had 65 when 66 job/ career/ profession 67 wanted/ wished 68 left 69 stories 70 them III Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71 What should you before buying medicine for a cold if you are already taking drugs? -> I/ We should talk to the chemist or doctor 72 In what case are colds dangerous? -> When the patients are weak, such as the elderly or young babies 73 What people often when they have a cold? -> They often buy lots of medicines which will help to make their cold less unpleasant 74 What is the writer’s advice to avoid colds? -> Keep strong and healthy 75 What is this passage from? -> It’s from a newspaper or a magazine PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76 I prefer going fishing to reading books at home 77 My uncle drives slowlier and more carefully than I 78 The heavy rain prevented us from enjoying the trip 79 Life nowadays is more comfortable than life in the past 80 We spent two hours planting those trees yesterday II Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary (50.2=1.0 pt) 81 We are going to have a two- week summer vacation in Da Nang next month 82 You should eat a variety of foods without eating too much of anything 83 My mother was worried about letting me go to the zoo alone yesterday 84 The visitor spoke too quickly for me to understand what he/she said 85 Miss Lan didn’t go to school last Monday because of her sickness III Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic (0.5pt) - The body: Write details about the holiday/ the sentences must have connectors and link words (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the holiday.(0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more) - Correct vocabulary and structures - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ) SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN (Đề thức) MƠN: TIẾNG ANH Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) I/ Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently A want B basketball C family D camp A food B bookshelf C foot D noodles A who B which C what D when A brother B mother C thank D weather A engineer B geography C gymnast D garden A desks B seasons C lamps D eats A lemonade B stereo C hotel D television A coffee B volleyball C chocolate D opposite A round B couch C routine D housework 10 A station B question C intersection D destination II/ Choose the best answer 11 I like playing badminton very much I ………………… play badminton in my free time A want B don’t C never D always 12 There are ………………… syllables in the word “supermarket” A two B three C four D five 13 Do you live in the country or in the city? ~ ………………… A Yes, I B I live in the city C No, I don’t D I live on the city 14 What would you like ………………… dinner? A for B to C in D at 15 What’s the ………………… like in the summer? ~ It is usually hot A food B sea C weather D neighborhood 16 ……………………………………? ~ We play badminton and swim A What sports you and your brother like? B Which sports you and your brother play? C When you and your brother play sports? D What are you and your brother doing? 17 How many ………………… you want? ~ A dozen A noodles B cooking oil C carrot D eggs 18 Does Mrs Vui ………………… to buy any tomatoes? A want B wanting C wants D to want 41 The twins aren't the same They always things DIFFER 42 It is to advise Mr Thinh He never takes anyone’s advice USE 43 My teacher of Maths has a computer PORT 44 Miss Anh is a She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi FLOWER 45 One of the most popular at recess in the USA is talking ACT III Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46 You can’t make an omelette without (break) eggs 47 Daddy, could you tell me how (use) this laptop? 48 (Take) these pills and you will feel better then! 49 Your father (be) ………… angry if I use his bicycle? 50 You shouldn't spend all of your time (play) …………… video games PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts) One of the first novels in the history of literature (51)…………written in England in 1719 It was Robinson Crusoe by Daniel Defoe Daniel Defoe was born in London in the family (52)………… a rich man When Daniel was a schoolboy, he began to write stories After (53)…………school, he worked in his father’s shop and (54)…………articles for newspapers Defoe visited many countries and met many people That helped him (55)…………in his writings In 1719, when Defoe was sixty years old, he wrote the novel Robinson Crusoe which (56)…………him famous Defoe used in his book a true story about a sailor who (57)…………on an island for four years Robinson Crusoe in Defoe’s novel lived on an island for twenty- eight years People liked (58)…………novel in England and in many other countries, Daniel Defoe wrote other books (59)…………; his novel Robinson Crusoe was the (60)…………famous Defoe was not a rich man when he died in 1731 51 A was B were C has D have 52 A on B at C of D to 53 A coming B leaving C staying D getting 54 A wrote B sold C bought D read 55 A some B many C plenty D much 56 A brought B took C made D let 57 A lived B came C went D visited 58 A a B an C the D Ø 59 A And B However C So D Because 60 A very B much C best D most II Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts) My Favorite Hobby My (61) ………….… is Susan My favorite hobby is reading I enjoy reading books when I (62) ………….… free time I started to it when I was five years old The first time I read a book, I felt interested (63) ………….… that book immediately So I kept reading My teachers and my parents usually taught me (64) ………….… read the difficult words I was very happy when I read a story with a happy ending but I was thrilled when I read a detective story I enjoy (65) ………….… books because I like to explore the imaginative world of my favorite author, J.K Rowling (66) ………….… writes “ Harry Potter” There are a lot of advantages (67) ………….… reading Reading can make me feel relaxed and calm I can also learn new vocabulary items Then I can further improve my English Moreover, it can give me an unlimited imagination, so I can write books in (68) ………….… future I can learn the different cultures and customs of other (69) ………….