Đang tải... (xem toàn văn)
ting anh cho nguoi mi bat dau dung on luyejn cac de thi ssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HỊA BÌNH TUYỂN TẬP 25 ĐỀ ÔN THI THPTQG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Người thực hiện: Nhóm cốt cán Tiếng Anh Năm học: 2018 -2019 ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO SỐ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions Question 1: A started B watched C stopped D cooked Question 2: A loud B bought C cloud D sound Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A oblige B patient C certain D swallow Question 4: A opponent B agreement C disappear D contractual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 5: One of the best things we can to help environment is to encourage recycling A a B Ø C the D an Question 6: If you to be chosen for the job, you’ll have to be experienced in the field A wanted B wants C want D had wanted Question 7: She to the library to borrow some books when she saw a robbery A is walking B walked C had walked D was walking Question 8: I think I did OK in my speech last night I’d had almost no sleep for twenty hours A because B because of C in spite of D although Question 9: Do you have any objections this new road scheme? A at B with C to D for Question 10: with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call A Having quarreled B Because having quarreled C Because of she quarreled D Had quarreled Question 11: We should participate in the movements the natural environment A organizing to conserve B organized conserving C organized to conserve D which organize to conserve Question 12: I really regret _ him the money he needed A not to lend B not lending C about not lending D I haven’t lent Question 13: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have enough A confide B confident C confidential D confidence Question 14: He would win the race if he his brother's example and trained harder A repeated B set C answered D followed Question 15: In my company, the director deputy usually _ the responsibility for organizing meetings and conferences A makes B takes C becomes D gets Question 16: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 12% annually A interest B profit C money D income Question 17: At the end of the match the players were exhausted A solely B actually C utterly D merely Question 18: I can’t possibly lend you any more money, it is quite out of the _ A order B practice C place D question Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 19: Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well A depressed B motivated C overlooked D rejected Question 20: He didn’t hat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again A didn’t want to see B didn’t show surprise C wasn’t happy D didn’t care Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 21: I was relieved by the news that they had gone home safe and sound A concerned B comforted C relaxed D lightened Question 22: When I was going shopping yesterday, I accidentally met one of my old friends in high school A by far B by heart C on purpose D by chance Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 23: Jenny: "I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city dweller." Mark: “ ” A I couldn't agree more B It's nice of you to say so C That's quite all right D Why not? Question 24: John: Hi, Alice Would you like to go to the movies tonight? Alice: “ _” A Fine I'll be there B Yes, I’d love to C I'll be ready in no time D Why? What's the matter? Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world In the United States, (25) sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made TV, although not essential, has become a(n) (26) _ part of most people’s lives It has become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer The poor (27) _ of programs does not elevate people into greater understanding, but rather maintains and encourages the status quo The primary reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV TV in American began with the radio Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with TV.(28) , the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio programs, but many actually produced the programs Thus, coming from the capitalistic, profit- oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily concerned with reflecting and attracting (29) rather than innovating and experimenting with new ideas Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging Question 25 A where B which C what D who Question 26 A superior B mixed C fractional D integral Question 27 A quantity B quality C effect D product Question 28 A However B Moreover C Therefore D Besides Question 29 A socialise B society C social D socially Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 Millions of people are using cellphones today In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professional worried Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss He couldn’t remember even simple tasks He would often forget the name of his own son This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less often Question 30 The most suitable title for the passage could be A Technological Innovations and Their Price B The Importance of Mobile Phones C Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time D Advantages and Disadvantages of Mobile Phones Question 31 According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with the youth because _ A they keep the users in alert all the time B they are integral in daily communication C they are the only effective means of communication D they make them look more stylish Question 32: According to the passage, the changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with A the smallest units of the brain B the central unit of the brain C the structure of the brain D the long-term memory Question 33: The words negative publicity in paragraph most likely means A information on the lethal effects of cellphones B the negative public use of cellphones C widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones D constructive ideas about the effects of cellphones Question 34 The word their in the last paragraph refers to A mobile phone companies B mobile phones C high-tech machines D radiations Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically He is most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management’ At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth The Gilbreths had 12 children By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bed makingchores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called “Cheaper by the Dozen” The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) -basic motions used in production jobs Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perfo rm a given job In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power Question 35 What is the passage primarily about? A The beginnings of modern management theory B The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior C How time and motion studies were first developed D The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior Question 36.The word “which” in the passage refers to _ A scientific management B philosophy C productivity D time and motion study Question 37 It can be inferred from the first paragraph that A workers welcomed the application of scientific management B Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms C by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the workplace D workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management Question 38.The word “prevailing” is closest in meaning to A broadly accepted B prevalent C predominant D common Question 39 According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion by _ A watching his children their chores B using special tools such as cameras and clocks C using stop watches D applying scientific management principles Question 40 According to the passage, the time it takes a skilled worker to perform the motion of a given job can be measured by using _ A stop watches B all five work dimensions C special tools D therbligs Question 41.The word “dimensions” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A sizes B extents C aspects D standards Question 42 All of the following are true EXCEPT A Scientific management was concerned with productivity B the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century C Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book D Analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are considered Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the the following questions Question 43: They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them A B C some challenges D Question 44: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily in the last few years A B C D Question 45: After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion A B of the issues which were risen in the talk C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: The test we did last time was more difficult than this one A We did a difficult test last time and a more difficult one this time B This test is not as difficult as the one we did last time C We had a more difficult time last week than this one D The test we have this time is not difficult at all Question 47: “No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!” said the boys A The boys denied my staying a bit longer B The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer C The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer D The boys didn’t agree to let stay a bit longer Question 48: There was no need for you to have left the house in such weather A You needn’t have left the house in such weather B You needn’t leave the house in such weather C You didn’t have to leave the house in such weather D You didn’t need to leave the house in such weather Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: We arrived at the airport We realized our passports were still at home A It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize out passports were still at home B We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home C Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home D Not until had we arrived at the airport we realized our passports were still at home Question 50: I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn A On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn B When picking up my book, the cover had been torn C The cover had been torn when my book picked up D Picked up, the book was torn _HẾT _ ĐỀ THAM KHẢO – SỐ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A opened B played C proved D regarded Question 2: A bachelor B chapter C chemistry D teacher Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A reduction B popular C financial D romantic Question 4: A bachelor B discover C invention D important Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: Tam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise A B C D Question 6: A huge amount of tourists come to this city every year A B C D Question 7: Ms Phuong hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: You will become ill you stop working so hard A until B when C unless D if Question 9: I wish you _ stop interrupting me whenever I speak A will B would C did D might Question 10: Peter lost the race because he petrol on the last lap A got out of B ran out of C made out of D put out of Question 11: Xoan singing is a vocal art of villages in the ancestral land of Phu Tho It has been for generations and the oral tradition is still very much alive today A handed down B landed on C passed by D taken over Question 12: he had no money for a bus, he had to walk all the way home A For B Thus C So D As Question 13: Is is acceptable to touch person on shoulder in a conversation? A a - the B the – the C the – a D a – a Question 14: We in silence when he suddenly me to help him A were walking - was asking B were walking - asked C walked – asked D walked - was asking Question 15: The context _ which you learn something can affect how well you remember it A of B for C to D in Question 16: If I were in charge, I things differently A had done B would C will D would have done Question 17: Any pupil caught _ was made to stand at the front of the class A misbehave B misbehaved C misbehaviour D misbehaving Question 18: Next year, I have to decide which area of medicine I want to _ in A specialise B focus C hand Question 19: They would go by air than travel by train A better B always C prefer Question 20 Culture helps people to the world around them A adapt B change C alter D come D rather D fit Question 21 The latest heritage at risk register revealed that 5,831 listed buildings, monuments, archaeological sites, and landscapes in England are at of being lost A danger B edge C ease D risk Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response complete each of the following exchanges Question 22: - “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!” - “ ’’ A Certainly Do you like it, too? B I like you to say that C Yes, of course It’s expensive D Thanks My mother bought it for me Question 23: Jenny: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought to us!” Peter: “ ” A All right Do you know how much it costs? B Not at all, don't mention it C Actually speaking, I myself don't like it D Welcome! it's very nice of you Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24: They have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands A suburban B abandoned C forgotten D disadvantaged Question 25: Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace A attracting attention C widely used B most preferable D for everybody’s use Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 26: During the five – decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects A holding at B holding back C holding to D holding by Question 27: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important A explicit B implicit C obscure D odd Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following sentences Question 28: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill, ” the doctor told me A I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes B The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness C I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness D The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness Question 29: He survived the operation thanks to the skilful surgeon A He survived because he was a skilful surgeon B There was no skilful surgeon, so he died C He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skilful surgeon D Though the surgeon was skilful, he couldn’t survive the operation Question 30: If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned A.The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned B.If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon C It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon D If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 31: We can't deny the potential influence of global communications on our cultural identity It will become even more powerful A It can be undeniable that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity B It cannot deny that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity C It cannot be denied that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity D It hardly deny that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity Question 32: I left the office There was a power cut right after A I left the office after there was a power cut B I left the office long before there was a power cut C No sooner had I left the office than there was a power cut D When I was leaving the office, there was a power cut Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometers from the capital N'Djamena Coming from a rich country, I got quite a shock, as conditions were much harder than I had expected But after a few days I got used to (33) there The people were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how beautiful the countryside was One of my jobs was to supply the village (34) water The well was a long walk away, and the women used to spend a long time every day (35) heavy pots backwards and forwards So I contacted the organisation and arranged to have some pipes delivered (36) these pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great difference to the villagers All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience Although it was not paid, it was well worth doing and I would recommend it to anyone (37) was considering working for a charity 33 A live B living C lived D lively 34 A for B on C with D from 35 A carrying B wearing C holding D drinking 36 A If B Because C When D Although 37 A which B when C where D who Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42 Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret These electrical impulses that have been transformed by the eyes and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret For the eyes, the process begins as the eyes admit light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses them on the retina At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split into two optic tracts Some of the fibers cross so that part of the input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in fluid- filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration Sound that is transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve These fibers form a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain Question 38 According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because: A They sense light and sound B They create electrical impulses C The brain can interpret the input D The messages travel in the brain Question 39 In line 5, what does the word “them” refer to? A Messages B Processes C Eyes D Light waves Question 40 The word “split” as used in line is closest in meaning to which of the following? A Tear B Fracture C Separate D Crack Question 41 Which part of the passage best describes the first step in transforming light into electrical impulses? A Lines 5- B Lines 9- 11 C Lines 11- 13 D Lines 14- 16 Question 42 According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, what happens? A The nerve fibers bundle together B The optic nerves split C The retina receives light waves Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 NEGOTIATION The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives with knowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-cultural communication These skills are essential for successful international business negotiation Americans, however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level of success in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterparts Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an agreement It involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the negotiators must understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is reached within the culture of the negotiation In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy and impersonal It often appears to the foreign negotiator that the American represents a large multimillion-dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further The American negotiator’s role becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information and cash, an image that succeeds only in undermining the negotiation In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been identified that may serve to confirm this stereotypical perception, while subverting the negotiator's position Two traits in particular that cause cross-cultural misunderstanding are directness and impatience on the part of the American negotiator Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term goals Foreign negotiators, on the other hand, may value the relationship established between negotiators and may be willing to invest time in it for long-term benefits In order to solidify the relationship, they may opt for indirect interactions without regard for the time involved in getting to know the other negotiator Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the success of negotiators For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations, they must put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding Question 43 The word ‘undermining’ in the third paragraph means mostly the same as A accepting B undergoing C understanding D subverting Question 44 The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT A willing to invest time in relationships B interested in short-term goals C perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy D known for direct interaction Question 45 What is the author's main point in the passage? 10 people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive” Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective Question 30 The topic of this passage is A reactions to foods B food and nutrition C infants and allergies D a good diet Question 31 According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to A the vast number of different foods we eat B lack of a proper treatment plan C the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems D the use of prepared formula to feed babies Question 32 The phrase "set off" in lines 11 is closest in meaning to A relieved B identified C avoided D triggered Question 33 The word "these" in line 17 refers to _ A food additives B food colorings C innutritious foods D foods high in salicylates Question 34 Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A Eating more ripe bananas B Avoiding all Oriental foods C Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1 point) The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th century, when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when the women’s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made Women now have much better employment opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in industry In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s Susan B Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study Many feminists were interested in other social issues The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law An important issue was the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution Although the ERA was not passed, there was progress in other areas It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc to discriminate against women But women still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from having high-level jobs Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e the household chores In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men Although there is still discrimination, the principle that it should not exist is widely accepted Question 35: It can be inferred from paragraph that in the 19th century, A British women did not complete their traditional supporting role B most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights C British women did not have the right to vote in political elections D suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay Question 36: The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph refers to _ A the visible space between men and women B the difference in status between men and women C the social distance between the two sexes D the social relationship between the two sexes Question 37: Susan B Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as _ A American women who were more successful than men B American women with exceptional abilities C pioneers in the fight for American women’s rights D American women who had greater opportunities Question 38: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) _ A was not officially approved B changed the US Constitution C was brought into force in the 1960s D supported employers, schools and clubs Question 39: The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph mostly means _ A an imaginary barrier B an overlooked problem C a ceiling made of glass D a transparent frame Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US B Many American women still face the problem of household chores C An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor D British women now have much better employment opportunities Question 41: In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by _ A the Equal Rights Amendment B the Equal Pay Act of 1970 C the Equal Opportunities Commission D the Sex Discrimination Act Question 42: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A Opportunities for Women Nowadays B Women and the Right to Vote C The Suffragettes in British Society D Feminism in Britain and the US Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 43: All of the cities in Texas, San Antonio is probably the most picturesque A B C D Question 44: It is required that you work hard, be ready to travel long distances and good health A B C to be accepted in this travel agency D Question 45: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly A B C where the choices are located D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence Câu 46: In spite of feeling confident about her university entrance exams, Jane did very poorly A Jane’s confidence in her ability to pass her university entrance exams was not justified by her results B Jane should have done better than she actually did on her university entrance exams C Jane was sure that she would well when she took her university entrance exams, and indeed her results were quite good D Jane failed her university entrance exams despite being especially well-prepared Câu 47: Although I not claim to be much good at it, I enjoy playing basketball my free time A If only I were better at it, I would have more fun playing basketball B I have a lot of fun playing basketball in my spare time despite not being able to describe myself as a very skilful player C I'm sure I would enjoy playing basketball much more if I could play it D I quite enjoy playing basketball in my free time, probably because I am actually quite good at it Câu 48: Laurence has hardly worked since he graduated from university three years ago A Laurence has been working hard for the past three years since graduating from university B If Laurence had worked harder in university, he would have found work after he graduated three years ago C Laurence has done very little work during the three years since he graduated from university D It has been hard for Laurence to find work since three years ago, when he graduated from university Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Câu 49: Everyone was watching the little dog They were greatly amused at it A Everyone felt great and amused when the little dog was watching them B The little dog was watching everyone with great amusement C Everyone was greatly amused at the little dog they were watching D The little dog was greatly amused by the way everyone was watching it Câu 50: He cannot lend me the book now He has not finished reading it yet A Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me B He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it C As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me D Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me THE END ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO SỐ 23 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlinedpart differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A deleted B started C retarded D stopped Question 2: A think B thank C that D three Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A advise B parent C apply D attract Question 4: A academic B necessity C authority D commercially Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions: Question 5: “Do you _ your new roommate, or you two argue?” A keep in touch with C on good term with B get along with D get used to Question 6: Too many factories dispose their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea A out B of C away D off Question 7: He alone a month ago, and of since A set off/hasn’t been heard B setted off/hasn’t heard C set on/hasn’t heard D setted on/hadn’t been heard Question 8: The stuntman seemed to show a total disregard fear as he performed his daredevil tricks A of B over C about D for Question 9: The President's action only served to a situation which was already extremely serious A exasperate B exacerbate C erupt D irritate Question 10: As we waited on the pavement, a black Mercedes beside us A pulled off B pulled through C pulled up D pulled down Question 11: The sky was gray and cloudy we went to the beach A Consequently B Nevertheless C Eventhough D In spite of Question 12: As the managing director can't go to the reception, I'm representing the company _ A From his point of view B On his account C On his behalf D For his part Question 13: The replacement of shops such as the groceries' and chemist's by cafes _ the housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping A has left B have left C leave D to have left Question 14: I have English classes day- on Mondays, Wednesdays and Friday A every other B this and the other C all other D each other Question 15: All _is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life A that is needed B for our needs C the thing needed D what is needed Question 16: _ so aggressive, we' d get on much better A Wasn't she B Had she not C If she weren't D she was not Question 17: _90 percent of Asia's people live in the eastern and southern parts of the continent, which contain some of the most regions in the world A.Most/ thick- populated B Almost/ thickly- populated C Most/ thickly- populated D Almost/ thick- populated Question 18: She got up early; otherwise she her bus _ A would miss B had missed C would have missed D missed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 19: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime A complain B exchange C explain D arrange Question 20: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids A cleaned well C changed completely B removed quickly D destroyed completely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 21: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity A cover B conserve C reveal D presume Question 22: During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects A holding back B holding to C holding by D holding at Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges Question 23: ~ A: “Can I ask about your budget?” ~ B: “ .” A Yes, not far away from here I'll show you B Sorry I'm using it right now C It’s none of your business D Yes, we've got around 200 euros per month Question 24: ~ A: “Make sure you don't miss the last episode, Liz.” ~ B: “ ” A I’ll never forget about the first one you took me to B I wouldn't miss it for the world C No, I won’t I’ll be there right away D Thanks I need this right now Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 WHY DO WE YAWN? Yawning is natural Newly born babies, teenagers and adults - we all it Even animals yawn! But yawning can be a problem at school Teachers sometimes (25) their temper when faced with yawning students since they think their students are bored In the past, scientists (26) to think that people yawned because of boredom or tiredness They believed that yawning helped bring more oxygen into your lungs and brain and thus woke you up However, scientists have recently (27) some research on yawning and they have come to different conclusions It is believed now that we it in (28) to keep our brain cool so that it can function better So why we tend to yawn late in the evening or when we are tired? Mainly because tiredness raises brain temperature We also yawn more frequently in summer than in winter! In many situations, you will be incapable stopping yourself from yawning So, why (29) you try to it in such a way so that no one sees you? Question 25:A gain B give C get D lose Question 26:A had B used C wanted D ought Question 27:A found B worked C made D done Question 28:A order B general C particular D fact Question 29:A don’t B won’t C shouldn’t D can’t Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 ENDURANCE TESTS You're stressed and anxious, you have problems sleeping What you need is a challenge There has never been a better time, but which one to go for? Traditional marathons and triathlons are still popular but newer events have now appeared They are held on difficult terrain and represent a greater challenge to participants They are popular in the USA and are very competitive The first long-distance triathlon was the Ironman It started in Hawaii, on Waikiki beach, in the 1970s and there are now forty countries across the world which hold Ironman events An Ironman is the hardest one-day endurance test in the world Participants must complete a 3.86-km swim, a 180-km bike ride and run a whole marathon - and no stopping is allowed! The World Championships are held in Hawaii every year The run in Hawaii is particularly difficult because you have to cross a desert! Other tough races include the Trans-Rockies These are six separate contests which take place in different locations in the Rocky Mountains You can a twenty-four-hour bike race along Canada’s highest peaks - but don't try it if you suffer from vertigo! Alternatively, head for New Mexico, where there is a ride that lasts three days through the desert - just try cycling through sand dunes! As for the traditional marathon, you can still take part in the world’s biggest, in New York However, if you really want to push yourself, try the World Marathon Challenge This is seven marathons, in seven days, on seven different continents! It’s called The World Marathon Challenge for a reason! For many people, this is the challenge of a lifetime Participants have to run 295 km, spend fifty-nine hours in the air and fly approximately 38,000 km from the Antarctic Circle to Sydney, Australia All at your own risk! [Source: Wider World 4, Pearson, 2015] Question 30: What is the difference between the new events and the traditional ones? A They are for stressed competitors B The new events are held on difficult terrain C They are popular only in the USA D They are only for those who have problems sleeping Question 31: The Ironman World Championship is particularly difficult because A you have to cover a long distance B you have to run in only one day C you have to cross a desert D you have to run non-stop Question 32: The relative pronoun “which” refers to A the world B Waikiki Beach C forty countries D the Ironman Question 33: In the ultimate challenge race A You can it in your lifetime B You have to run 295 km in seven days C You can go by air D You have to cover seven continents in seven races Question 34: Participants have to fulfil .of races in a Triathlon A two B twenty C four D three Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 WOULD YOU WANT TO LIVE TO 100? Remarkably, two in five girls born today will live for a century, and boys are close behind But, asks Jeremy Laurance, is longevity all it's cracked up to be? Human beings have struggled to defeat the ageing process for millennia From olive leaves in ancient Egypt to the alchemists' 'elixir of life', vast resources have been spent - and still are today - on tonics, potions and vitamins in the attempt to stave off the ravages of the years Now we know the secret Quietly, without fanfare, we are putting it to work Life expectancy soared by 30 years in richer nations during the 20th century and shows no sign of slowing In some countries it has increased by three months a year for the last 160 years When the British tradition of sending a telegram from the monarch to all new centenarians began in 1917, King George V dispatched 24 celebratory messages By 1952, the number had increased 10-fold and by 2011 it had increased almost 40-fold to nearly 10000 Leading economist Professor John Appleby cites the figures in the British Medical Journal and asks: 'Where will it all end?' That is an economist's question, but one that 18 th century author Jonathan Swift also wanted to answer Gulliver's Travelsfeatures a race of humans, the Struldbrugs, who were normal in all respects except one Their immortality, instead of being a blessing, was a curse, because they continued to age 'At 90, they lose their teeth and hair; they have at that age no distinction of taste, but eat and drink whatever they can get, without relish or appetite the question therefore was not, whether a man would choose to be always in the prime of youth, attended with prosperity and health; but how he would pass a perpetual life under all the usual disadvantages which old age brings along with it.' In a recent article, centenarian Walter James wrote a poignant account of the deprivations of age Though he still cooks and looks after himself, does the crossword, enjoys a glass of whisky and can recall events from his past with clarity, what he cannot recover are the sensations that accompanied the events Recounting his sporting successes and close relationships, he notes the absence of the exhilaration that went with them 'Perhaps the greatest loss is what it is like to be in love I can remember the routines, the shared meals, concerts and theatres, walks in the country But writing all this is like taking a book down from the shelf and leafing through its pages.' Such observations are bound to make those younger wonder - is ageing, at the rate those of us fortunate enough to live comfortable lives are achieving, something to be celebrated or feared? The pace of advance is astonishing As recently as 1980, scientists believed that age 85 would mark a natural limit for average life expectancy In Japan that barrier was passed for women in 2007 In the UK, average life expectancy for both sexes born today is over 90 What is the secret - the elixir of life? Just better standards of living, education and healthcare is all, rather than a blend of exotic ingredients secretly distilled in a laboratory Dull, perhaps, but marvellously true In the early part of the last century, improvements in infant and child survival contributed most to growing life expectancy, but since the 1950s the biggest gains have been in the over-80s What worries most people about ageing is losing their faculties and the ability to perform the daily tasks of living - eating, dressing, bathing and getting around The trends in this regard are worrying The good news is that despite increases in chronic conditions such as diabetes and arthritis, earlier diagnosis and improved treatments have rendered these conditions less disabling In the future, more of us will fall ill, but the illnesses should affect us less The result is that we may live to see our great grandchildren and even our great-great-grandchildren Nevertheless, there are large differences between countries in healthy life expectancy beyond 65 that is, years spent without disability - and the UK performs poorly compared with countries such as Italy and Belgium If ageing is to be celebrated we need answers to the personal, social, financial and health challenges it poses One suggestion, proposed by Professor Kaare Christensen, of the Danish Ageing Research Centre, is to extend working lives by shortening the working week.'The 20 th century was a century of redistribution of income,' Professor Christensen says 'The 21 st century could be a century of redistribution of work Redistribution would spread work more evenly across populations and over the ages of life Preliminary evidence suggests that shortened working weeks over extended working lives might further contribute to increases in life expectancy and health.' Work till you are 100? Now that would deserve a celebratory telegram How many people would welcome this opportunity is quite another matter [Source: READY FOR ADVANCED, Workbook, Roy Norris, Macmillan, 2014] Question 35: What does the writer suggest about getting older in the first paragraph? A There is no reason to celebrate getting older B Staying youthful has always been something people desired C Long life is no longer seen as remarkable D Life expectancy has increased beyond our expectations Question 36: What does the writer find most moving about Walter James' situation? A his physical deterioration B his sense of nostalgia C his determ ination to be independent D his disconnection with emotion Question 37: The phrase “stave off” is closest in meaning to A put away B keep away C finish up D turn away Question 38: What is the writer emphasizing in the sentence ‘Dull, perhaps, but marvellously true’? A the unexceptional reasons that people live longer B the objectivity of statistics for ageing populations C the common patterns of longevity in different countries D the particular accuracy of recent scientific prediction Question 39: The word “deprivations” is closest in meaning to A shortcomings B weakness C losses of necessary things D emotionally painful Question 40: In the fifth paragraph, the writer draws a contrast between A the physical problems older people suffered in the past com pared to today B the fears that people have about ageing and the eventual reality C countries where the elderly enjoy healthy lives and those where they not D attitudes towards the care of the elderly across various European countries Question 41: The writer refers to the novel Gulliver’s Travels in order to A compare views on ageing from previous centuries and the current one B show how the obsession with ageing is a m odern phenomenon C make the point that eternal life is not necessarily a positive thing D illustrate how ageing has been typically portrayed in literature Question 42: In the final paragraph, we get the impression that the writer A intends to extend his career in the way Professor Christensen recommends B sees no connection between the way income and work m ight be divided C is reluctant to accept lower financial rewards for a job he is already doing D is skeptical of Professor Christensen’s proposal regarding a person’s working life Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 43:Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions he letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions on 3: A oblige B patient C certain D swallow on 4: A opponent B agreement C disappear D contractual he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions he letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions AM KHAỎ SỐ 20 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions .20 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 20 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges 21 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 .21 THE FAMILY 21 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 21 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 22 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 23 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 23 AM KHAỎ SỐ 24 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions .24 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 25 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 26 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 27 D 27 on Internet is offering human beings a wide range of benefits and some drawbacks as well 33 B X C A D An 33 on they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat .33 wever B Although C Because D Despite 33 hearing the telephone ring B I had heard the telephone ring 33 ave heard the ring D Just heard the telephone ring 33 on 13 I’m not afraid I am not really to comment on this matter 33 lifying B qualified C quality D qualitative 33 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 33 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 33 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges 33 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 .34 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 34 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 34 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 36 Question 48 I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam 36 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions 36 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions .37 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 38 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 39 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 40 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 40 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions 40 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions .41 on 1: A naked B learned C dogged D performed 41 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 41 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 41 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges 42 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 .42 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 42 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 43 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 44 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 44 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions 44 on 4: A familiar B impatient C uncertain D arrogant 60 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 96 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges 97 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 97 he following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 98 he letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 99 commitment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: She tends to lose her temper for no reason A My boss has no reason so she loses her temper B My boss has no reason for tending to lose her temper C My boss easily gets angry when there is a reason D My boss often gets angry for no reason Question 47: Dancing was an activity that Dane had never wanted to A Dancing was an activity that had never appealed to Dane B Dane always avoided dancing alone C Never had Dane missed any dancing activity D Dane often did nothing while he was dancing Question 48: No matter how hard he tried, Henry couldn’t win Alice’s heart A How hard did he try, Henry couldn’t separate from Alice B He tried as hard as possible, Henry couldn’t defeat Alice C As much harder as he tried, Henry couldn’t love Alice D Even though he tried very hard, Henry couldn’t win Alice’s affections Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: Mum offered me another piece of pie I told her I was full A If I were not full Mum would offer me another piece of pie B Because Mum offered me another piece of pie I was full as she told me C I refused the piece of pie offered by Mum because I was full D I told Mum that I had had enough when she offered me another piece of pie Question 50: We didn't like the holiday resort We decided to enjoy what we could A Finally we agreed to enjoy the holiday resort however little we liked it B We preferred not to enjoy the holiday resort much according to our decision C We decided to make the most of the holiday resort even though we didn't like it much D We might as well stay at the holiday resort despite our not liking I mucht HẾT ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO SỐ 24 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question Question 1: A shown B clown C to D flown Question 2: A mended B valued C performed D discovered Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following question Question 3: A decent B reserve C confide D appeal Question 4: A stimulate B sacrifice C devastate D determine Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 5: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _ A the 1990 B 1990s C 1990’s D the 1990s Question 6: The joke would not be funny if it into French A has been translated B be translated C was be translated D were translated Question 7: He saw a terrible accident while he _ along Ben Luc Bridge A am walking B was walking C walked D were walking Question : _I am eating less than usual, I still seem to gain weight A Because B If C Although D Unless Question 9: Mary’s lawyer advised her anything further about the accident A not saying B telling C not to say D not tell Question 10: , they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there A On arrival at the party B To have attended the party C They had arrive at the party D Just attended the party Question 11: one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music A Being considering B Considering C Considered D To consider Question 12: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped a programme on TV A reading to watch B to read to watch C to read for watching D reading for to watch Question 13: The U23 Vietnamese football team’s performance has attracted from around the world and shown promise for Vietnam’s soccer horizon A attentive B attention C attend D attentively Question 14: on top of the hill, we can see a castle in the distance A Standed B Having standed C To stand D Standing Question 15: Make sure you us a visit when you are in town again A give B C.pay D have Question 16: John congratulated us our exam with high marks A on passing B for passing C to pass D on pass Question 17: There is _nothing we can to change their decision, unfortunately A considerably B totally C extremely D absolutely Question 18: My sister me that she would be home in time to help me with my homework A consented B assured C recognised D admitted Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 19: Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year A.businessmen B minority people C farmers D old people Question 20: The government decided to pull down the old building adter asking for the ideas from the local resident A renovate B purchase C maintain D demolish Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 21: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to calculate their position accurately A carelessly B imprecisely C uneasily D untruthfully Question 22: He is very absent - minded He is likely to forget things or to think about something different from what he should be thinking about A retentive B unforgettable C old- fashioned D easy -going Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges Question 23: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late - Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter My car has broken down on the way here.” - Peter: “ ” A No, I wouldn’t mind at all B Not on my account C That’s all right D Well, it’s worth a try Question 24: Customer: "Can I try this jumper on?" Salesgirl: " " A No, the shop is closed in half an hour B Sorry, only cash is accepted here C Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars D Sure, the changing rooms are over there Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits the numbered blanks from 25 to 29 Some people return to college as mature students and take full- or part-time training courses in a skill which will help them to get a job The development of open learning, (25) it possible to study when it is convenient for the students, has increased the opportunities available (26) many people This type of study was formerly restricted to book-based learning and (27) course but now includes courses on TV, CD-ROM or the Internet, and self-access courses at language or computer centers Americans believe that education is important at all stage of life and should not stop (28) people get their first job About 40% of adults take part in some kind of formal education About half of them are trying to get qualifications and skills to help them with their jobs, the (29) are taking recreational subjects for personal satisfaction Schools and community colleges arrange evening classes, and a catalog of courses is published by local boards of education Question 25: A making B keeping C enabling D finding Question 26: A about B with C to D by Question 27: A informality B informal C formality D formal Question 28: A whereas B that C when D otherwise Question 29: A remains B rest C excess D left Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question from 30 to 34 The population of the world has increased more in modern times than in all other ages of history combined World population totaled about 500 million in 1650 It doubled in the period from 16501850 Today the population is more than five billion Estimates based on research by the United Nations indicate that it will more than double in the twenty-five years between 1915 and the year 2000, reaching seven billion by the turn of the century No one knows the limits of population that the earth can support Thomas Malthus, an English economist, developed a theory that became widely accepted in the nineteenth century He suggested that because world population tended to increase more rapidly than the food supply, a continual strain was exerted upon available resources Malthus cited wars, famines, epidemics, and other disasters as the usual limitations of population growth With recent advances in science and technology, including improved agriculture methods and great strides in medicine, some of the limiting factors in population growth have been lessened, with obvious results International organizations have put forward several recommendations to alleviate the problem of overpopulation, including an increase in food production, genera! economic development in target areas, and a decrease in birth rates Most experts agree that it will be necessary to combine all three recommendations in an effort to effect a lasting solution Question 30: The title below that best expresses the ideas in this passage is A Thomas Malthus's Theory B The United Nations' Estimate C Limiting Factors in Population Growth D A Brief History of Population and Overpopulation Question 31: World population doubled in the years between A 500-1650 B 1650-1850 C 1650-today D 1850-2000 Question 32: According to this passage, by the year 2000 the earth's population should exceed the present figure by how much? A 500 million B Five billion C Two billion D Seven billion Question 33: According this passage, why has overpopulation been caused? A Improved technology B Disasters C Scarcity D Precaution Question 34: What most experts recommend in order to solve problems of overpopulation? A Famine and epidemic B Medical advanced and improved agricultural methods C Conservation of available resources D Economic development and a decline in the birth rate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answers sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 Millions of people are using cell phones today In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss He couldn't remember even simple tasks He would often forget the name of his own son This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time Use your mobile phone only when you really need it Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often Question 35: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, A suffered serious loss of mental ability B abandoned his family C had a problem with memory D could think lucidly Question 36: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may A change their users’ temperament B have affected their users’ health C cause some mental malfunction D change their users’ social behaviours Question 37: According to the writer, people should A keep off mobile phones regularly B never use mobile phones in all cases C only use mobile phones in medical emergencies D only use mobile phones in urgent cases Question 38: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with A the resident memory B the smallest units of the brain C the mobility of the mind and the body D the arteries of the brain Question 39: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because _ A they keep the users alert all the time B they make them look more stylish C they are indispensable in everyday communications D they cannot be replaced by regular phones Question 40: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _ A possibly B certainly C obviously D privately Question 41: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is _ A their power of attraction B their raiding power C their radiant light D their invisible rays Question 42: The phrase "negative publicity" in the passage most likely means A poor ideas about the effects of cell phones B the negative public use of cell phones C widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones D information on the lethal effects of cell phones Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anwer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following questions Question 43: Sixty minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam A B C D Question 44: After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction A B C D Question 45: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen A The living room is bigger than the kitchen B The kitchen is smaller than the living room C The kitchen is bigger than the living room D The kitchen is not bigger than the living room Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter A Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company B Peter advised John complaining to the company C Peter suggested John to complain to the company D Peter suggested that John should complain to the company Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now A It can’t have been Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now B It couldn’t be Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now C It mustn’t have been Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now D It mightn’t be Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café She now regrets it A Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café B Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café C If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café D Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café Question 50: We didn‘t want to spend a lot of money We stayed in a cheap hotel A Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel B In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel C We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money D We didn‘t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend THE END ... You think so? I don’t like it C Oh yes, it’s very unfashionable D It’s my pleasure Question 24: After school, Charles invites Lisa to see a movie with him - Charles : “ Do you fancy going to a... contraception has meant that having children is as matter of choice, not an automatic result of marriage Marriage itself has become a choice As alternatives (29) common-law relationships and single-parent... is it in the winter? C Do you like it here? D Are you going downtown Question 24 Paul and Henry are talking at school Paul: What an attractive hair style you have got, Henry! Henry: “ _.”