Test CCNA

Test CCNA CCNA 1 Chapter 1: Computing Basics Question 1: b What is NIC? a. A WAN adapter b. A printed circuit board that provides network communication c. A card uses only for Etherner networks d. A standardized datalink layer address Question 2: c What must computers on a network have in common in order to directly communicate with each other? a. Use the same operating system b. Use the same hardware c. Use the same protocol d. Built by the same company Question 3: a What is LAN? a. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices a geographically limitted area. b. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices a large metropolitan area. c. A network that serves users across a geographically large area and often uses transmission devices provided by a common carrier. d. A network that covers a larger area than a MAN Question 4: b What do WAN do? a. Allows printer and file sharing b. Operate over a large geographic area c. Operates over a metropolitan area d. Provide host – to – host connectivity within a limmited area Question 5: c What type of numbering system is characterized by ones and zeros? a. Base 4 b. Base 10 c. Binary d. Hexadecimal Question 6: c Which numbering system is based on powers of 2? a. Octal b. Hexadecimal c. Binary d. ASCII Question 7: b What is the decimal number 151 in binary? a. 10100111 b. 10010111 c. 10101011 d. 10010011 Question 8: d What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal? a. 186 b. 202 c. 222 d. 218 Question 9: b Bandwidth is described in _________? a. Bytes per second b. Bits per second c. Megabits per milisecond d. Centimeters Question 10: c What term is usec to describe the rated throughput capacity of a given network medium or protocol? a. TCP/IP b. Ethernet c. Bandwidth d. Routing protocol Chapter 2: Q1: a Which layer offers provisions for data expedition, class of service, and exception reporting? a. Session b. Presentation c. Network d. Datalink Q2: b Which of the following is the PDU for the transport layer? a. Frame b. Segment c. Packet d. Bits Q3: c Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs? a. Physical Layer b. Data Link Layer c. Network Layer d. Transport Layer Q4: d Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery, and information flow control? a. Physical Layer b. Data Link Layer c. Network Layer d. Transport Layer Q5: b Which of the following best describes the function of the presentation layer? a. Responsible for the reliable network communication between end nodes. b. Concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax c. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems d. Manages data exchange between layer entities Q6: a What functions are the data link layer concerned with? a. Physical addressing, network topology, and media access. b. Manages data exchange between presentation layer entities c. Synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on procedures for error recovery and contronl of data integrity d. Provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection, recovery, and information flow control. Q7: d Which of the following protocols uses UDP as its underlying protocol? a. SMTP b. FTP c. HTTP d. TFTP Q8: b Which of the following statements regarding TCP/IP is true? a. TCP/IP combines the OSI data link and session layer issues into its application layer b. TCP/IP combines the OSI data link and physical layers into one layer c. TCP/IP combines the OSI network and application layers into one network layer d. TCP/IP combines the bottom four layers of the OSI model into one Internet layer Q9: a Packets are encapsulation in frames at which layer of the OSI model? a. Data link b. Network c. Transport d. Session Q10: b In the TCP/IP model which layer would deal with reliability, flow control, and error correction? a. Application b. Transport c. Internet d. Network Access Chapter 3: Q1: b A NIC is considered an OSI layer _____ device a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four Q2: a A hub is an OSI layer ____ device a. One b. Two c. Four d. Six Q3: c Which of the following is true concerning a bridge and its forwarding decisions? a. They operate at OSI layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions. b. They operate at OSI layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions. c. They operate at OSI layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions. d. They operate at OSI layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions. Q4: b Which of the following is true concerning the function of a switch? a. Increases the sizes of collision domains b. Combines the connectivity of a hub with the traffic regulation of a bridge c. Combines the connectivity of a hub with the traffic directing of a router d. Performs Layer 4 path selection Q5: c What do routers connect? a. Bridges and repeaters b. Bridges and hubs c. Two or more networks d. Hubs and nodes Q6: c What does a router route? a. Layer 1 bits b. Layer 2 frames c. Layer 3 packets d. Layer 4 segments Q7: a What is the correct order of encapsulation? a. Data, segment, Packet, Frame, Bits b. Data, Frame, Packet, Segment, Bits c. Data, Packet, Frame, Segment, Bits d. Data, Bits, Packet, Frame, Segments Q8: c Which LAN topology connects all workstations to a central point, usually a hub or a switch? a. Bus b. Ring c. Star d. Hierarchical Q9: d When connecting four host computers in a LAN what is the minimum hardware needed to be used for file sharing capability? a. Cloud b. Switch c. Router d. Hub Q 10: c If 4 hosts are connected to a hub and then to the Internet, how many IP addresses are required for these 5 devices? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Five Chapter 4: Q1: b What kind of power is supplied to the microchips on the motherboard of a computer? a. AC b. DC c. RC d. MC Q2: a Where is the safely ground connected for a computer? a. Exposed metal parts b. The monitor c. The mouse d. The network connection Q3: d Electrons flow in ___ loops called ____ a. Open, voltage b. Closed, voltage c. Open, circuits d. Closed, circuits Q4: a A half duplex circuit means a. Only one side can talk at a time b. The signal strength is cut in half c. The signal strength is doubled d. Two hosts can set half their data Q5: c Attenuation means a. Travel b. Delay c. A signal losing strength to its surroundings d. All of the above Q6: a Which of the following is an external source of electrical impulses that can attack the quality of electrical signal on a cable? a. EMI caused by electrical motors b. RFI caused by electrical motors c. Impedance caused by radio systems d. EMI caused by lighting Q7: d What is the primary cause of crosstalk? a. Cable wires that are too large in diameter b. Too much noise in a cable’s data signal c. Electrical motors and lighting d. Electrical signals from other wires in a cable Q8: b Which of the following describes cancellation? a. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other’s electrical current flow b. Cancelation is a commonly used technique to protect the wire from undescrible interference c. The magnetic fields from one cable run cancel magnetic fields of another cable run d. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling Q9: c What is it called when two bits from two different communicating computers are on a shared – medium at the same time? a. Latency b. Dispersion c. Collision d. Obstruction Q10: a ____ means converting binary data into a form that can travel on a physical communications link a. Encoding b. Decoding c. Encrypting d. Decrypting Chapter 5: Q11: a The network area within which data packets originate and collide is called a _____? a. Collision domain b. Network domain c. Collision segment d. Network segment shield Q2: b What happens to packets that are involved in a collision? a. The packets return to the originator b. The Packets are “destroyed” bit by bit c. The Packets continue on to the target device with corrupt data d. Another answer Q3: c What is another name for a rollover cable? a. A patch cable b. A cross-connect cable c. A console cable d. An inverted cable Q4: c Using repeaters ____ the collision domain a. Reduces b. Has no effect on c. Extends d. Another answer Q5: c What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable? a. Make it thinner b. Make it less expensive c. Reduce noise problems d. Allow 6 pairs to fit in the space of 4 pairs Q6: b Which best describes a collision in a Ethernet network? a. The effects of having too many repeaters in a network b. The result of two nodes transmitting at the same time c. The effect when two nodes have the same MAC address. d. The result of having non OSI compliant protocols on the network Q7: a How many collision domains exist in a network containing two hubs? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five Q8: c Seperating collision domains with bridges, switches and routers is called ____ a. Switching domains b. Extending domains c. Segmentation d. Fragmentation Q 9: b Which best describes bus topology? a. All of its nodes connected directly to a central point (like a hub) b. All of its nodes connected directly to one physical link c. All nodes connected to each other (fully meshed) d. All nodes connected to exactly 2 other nodes Q 10: a Which of the following best describes an extended star topology? a. LAN topology where a central hub is connected by a vertical cabling to other hubs b. LAN topology in which transmissions from network stations propagate the length of a single coaxial cable and are received by all other stations c. LAN topology in which end points on a network are connected to a common central switch by point-to-point links d. LAN topology where central points on a network are connected to a common central switch by linear links Chapter 6: Q1: a Which LAN standard specifies an implementation of the physical layer and the MAC sub layer of the data link layer in Ethernet networks? a. IEEE 802.3 b. IEEE 802.5. c. EIA?TIA – 568B d. EIA/TIA – 569 Q2: a Which is not one of the recognized IEEE sublayers? a. Data link Control b. Media access control c. Logical link control d. Another answer Q 3: a Why did the IEEE create LLC? a. To meet the need to have part of the datalink layer function be independent of existing technologies b. To replace an older IBM protocol c. To create a protocol that would not be control by the US government d. To allow for data encryption before transmission Q4: b Convert the decimal number 2989 to Hex a. FDD1 b. BAD c. TED d. CAD Q5: a Convert the hex number ABE into decimal a. 2750 b. 5027 c. 2570 d. 7250 Q6: b Convert the binary number 11100010 to hex a. D2 b. E2 c. G2 d. H20 Q7: a Which of the following statements best describes communication between two devices on a LAN? a. “The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the destination device, transmits, everyone on the LAN sees it, but the devices with non-matching addresses otherwise ignore the frame” b. “The source encapsulates the data and places a destination MAC address in the frame. It puts the frame on the LAN, where only the device with matching address can check the address field” c. The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the Destination device, puts in on the LAN, and the device with the matching address removes the frame” d. “Each device on the LAN receives the frame and passes it up to the computer, where software will decide whether to keep or discard the frame” Q8: b A frame is a ______ a. Layer 1 PDU b. Layer 2 PDU c. Layer 3 PDU d. Layer 4 PDU Q9: c How does a computer on a LAN detect an error in a frame? a. Send a copy of the frame back to the sender for verification b. Check the destination address to verify that the frame was really intended for them c. Compare a FCS in the frame to one that the computer calculates from the contents of the frame d. Calculate a checksum from the data in the frame, and send it back to the source for verification Q 10: c Which is true of a deterministic MAC protocol? a. It defines collisions and specifies what to do about them b. It allows the hub to determine the number of users active at any one time c. It allows hosts to “take their turn” for sending data d. It allows the use of a “talking stick” by network administrators to control the media access of any users considered “troublemakers” Chapter 7: Q1: a Which of the following describe Token-Ring? a. Data transfer rates of 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps b. Typically found with a linear bus topology c. Can only be implemented with fiber d. Uses collision detection for access method Q 2: c The data/command frame and token frame have which of the following fields in common? a. Start delimiter, frame check sequence (FCS), and access control b. Start delimiter, token control, and end delimiter c. Start delimiter, access control, and end delimiter d. Another answer Q3: d What is the difference between single-mode and multi-mode FDDI? a. Single-mode allows one mode of light to propagate through the fiber (1) b. Single-mode is capable of higher bandwidth than multi-mode (2) c. Single-mode can run longer distance than multi-mode (3) d. All (1), (2), (3) Q4: d One of the primary reasons FDDI is extremely reliable is because ____? a. It uses CAT 3 cabling b. It is a CSMA/CD network c. It is a CSMA/CA network d. Of it’s dual ring design Q5: a “If you hava to connect a FDDI between buildings, which mode of fiber would you use?” a. Single-mode b. Multi-mode c. Intra-mode d. Inter-mode Q6: a Which of the following is an accurate description of an Ethernet variety? a. 10BASE – T uses and transmits at 10 Mbps b. 10BASE - TX uses CAT5 and transmits at 100 Mbps c. 10BASE – T uses CAT2 and transmits at 10 Mbps d. 100BASE – FX is multi-mode fiber that transits at 10Mbps Q7: c The Ethernet version 2 header is ____ the header of an 802.3 frame a. Much longer than b. Much shorter than [...]... Question 14: Which of the following describes a cable tester measurement of signal attenuation? @A It measures the reduction in power of a signal received from a signal injector B It measures the increase in power of a signal received from a signal injector C The signal injector attaches to the near end of the cable D The frequency to be used for testing is specified in EIA/TIA 568A Question 15: How... 20: What kind of a cable must you use when laying cable through spaces where air is circulated? A shielded B double coated @C fire rated D unshielded Question 21: How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance? A The cable tester identifies signal degradation, indicating the cable is longer than the acceptable maximum length B It determines the time a signal takes to be reflected back from closed-ended... devices often found at conventions and shows @C It acts as a switchboard where horizontal cabling from workstations can be connected to other devices to form a LAN D It allows the network administrator to test the entire network cabling from a single location Question 18: How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel? A 4 pins @B 8 pins C 11 pins D 45 pins Question 19: What should be done when... backed or screw box Question 16: What is the first thing you should do if near-end crosstalk is detected? A Redo all connections at the patch panel B Isolate which connection is the cause by running a TDR test C Redo all connections at the cross connects @D Visually check the horizontal cabling Question 17: Which best describes a patch panel's function? A It serves as a temporary fix to network problems... network important? A for fulfilling one of the requirements necessary for you to get your network certification B for providing your client with proof of a successful installation @C for future periodic testing of the network and diagnostics D for obtaining a network registration and identification number from TIA/EIA and IEEE Question 24: What is a rough diagram that shows where the cable runs are located . Test CCNA CCNA 1 Chapter 1: Computing Basics Question 1: b What is NIC? a. A WAN. fire rated D. unshielded Question 21: How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance? A. The cable tester identifies signal degradation, indicating the