… in the world, too I read at least one hour every day I read books by myself I usually read it at home I wish I could read different kinds (70) ………….… books because it might be very challenging III Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema It opens days a week, showing a variety of British and foreign films Next week, we still show an Italian film called “Midnight Meeting” It is set in Milan in the 1950s You can see that film from Monday to Thursday It will be on twice a day in the evenings That’s at 6.45 and 9.15 The film lasts two hours and fifteen minutes Tickets are ₤4, but there is a special student ticket at ₤2.80 for all our midweek films Please bring your student card if you want the cheaper ticket The nearest car park to the cinema is in Victory Street It’s just five-minute walk from the cinema Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema If you require further information, phone during office hours – 9am to 4.30 pm, Monday to Friday 71 How many days/ week/ the North London Arts Cinema/ open? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 72 What/ title/ film next week? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 73 How long/ film/ last? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 74 What/ a student/ have to do/ if/ he wants/ the cheaper ticket? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 75 How far/ it/ from/ nearest car park/ the cinema? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? …………………………………………………………………………………………… PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76 Did your father spent the whole morning repairing his car? -> Did it take ? 77 You shouldn't stay up too late It's not good for your health -> You had 78 Our newcomers didn’t come to our club last weekend -> Our newcomer were ……………………………………………….… ….…………… 79 The driving test this morning was easier than my brother thought -> The driving test was not……………… .…………………………………………… 80 Learning Chinese is very difficlult for me -> It ……………… .…… ……………………………………… II Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary (50.2=1.0 pt) 81 The monitor / always goes / class/ on time to be / good example /for the class -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 82 Lan/ go/ the doctor/ yesterday because/ she/ have/ an awful stomachache -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 83 Now, my parents / are / pleased / with/ improvement in my work -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 84 Minh / was / absent / school / last Monday / because / he / ill -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… 85 It/ take/ Hoa/ twenty minutes/ walk to school/ yesterday? -> …………………………………………………………………………………………… III Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ĐÁP ÁN PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts) types playground parking cafeteria office finish teenagers each lunches 10 where 11 from 12 world 13 theater 14 building 15 land PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16 A tables 17 C Christmas 18 A arrived 19 A nervous 20 B teenager II Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21 B number 22 D surgery 23 C prefer 24 D arrival 25 A delicious PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26 D preferred 27 A of/ to 28 B to go 29 A Yes, let’s 30 A unhappy 31 A addictive 32 A how 33 C Neither did I 34 C How often 35 B interested II Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36 carelessly 37 laziness 38 education 39 beautifully 40 unfriendly 41 differently 42 unuseful/ useless 43 portable 44 florist 45 activities III Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46 breaking 47 to use 48 Take 49 Will ….be 50 playing PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts) 51 A was 52 C of 53 B leaving 54 A wrote 55 D much 56 C made 57 A lived 58 C the 59 B However 60 D most II Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts) 61 name 62 have 63 in 64 to 65 reading 66 who 67 of 68 the 69 countries 70 of III Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71 How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open? -> It opens days a week 72 What is the title of film next week? -> It is “Midnight Meeting” 73 How long does the film last? -> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes 74 What does a student have to if he wants the cheaper ticket? -> He has to bring his student card 75 How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema? -> It is just five – minute walk PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76 Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car? 77 You had better not stay up too late It's not good for your health 78 Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend 79 The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought 80 It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese II Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary (50.2=1.0 pt) 81 The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class 82 Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache 83 Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work 84 Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill 85 Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday? III Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …” (0.5pt) - The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s) (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more) - Correct vocabulary and structures - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ) ... thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Thọ Xn Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Vĩnh Lộc Đề thi học. .. LỤC Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phòng GD&ĐT Hà Trung Đề thi học sinh giỏi mơn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án Phịng GD&ĐT Thanh Hóa Đề. .. học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 - Phòng GD&ĐT Nga Sơn Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 - Phòng GD&ĐT Triệu Sơn PHÒNG GD & ĐT ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH