The official guide for GMAT review, 13th edition 3

The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 Line According to a recent theory, Archean-age Questions 104-110 refer to the passage above gold-quartz vein systems were formed more than two billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep (5) beneath the surface of the Earth This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks (10) The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance Most of the gold deposits discovered during the original gold rushes were 104 The author is primarily concerned with (A) (B) (0 advocating a return to an older methodology explaining the importance of a recent theory enumerating differences between two widely used methods (D) describing events leading to a discovery (E) challengingthe assumptions on which a theory is based exposed at the Earth's surface and were found (15) because they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression The challenge in exploration is therefore to (20) unravel the subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of buried minerals Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical (25) techniques that provide data on the magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization However, (30) none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most (35) likely to be mineralized Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into account theoretical studies of relevant factors These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits and from theories of ore-forming processes The explorer uses the models to identify those geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then tries (45) to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible (40) 406 105 According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such systems (A) were formed from metamorphic fluids (B) originated in molten granite-like bodies (C) were formed from alluvial deposits (D) generally have surface expression (E) are not discoverable through chemical tests 106 The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers who wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold? (A) Surveying several sites known to have been formed more than two billion years ago (B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid (C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration (D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area (E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has previously been found QQ:1014347461 107 Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information in the passage? 7.4 Reading Comprehension Practice Questions 109 The theory mentioned in lines 1-5 relates to the conceptual models discussed in the passage in which of the following ways? (A) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original gold rushes and the present (A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual models that have great practical significance (B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed to (B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual locate buried mineralization (C) (D) (E) It is unlikelythat newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits discovered during the original gold rushes models (C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual models Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utilityof simple prospecting methods as a source of new discoveries of gold deposits (D) Models based on the theory that gold originated from magmatic fluids have already led to new discoveries of gold deposits It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a basis for correcting current conceptual models (E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still have a higher success rate in the discovery of gold deposits than more modern methods 108 It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect? (A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in magmatic fluids (B) (E) the following facts? A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids (0 (D) 110 According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that are widely used today are based on which of A gold deposit that is mixed with granite A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold (A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are still molten (B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos (0 (D) (E) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are found in regions difficultto reach Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of gold 407 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 Line n'le the most abundant and dominant species within a particular ecosystem is often crucial in perpetuating the ecosystem, a "keystone" species, here defined as one whose effects are much larger than would be predicted from its abundance, can also play a vital role But because complex species interactions may be involved, identifying a keystone species by removing the species and observing changes in the ecosystem is problematic It might (10) seem that certain traits would clearly define a species as a keystone species; for example, Pisaster ochraceus is often a keystone predator because it consumes and suppresses mussel (5) (15) populations, which in the absence of this starfish can be a dominant species But such predation on a dominant or potentially dominant species occurs in systems that as well as in systems that not have species that play keystone roles Moreover, whereas P ochraceus occupies an unambiguous (20) keystone role on wave-exposed rocky headlands, in more wave-sheltered habitats the impact of P ochraceus predation is weak or nonexistent, and at certain sites sand burial is responsible for eliminating mussels Keystone status appears to (25) depend on context, whether of particular geography or of such factors as community diversity (for example, a reduction in species diversity may thrust more of the remaining species into keystone roles) and length of species (30) interaction (since newly arrived species in particular may dramatically affect ecosystems) 408 Questions 111-114 refer to the passage above 111 The passage mentions which of the following as a factor that affects the role of P ochraceus as a keystone species within different habitats? (A) The degree to which the habitat is sheltered from waves (B) The degree to which other animals within a habitat prey on mussels (0 The fact that mussel populations are often not dominant within some habitats occupied by P ochraceus (D) The size of the P ochraceus population within the habitat (E) The fact that there is great species diversity within some habitats occupied by P ochraceus 112 Which of the following hypothetical experiments most clearly exemplifies the method of identifying species' roles that the author considers problematic? (A) A population of seals in an Arctic habitat is counted in order to determine whether it is the dominant species in that ecosystem (B) A species of fish that is a keystone species in one marine ecosystem is introduced into another marine ecosystem to see whether the species will come to occupy a keystone role (C) In order to determine whether a species of monkey is a keystone species within a particular ecosystem, the monkeys are removed from that ecosystem and the ecosystem is then studied (D) Different mountain ecosystems are compared to determine how geography affects a particular species' ability to dominate its ecosystem (E) In a grassland experiencing a changing climate, patterns of species extinction are traced in order to evaluate the effect of climate changes on keystone species in that grassland QQ:1014347461 7.4 Reading Comprehension Practice Questions 113 Which of the following, if true, would most clearly support the argument about keystone status advanced in the last sentence of the passage (lines 24-31)? (A) A species of bat is primarily responsible for keeping insect populations within an ecosystem low, and the size of the insect population in turn affects bird species within that ecosystem (B) A species of iguana occupies a keystone role on certain tropical islands, but does not playthat role on adjacent tropical islands that are inhabited by a greater number of animal species (C) Close observation of a savannah ecosystem reveals that more species occupy keystone roles within that ecosystem than biologists had previously believed (D) As a keystone species of bee becomes more abundant, it has a larger effect on the ecosystem it inhabits (E) A species of moth that occupies a keystone role in a prairie habitat develops coloration patterns that camouflage it from potential predators 114 The passage suggests which of the following about the identification of a species as a keystone species? (A) Such an identification depends primarily on the species' relationship to the dominant species (B) Such an identification can best be made by removing the species from a particular ecosystem and observing changes that occur in the ecosystem .(0 Such an identification is likely to be less reliable as an ecosystem becomes less diverse (D) (E) Such an identification seems to depend on various factors within the ecosystem Such an identification can best be made by observing predation behavior 409 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 Line After evidence was obtained in the 1920s that the universe is expanding, it became reasonable to ask: Will the universe continue to expand indefinitely, or is there enough mass in it for the (5) mutual attraction of its constituents to bring this expansion to a halt? It can be calculated that the critical density of matter needed to brake the expansion and "close" the universe is equivalent to three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter But the (10) density of the observable universe—luminous matter in the form of galaxies—comes to only a fraction of this If the expansion of the universe is to stop, there must be enough invisible matter in the universe to exceed the luminous matter in density (15) by a factor of roughly 70 Questions 115-119 refer to the passage above 115 The passage is primarily concerned with (A) defending a controversial approach (B) criticizing an accepted view (C) summarizing research findings (D) contrasting competing theories (E) describing an innovative technique 116 The authors' study indicates that, in comparison with the outermost regions of a typical spiral galaxy, the region just outside the nucleus can be characterized as having Our contribution to the search for this "missing matter" has been to study the rotational velocity of galaxies at various distances from their center (A) higher rotational velocity and higher luminosity (B) lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity of rotation It has been known for some time that (C) lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity (D) similar rotational velocity and higher luminosity (E) similar rotational velocity and similar luminosity (20) outside the bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy luminosity falls off rapidly with distance from the center If luminosity were a true indicator of mass, most of the mass would be concentrated toward the center Outside the nucleus the rotational (25) velocitywould decrease geometrically with distance from the center, in conformity with Kepler's law Instead we have found that the rotational velocity in spiral galaxies either remains constant with increasing distance from the center or increases (30) slightly This unexpected result indicates that the falloff in luminous mass with distance from the center is balanced by an increase in nonluminous mass Our findings suggest that as much as 90 (35) percent of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any wavelength with enough intensity to be 117 The authors' suggestion that "as much as 90 percent of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any wavelength with enough intensity to be detected on the Earth" (lines 34-37) would be most weakened if which of the following were discovered to be true? (A) galaxies that contain little nonluminous matter (B) Luminous and nonluminous matter are composed of the same basic elements (C) The bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy also contains some nonluminous matter (D) The density of the observable universe is greater than most previous estimates have (E) Some galaxies not rotate or rotate too slowly for their rotational velocity to be measured detected on the Earth Such dark matter could be suggested in the form of extremely dim stars of low mass, of large planets like Jupiter, or of black holes, (40) either small or massive While it has not yet been determined whether this mass is sufficient to close the universe, some physicists consider it significant that estimates are converging on the critical value 410 Spiral galaxies are less common than types of QQ:1014347461 7.4 Reading Comprehension Practice Questions 118 It can be inferred from information presented inthe passage that if the density of the universe were equivalent to significantly less than three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter, which of the following would be true as a consequence? (A) Luminosity would be a true indicator of mass (B) Differentregions in spiral galaxies would rotate at the same velocity (0 The universe would continue to expand indefinitely (D) The density of the invisible matter in the universe would have to be more than 70 times the density of the luminous matter (E) More of the invisible matter in spiral galaxies would have to be located in their nuclei than in their outer regions 119 The authors propose all of the following as possibly contributing to the "missing matter" in spiral galaxies EXCEPT (A) massive black holes (B) small black holes (0 small, dim stars (D) massive stars (E) large planets 411 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 Line (5) Jon Clark's study of the effect of the modernization of a telephone exchange on exchange (50) the capabilities and nature of the technology itself Thus Clark helps answer the question: "When is maintenance work and workers is a solid social choice decisive and when are the concrete contribution to a debate that encompasses two lively issues in the history and sociology of technology: technological determinism and social characteristics of technology more important?" Questions 120-127 refer to the passage above constructivism Clark makes the point that the characteristics of a technology have a decisive influence on job skills (10) and work organization Put more strongly, technology can be a primary determinant of social and managerial organization Clark believes this possibility has been obscured by the recent sociological fashion, exemplified by Braverman's (15) analysis, that emphasizes the way machinery reflects social choices For Braverman, the shape of a technological system is subordinate to the manager's desire to wrest control of the labor process from the workers Technological change is (20) construed as the outcome of negotiations among interested parties who seek to incorporate their own interests into the design and configuration of the machinery This position represents the new mainstream called social constructivism (25) The constructivists gain acceptance by misrepresenting technological determinism: technological determinists are supposed to believe, for example, that machinery imposes appropriate forms of order on society The alternative to (30) constructivism, in other words, is to view technology as existing outside society, capable of directly influencing skills and work organization 120 The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) advocate a more positive attitude toward technological change (B) discuss the implications for employees of the modernization of a telephone exchange (C) consider a successful challenge to the constructivist view of technological change (D) challenge the position of advocates of technological determinism (E) suggest that the social causes of technological change should be studied in real situations 121 Which of the following statements about the modernization of the telephone exchange is supported by information in the passage? (A) The new technology reduced the role of managers in labor negotiations (B) The modernization was implemented without the consent of the employees directly affected by it (C) significantly beyond maintenance routines (D) relationships between social and technical variables Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology to cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for machinery is just scrap unless it is organized functionally and (40) supported by appropriate systems of operation and The modernization gave credence to the view of advocates of social constructivism 122 Which of the following most accurately describes Clark's opinion of Braverman's position? (A) (B) maintenance-intensive electromechanical switches (C) technology, whereas others are seen as arising from 412 (E) maintenance At the empirical level Clark shows how a change at the telephone exchange from to semielectronic switching systems altered work (45) tasks, skills, training opportunities, administration, and organization of workers Some changes Clark attributes to the particular way management and labor unions negotiated the introduction of the Some of the maintenance workers felt victimized by the new technology Clark refutes the extremes of the constructivists by both theoretical and empirical arguments (35) Theoretically he defines "technology" in terms of The modernization had an impact that went He respects its wide-ranging popularity He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis on the influence of managers He admires the consideration it gives to the attitudes of the workers affected (D) He is concerned about its potential to impede the implementation of new technologies (E) He is sympathetic to its concern about the impact of modern technology on workers QQ:1014347461 123 The information in the passage suggests that which of the following statements from hypothetical sociological studies of change in industry most clearly exemplifies the social constructivists' version of technological determinism? (A) It is the available technology that determines workers' skills, rather than workers' skills influencing the application of technology (B) All progress in industrial technology grows out of a continuing negotiation between technological possibility and human need (C) Some organizational change is caused by people; some is caused by computer chips (D) Most major technological advances in industry have been generated through research and development (E) 125 According to the passage, constructivists employed which of the following to promote their argument? (A) Empirical studies of business situations involving technological change (B) Citation of managers supportive of their position (C) Construction of hypothetical situations that support their view (D) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement of an opposing view (E) Descriptions of the breadth of impact of technological change 126 The author of the passage uses the expression "are supposed to" in line 27 primarily in order to Some industrial technology eliminates jobs, but suggest that a contention made by constructivists regarding determinists is educated workers can create whole new skills inaccurate areas by the adaptation of the technology 124 The information in the passage suggests that Clark believes that which of the following would be true if social constructivism had not gained widespread acceptance? (A) Businesses would be more likely to modernize without considering the social consequences of (A) (B) define the generally accepted position of determinists regarding the implementation of technology (C) engage in speculation about the motivation of determinists (D) lend support to a comment critical of the position of determinists (E) contrast the historical position of determinists with their position regarding the exchange their actions (B) modernization There would be greater understanding of the role played by technology in producing social change (C) 7.4 Reading Comprehension Practice Questions Businesses would be less likely to understand the attitudes of employees affected by modernization 127 Which of the following statements about Clark's study of the telephone exchange can be inferred from information in the passage? (D) Modernization would have occurred at a slower (A) Clark's reason for undertaking the study was to undermine Braverman's analysis of the function rate of technology (E) Technology would have played a greater part in determining the role of business in society (B) Clark's study suggests that the implementation of technology should be discussed in the context of conflict between labor and management (0 Clark examined the impact of changes in the technology of switching at the exchange in terms of overall operations and organization Clark concluded that the implementation of new switching technology was equally beneficial to (D) management and labor (E) Clark's analysis of the change in switching systems applies only narrowly to the situation at the particular exchange that he studied 413 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 Line All the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes Howthen can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The (5) answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules (10) Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin (15) (20) (25) (30) Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants The five have so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animals For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates Questions 128-133 refer to the passage above 128 According to the passage, the five well-known plant hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of crops because (A) hormones perform (B) (C) These hormones have specific effects on target follicle cells, and so forth In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants Oligo saccharins are fragments of the cell wall released (40) by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall 414 each hormone has various effects on plants none of the hormones can function without the others (D) each hormone has different effects on different kinds of plants (E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a cell's genes at any particular time 129 The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is similar to the place of which of the following in plants? (A) Plant cell walls (B) The complement of genes in each plant cell (C) A subset of a plant cell's gene complement (D) The five major hormones (E) The oligosaccharins 130 The passage suggests that which of the following is a function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin? (A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of a plant's root system (B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce other oligosaccharins (C) To activate enzymes that release specific chemical messengers from plant cell walls To duplicate the gene complement in a particular the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex organs all over the body One hormone stimulates (35) the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian it is not known exactly what functions the (D) plant cell (E) To produce multiple effects on a particular subsystem of plant cells QQ:1014347461 7.4 Reading Comprehension Practice Questions 131 The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on plant development in order to illustrate the (A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones can be harmful (B) way in which hormones are produced by plants (C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant hormones (D) differences among the best-known plant (E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant hormones hormones 132 According to the passage, which of the following best describes a function performed by oligosaccharins? (A) (B) Regulating the daily functioning of a plant's cells Interacting with one another to produce different chemicals (C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a plant's cell walls (D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells to differentiate to perform different functions (E) Influencing the development of a plant's cells by controlling the expression of the cells' genes 133 The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively to (A) trace the passage of chemicals through the walls of cells (B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones (C) artificially control specific aspects of the (D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of development of crops plants (E) alterthe effects of the five major hormones on plant development 415 QQ:1014347461 52 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations Most employees in the computer industry move from company to company, changing jobs several times in their careers However, Summit Computers is known throughout the industry for retaining its employees Summit credits its success in retaining employees to its informal, nonhierarchical work environment Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports Summit's explanation of its success in retaining employees? (A) Some people employed in the computer industry change jobs if they become bored with their current projects (B) A hierarchical work environment hinders the cooperative exchange of ideas that computer industry employees consider necessary for their work (C) Many of Summit's senior employees had previously worked at only one other computer company (D) In a nonhierarchical work environment, people avoid behavior that might threaten group harmony and thus avoid discussing with their colleagues any dissatisfaction they might have with their jobs (E) The cost of living near Summit is relatively low compared to areas in which some other computer companies are located Argument Evaluation Situation A computer company attributes its success in retainingemployees to its informal, nonhierarchical work environment Reasoning Which pointmost supports the company's explanation?'The companysays that employees stay at the companyfor one reason: its work environment The explanation can therefore be supported only bya point that relates to the specific work environment If employees feel that a more formal, hierarchical structure would interferewith their ability to their jobs, the argument is strengthened A Neither this point nor the passage indicates that an informal, nonhierarchical work environment would be less boring than others B Correct This statement properly identifies a point that strengthens the company's argument, relating the work environment to jobsatisfaction and therefore to employees' remaining at the company C The previous work experience of senior employees is irrelevant D While this point shows how the work environment might reduce discussion ofjob dissatisfaction, it does not indicate that there will be less dissatisfaction E This point presents an alternate explanation—employees stay due to low cost ofliving—and so tends to weaken the company's argument The correct answer is B 591 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 53 Insurance Company Xis considering issuing a new policy to cover services required by elderly people who suffer from diseases that afflictthe elderly Premiums for the policy must be low enough to attract customers Therefore, Company Xis concerned that the income from the policies would not be sufficient to pay for the claims that would be made Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize Company X's losses on the policies? (A) Attracting middle-aged customers unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years (B) Insuring only those individuals who did not suffer any serious diseases as children (C) Including a greater number of services in the policy than are included in other policies of lower cost (D) Insuring only those individuals who were rejected by other companies for similar policies (E) Insuring only those individuals who are wealthy enough to pay for the medical services Evaluation of a Plan Situation An insurance company considers an affordable policy for the elderly, but the company's incomefrom the policies must exceed expenditures on claims Reasoning What strategy willminimize the company's losses? The insurance company's proposed plan would include a high-risk group, the elderly, who are likely to submit claims immediately Byexpanding the customer base to include those who are less likely to submit claims for manyyears, the companywill increase its income and thus minimize its losses A B Correct This statementproperly identifies a strategy that minimizes policy losses No connection is madebetween childhood diseases and geriatric diseases, so this point is irrelevant C D Offering more services would tend to increase costs, and thus losses Individuals rejected by other companies are more likely to make claims that would increase losses E People who are wealthy enough to pay for the services themselves would buy insurance only if the policies were reasonably priced and they planned to make claims on the policies; this point is irrelevant The correct answer is A 592 QQ:1014347461 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations 54 The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than the lawyers who not advertise Therefore, if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions Ifthe statements above are true, which of the following must be true? (A) Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they not have to specify fee arrangements in the advertisements (B) More consumers will use legal services ifthere are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services (C) If the restriction against advertisements that not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will advertise their services (D) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who not advertise will also charge less than they currently charge for those services (E) If the only restrictions on the advertising of legal services were those that apply to every type of advertising, most lawyers would advertise their services Argument Construction Situation Consumer legal costswill be reduced if the state removes even one restriction on lawyers' advertisements because the fewer the restrictions, the greater the number of lawyers who advertise, and lawyers who advertise charge less than lawyers who not advertise Reasoning What conclusion can logically be drawn? The argument sets up an inverse proportion: the fewer the number of restrictions on ads, the greater the number of lawyers who advertise This is true of all restrictions and all lawyers Therefore, removing any one restriction necessarily increases the number of lawyers who advertise A B C D The lawyers maycharge more, but nothing in the passage rules out the possibility that no lawyer will charge more No evidence in the passage indicates that there will be an increased use of legal services Correct This statement properly identifies a conclusion that logically follows, because reducing any restriction will increase the number of lawyers who advertise Nothing in the passage indicates that lawyers who continue not to advertise will be compelled to lower their fees E The argument concerns numbers of advertisers rather than types; it remains possible that few lawyers would advertise The correct answer is C 593 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 55 Which of the following most logically completes the argument given below? People in isolated rain-forest communities tend to live on a largely vegetarian diet, and they eat little salt Few of them suffer from high blood pressure, and their blood pressure does not tend to increase with age, as is common in industrialized countries Such people often develop high blood pressure when they move to cities and adopt high-salt diets Though suggestive, thesefacts not establish salt as the culprit in high blood pressure, however, because (A) (B) genetic factors could account for the lack of increase of blood pressure with age among such people people eating high-salt diets and living from birth in cities in industrialized societies generally have a tendency to have high blood pressure (C) it is possible to have a low-salt dietwhile living in a city in an industrialized country (D) (E) there are changes in other aspects of diet when such people move to the city salt is a necessity for human life, and death can occur when the body loses too much salt Argument Construction Situation People in isolated communities who eatlow-salt diets tend not to have high blood pressure or to experience age-related increases in blood pressure When these people move to industrialized areas and adopt high-salt diets, many develop high blood pressure Nevertheless, (for a reason the argument omits) one cannotconclude that salt causes high blood pressure Reasoning A B C What idea would logically complete the argument? It may seem reasonable to saythat salt causes high blood pressure when it is observed that when people who eat little salt begin eating salt, they develop high blood pressure But look more closely at the circumstances under which these people began eating more salt:They moved from isolated rain-forest communities, where they ate vegetarian diets, to cities It is most likely the case that such a move would entail dietary changes other than just an increase in salt consumption, and so it is possible that those changes contribute to their developing high blood pressure If genetic factors accounted for such people's lackof increase of blood pressure with age, then their blood pressure would not increase when they moved to cities and adopted high-salt diets If people who eat high-salt diets tend to have high blood pressure, it would support the idea that salt is indeed the culprit in high blood pressure The argument is concerned with what happens when people from rain-forest communities move to cities and adopt high-salt diets, so the fact that it is possible to have a low-salt diet in a city is not relevant D Correct This statementproperly identifies a reason why salt might not be responsible for high blood pressure: There could be some other dietary factor that, when adopted, causes high blood pressure E The argument is concerned with the effects of high-salt diets The fact that consuming too little salt can cause death says nothing about whetherconsuming too much salt is harmful The correct answer is D 594 QQ:1014347461 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations 56 Even though most universities retain the royalties from faculty members' inventions, thefaculty members retain the royalties from books and articles they write Therefore, faculty members should retain the royalties from the educational computer software they develop The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional premise? (A) (B) Royalties from inventions are higher than royalties from educational software programs Faculty members are more likely to produce educational software programs than inventions (C) (D) Inventions bring more prestige to universities than books and articles In the experience of most universities, educational software programs are more marketable than are books and articles (E) In terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educational software programs are more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions Argument Construction Situation Faculty members get the royalties from their books, but universities get the royalties from faculty inventions Faculty members should get the royalties from their educational computer software Reasoning Whatpremise should be added to the argument? This argumentdoes not support its conclusion very wellwithout an underlying assumption regarding the nature of computer programs If, in terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educationalcomputer programs are more like books and articles than like inventions, faculty members should retain the royalties On the other hand, if they are more like inventions, then universities should retain the royalties The conclusion states that faculty members should receive royalties for educational software without stating that software is more comparable to books and articles than to inventions The missing premise must show the relationship between educational software and either inventions or books and articles A B The same may be true of books and articles This point does not indicatewhether educational software is more comparable to inventions or to books and articles C D This point could be true even if, with regard to the relevant criteria, educational software is more comparable to inventions than to books and articles This point does not indicate whether educational software is more comparable to inventions or to books and articles E Correct.This statement properly identifies a premise that establishes the relationship required to complete the argument The correct answer is E 595 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 57 In order to withstand tidal currents, juvenile horseshoe crabs frequently burrow in the sand Such burrowing discourages barnacles from clinging to their shells When fully grown, however, the crabs can readily withstand tidal currents without burrowing, and thus they acquire substantial populations of barnacles Surprisingly, in areas where tidal currents are very weak, juvenile horseshoe crabs are found not to have significant barnacle populations, even though they seldom burrow Which of the following, if true, most helpsto explain the surprising finding? (A) Tidal currents not themselves dislodge barnacles from the shells of horseshoe crabs (B) Barnacles most readily attach themselves to horseshoe crabs in areas where tidal currents are weakest (0 (D) (E) The strength of the tidal currents in a given location varies widely over the course of a day Avery large barnacle population can significantly decrease the ability of a horseshoe crab to find food Until they are fully grown, horseshoe crabs shed their shells and grow new ones several times a year Argument Construction Situation Juvenile horseshoe crabs withstand tidal currents by burrowing in the sand This action makes barnacles less likely to cling to their shells Adult horseshoe crabs can withstand currents, so they not burrow, and barnacles become more likelyto cling to their shells Surprisingly, however, juvenile horseshoe crabs that not burrow, because tidal currents not threaten them, not have significant numbers of barnacles clinging to their shells Reasoning A B C D E What would most help explain thefinding that nonburrowingjuvenile horseshoe crabs not have significant barnaclepopulations? The finding suggests that there is someway in which nonburrowing juvenile horseshoe crabs either discourage barnacles from clinging to their shells, or get rid of the barnacles that cling to their shells Identifying how this is accomplished will explain the finding This gives a reason whyjuvenile horseshoe crabs that not burrow would have significant barnacle populations If barnacles in areas of weak tidal currents readilyattach themselves to horseshoe crabs, then it would be more likely for juvenile horseshoe crabs in such areas to have significant barnacle populations The areas under discussion are those where tidal currents are very weak The strength of currents may vary widely there, but presumably they are still weakcompared to other areas The surprising finding under discussion iswhy certain juvenile horseshoe crabs not have significant barnacle populations, despite failing to engage in behavior that dislodges barnacles That a verylarge barnacle populationcan hurt a horseshoe crab does not help explainsuch a finding Correct This statementproperly identifies something that helps explain the surprising finding: Ifjuvenile horseshoe crabs regularly shed their shells, they also regularly shed the barnacles that clingto those shells Thus juvenile horseshoe crabs would mostlikely be found not to have significant barnacle populations The correct answer is E 596 QQ:1014347461 58 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations Red blood cells in which the malarial-fever parasite resides are eliminated from a person's body after 120 days Because the parasite cannot travel to a new generation of red blood cells, any fever that develops in a person more than 120 days after that person has moved to a malaria-free region is not due to the malarial parasite Which of the following, iftrue, most seriously weakens the conclusion above? (A) (B) The fever caused bythe malarial parasite may resemble the fever caused by flu viruses The anopheles mosquito, which is the principal insect carrier of the malarial parasite, has been eradicated in many parts of the world (C) Many malarial symptoms other than the fever, which can be suppressed with antimalarial medication, can reappear within 120 days after the medication is discontinued (D) In some cases, the parasite that causes malarial fever travels to cells of the spleen, which are less frequently eliminated from a person's body than are red blood cells (E) In any region infested with malaria-carrying mosquitoes, there are individuals who appear to be immune to malaria Argument Evaluation Situation The malarial-fever parasite lives in red blood cells, but these cells are eliminated after 120 days If the infected person moves to a malaria-free region, any new fever that occurs after 120 days cannot be due to the malarial-fever parasite Reasoning What weakens the conclusion? The passage says that the malarial parasites that reside in red blood cells are eliminated after 120 days What if malarial parasites can also reside in other places in a person's body? If for instance the parasites can reside in the spleen, from which they are not eliminated as frequently, as well as in red blood cells, they may not be eliminated within 120 days Therefore, they could cause malarial fever after the 120-day period In that case, the conclusion ruling out a new generation of malarial parasites as the cause of new fever is unfounded A B C D E The issue is not about a similarityof symptoms but about where the parasites reside The existence of malaria-free regions is not in question The argument gives no reason to postulate any significant connectionbetween the discontinuation of medication and the issue ofwhether symptoms can persist after a patienthas been in a malaria-free region for 120 days Correct This statement properly identifies a point that weakens the conclusion This tells us only that some individuals are immune; it does not help us determine whether those who are not can have symptoms occur more than 120days after moving into a malaria-free area The correct answer is D 597 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 59 Which of the following most logically completes the passage? Arecent government study links the high rates of respiratory ailments in Groverston to airborne pollutants released by the Woodco plywood manufacturing plant there To address the problem, the government imposed strict regulations on emissions which will go into effect in four years Although Woodco plans to cut its emissions in half two years ahead of schedule, it is unlikely that the rate of respiratory ailments will decline before the regulations go into effect, since (A) (B) the number offacilities capable of treating respiratory ailments is not likely to increase reducing emissions even further than planned would necessitate decreasing production at Woodco (C) it is difficultto make accurate, long-term predictions about emissions (D) not all respiratory ailments are caused by airborne pollutants (E) three new plywood manufacturing plants are about to go into production in Groverston Argument Construction Situation A government study linked high rates of respiratory illness in Groverston to air pollutants released by a plywood manufacturing plant A government-imposed restriction on emissions will go into effect in fouryears But the Woodco manufacturing plant plans to cut its emissions in half two years ahead of schedule Reasoning Which ofthepossible completions ofthe passage willprovide the most supportfor the argument's conclusion?'The argument's conclusion is that the rateof respiratory illness is unlikely to decline before the regulations go into effect four years from now That is a surprising claim, given that the existing plywood factory is going to halve its emissions two years from now—so this claim requires additionalsupport (to be provided by completing the blank) Such additional support is provided by the information that three new plywood manufacturing plants will soon be starting production in Groverston This suggests that even if Groverston reduces its emissions by half over the next two years—and even if each of the three new plants have only, let's say, one quarter of the emissions of the existingplant as currently operated—the total amount of airborne pollutants from plywood manufacture in the Groverston areawill not decline Since the total airborne pollution from the plants will not decline, we should not expect that the rate of respiratory illnesses from such pollution would decline either A B C The argument focuses on the incidence of respiratory ailments in Groverston, not on the availability of treatment facilities for such ailments once they occur So this statement is largely irrelevant to the argument This information provides no support for the argument's conclusion It merely indicates a practical difficulty Woodco would have in making more than a 50 percent reduction in its emissions However, even with the 50 percentemissions reduction that Woodco plans to implement in two years, the rate of respiratory ailments shoulddecline First, it is not clear that a prediction about levels of emissions in Groverston three or four years from now is a long-term prediction More to the point, if it would be very difficult to predict the emissions even two years from now, that would not support a conclusion that rates of respiratory ailments are unlikely to decline Rather, it would support the conclusion that we not know whether rates will decline D This information raises the possibility that within the next four years, an increase in the occurrence of factors other than airborne pollutants might make a decline in respiratory ailments unlikely However, the passage provides no information whatsoever that implies an increase in the E Correct This helps to support the conclusion thatrates ofrespiratory ailments in Groverston are occurrence of such "other" factors unlikely to decline before the new government regulations go into effect The correct answer is E 598 QQ:1014347461 60 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations Neither a rising standard of living nor balanced trade, by itself, establishes a country's abilityto compete in the international marketplace Both are required simultaneously since standards of living can rise because of growing trade deficits and trade can be balanced by means of a decline in a country's standard of living If the facts stated in the passage above are true, a proper test of a country's abilityto be competitive is its ability to (A) balance its trade while its standard of living rises (B) balance its trade while its standard of living falls (C) increase trade deficits while its standard of living rises (D) decrease trade deficits while its standard of living falls (E) keep its standard of living constant while trade deficits rise Argument Evaluation Situation A country's ability to compete in the international marketplace depends on both a rising standard of living and balanced trade Reasoning What must a country to be considered competitive? The passage states that there are two conditions that must be met simultaneously: The standard of living must rise, and trade must be balanced While it is possible for the standard of living to rise when trade is not balanced and for trade to be balanced while the standard of livingis falling, neitherof these situations allows the country to be considered competitive internationally The country must both balance trade and have a rising standard of living A Correct Thisstatement properly identifies the two requirements the countrymust meet at the same time B One of the two conditions is not met; the standard ofliving must be rising, not falling C One of the two conditions is not met; trade must be balanced D E Neither ofthe conditions is met; trade must be balanced, and the standard ofliving must be rising Neither of the conditions is met; the standard ofliving must be rising, not constant, and trade must be balanced The correct answer is A 599 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 61 When there is less rainfall than normal, the water level of Australian rivers falls and the rivers flow more slowly Because algae whose habitat is river water grow best in slow-moving water, the amount of algae per unit of water generally increases when there has been little rain Bycontrast, however, following a period of extreme drought, algae levels are low even in very slow-moving river water Which of the following, if true, does most to explain the contrast described above? (A) During periods of extreme drought, the populations of some of the species that feed on algae tend to fall (B) The more slowly water moves, the more conducive its temperature is to the growth of algae (C) When algae populations reach very high levels, conditions within the river can become toxic for some of the other species that normally live there (D) Australian rivers dry up completely for short intervals in periods of extreme drought (E) Except during periods of extreme drought, algae levels tend to be higher in rivers in which the flow has been controlled by damming than in rivers that flow freely Argument Construction Situation Reasoning When Australian rivers flow slowly due to little rain, algae populations in those rivers increase But after periods of extreme drought, algae levels are low even in water moving at speeds that would normally showpopulation increases What would explain the contrast between algae levels inslow-moving water resultingfrom little rain and slow-moving water after a drought? There must be some difference between what happens during periods in which there is simply less rainfall than normal and periods in which there is extreme drought, a difference that affects the algae population A B C This indicates oneof the consequences of drought, and slightly suggests that this mightbe due to a lower algae level But it does nothing to explain why algae levels mightbe lower after a drought This could explain why some rivers that are slow-moving and have little water mighthave a high algae level—but not why the algae level is low in such rivers after a period of drought This explains why levels of other species might be low when algae populations are high, notwhy algae populations are high when there islittle rain, butlow following a period of extreme drought D Correct This statement properly identifies something that helps explain the contrast According to the information given, the habitat of the algae under discussion is river water If the river dries up, the algae will probably not survive Then after the drought, algae population levels would likely take a while to rise again E This emphasizes that there is a contrast between what happens to algae during periods ofextreme drought and what happens to them at other times, butit does not help explain thatcontrast The correct answer is D 600 QQ:1014347461 62 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, "No." Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above? (A) Why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes"? (B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation? (C) Why the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf? (D) Why hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described? (E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects? Argument Evaluation Situation People under hypnosis are told they are deaf When asked by the hypnotist if they can hear, they hear the question and respond, "No." A theory explains this puzzling result by stating that the hypnotized subjects dissociate the part of themselves that is deaf from the part that replies to the question Reasoning Which question points toa weakness in the theory? According to the theory, hypnotized people dissociate themselves into separate parts: the hearing part and the deaf part Then, they must be using the hearing part of themselves when they respond to the hypnotist's question; obviously, if they were using the deaf part of themselves at that point, they would not hear or thus respond at all So, if they are using the hearing part of themselves, as the theorists maintain, whywould they respond "No" to the question, "Can you hear me?" The hearing part would morelogically answer "Yes." A Correct Thisstatement properly identifies a challenge that demonstrates the weakness in the theory B This question does not address a weakness in the explanation; instead it asks why there needs to be an explanation at all C The theorists' explanation, if true,canhelp answer this question, so this challenge does not indicate a weakness D The theorists' explanation, if true, can help answer this question, sothischallenge does not indicate a weakness E The theorists' explanation does not address why the parts ofthe self are the same for all subjects, so this question does not get to a weakness of their argument The correct answer is A 601 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 63 A prominent investor who holds a large stake in the Burton Tool Company has recently claimed that the company is mismanaged, citing as evidence the company's failure to slow production in response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products It is doubtful whether an investor's sniping at management can ever be anything other than counterproductive, but in this case it is clearly not justified It is true that an increased inventory of finished products often indicates that production is outstripping demand, but in Burton's case it indicates no such thing Rather, the increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders received from customers In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles? (A) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides evidence to undermine the support for the position being opposed (B) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second is evidence that has been used to support the position being opposed (C) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole (D) The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides information to undermine the force of that evidence (E) The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole Argument Evaluation Situation An investor states that Burton Tool must be mismanaged because it has failed to slow production in response to increasing inventory of finished products This criticism is unjustified because the finished inventory has alreadybeen assigned to orders received Reasoning Which option identifies the roles played by the boldfacedportions? The first boldfaced portion expresses the investor's claim that the company is mismanaged The argument asserts, in the second boldfaced portion, that this claim by the investor is unjustified The passage then goes on to support this assertion A B C The second boldfaced portiondoes not provide evidence to undermine the support for the position beingopposed; instead, it states that this position is unjustified The second boldfaced portionis not said to have been used as evidence for the position being opposed; instead, it states that this position isunjustified Correct This option correctly identifies the roles played in the argument bythe boldfaced portions D E The first boldfaced portion is not evidencefor the position being opposed; it is that position Again, first is notevidenceforthe position being opposed; it is that position The correct answer is C 602 QQ:1014347461 64 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations Excavation of the ancient city of Kourion on the island of Cyprus revealed a pattern of debris and collapsed buildings typical of towns devastated by earthquakes Archaeologists have hypothesized that the destruction was due to a major earthquake known to have occurred near the island in A.D 365 Which of the following, iftrue, most strongly supports the archaeologists' hypothesis? (A) (B) Bronze ceremonial drinking vessels that are often found in graves dating from years preceding and following A.D 365 were also found in several graves near Kourion No coins minted after A.D 365 were found in Kourion, but coins minted before that year were found in abundance (C) (D) Most modern histories of Cyprus mention that an earthquake occurred near the island in A.D 365 Several small statues carved in styles current in Cyprus in the century between A.D 300 and A.D 400 were found in Kourion (E) Stone inscriptions in a form of the Greek alphabet that was definitely used in Cyprus after A.D 365 were found in Kourion Argument Evaluation Situation The excavation of Kourion reveals a pattern of destruction typical in towns destroyed by earthquakes Archaeologists suggest Kourionwas destroyed when an earthquake hit nearby in A.D 365 Reasoning Which statement best supports the archaeologists hypothesis? An earthquake strucknear Cyprus in A.D 365; this factis not disputed If this earthquake is the one responsible for the devastation of Kourion, then there should be evidence of active occupation before A.D 365, but no evidence of activity after that date The dates on the coins found on the site suggest that life in Kourion was flourishing before A.D 365; the total lack of coins after the year of the earthquake supports the idea that the city had been destroyed A B C D The existence of vessels made both before and after A.D 365 suggests that Kourionwas not destroyed by the earthquake Correct This statement properly identifies evidence that supports the archaeologists' hypothesis The occurrence of the earthquake is not in question; this statement simply confirms a fact already assumed in the argument The existence of statues carved in styles current after the date of the earthquake (A.D 365A.D 400) argues against the town's destruction in A.D 365 E The existence of inscriptions using an alphabet common only after the earthquake argues against the theory that the earthquake destroyed Kourion The correct answer is B 603 The Official Guide for GMAT® Review 13th Edition QQ:1014347461 65 Which of the following most logically completes the passage? Pecan growers get a high price for their crop when pecans are comparatively scarce, but the price drops sharply when pecans are abundant Thus, in high-yield years, growers often hold back part of their crop in refrigerated warehouses for one or two years, hoping for higher prices in the future This year's pecan crop was the smallest in five years It is nonetheless quite possible that a portion of this year's crop will be held back, since (A) each of the last two years produced record-breaking pecan yields (B) the quality of this year's pecan crop is no worse than the quality of the pecan crops of the previous five years (C) pecan prices have not been subject to sharp fluctuations in recent years (D) for some pecan growers, this year's crop was no smaller than last year's (E) the practice of holding back part of one year's crop had not yet become widespread the last time the pecan crop was as small as it was this year Argument Construction Situation Reasoning The price of pecans tends to drop sharply in years when pecans are abundant So in highyield years, growers often hold backpart of the harvest in refrigerated warehouses This year's harvest was the smallest in five years What wouldprovide the best completion ofthe argument? The argument's conclusion is that some of this year's crop might be held back The blank to be completed should provide a reason in support of that conclusion What would lead us to believe that some of this year's crop mightgo into cold storage even though the crop was unusually small? Only in high-yield years does this usually happen Butsuppose there is already a large quantity of pecans in cold storage from previous harvests Given this information, it would make perfect sense to expect that the pecans already in cold storage would be marketed first, while some of the latestcrop would be stored This would avoid the marketoversupply and lower producer prices that might result if both all of this year's crop and all of the already stored pecanswere marketed this year A Correct This answer choice provides information that makes it more probable that the conclusion is true B The argument provides no information whatsoever thatwould suggest the decision to store or not C to storepecans is basedon evaluation of the crop's quality This information is of little or no relevance It is reasonable to think that predictions about pecan prices this year would affect the decision to store ornot to store But the information in this D E answer choice sheds little or no light on what this year's pecan prices mightbe, given that, as the passage tells us, this year's crop is exceptionally small It is not surprising that some growers had crops this year thatwere as bigas their crops the year before But what matters, what affects the price of pecans, is the overall sizeof total pecan production and the abundance or scarcity of pecans at the time This piece ofhistory about marketing and storage practices explains why pecans were not placed in storage in previous small-yield years, butit provides no reason to believe that some ofthe new pecan cropwill be stored this year The correct answer is A 604 QQ:1014347461 66 8.6 Critical Reasoning Answer Explanations To protect certain fledgling industries, the government of Country Z banned imports of the types of products those industries were starting to make As a direct result, the cost of those products to the buyers, several export-dependent industries in Z, went up, sharply limiting the ability of those industries to compete effectively in their export markets Which of the following conclusions about Country Z's adversely affected export-dependent industries is best supported by the passage? (A) Profit margins in those industries were not high enough to absorb the rise in costs mentioned above (B) Those industries had to contend with the fact that other countries banned imports from Country Z (C) Those industries succeeded in expanding the domestic market for their products (D) Steps to offset rising materials costs by decreasing labor costs were taken in those industries (E) Those industries started to move into export markets that they had previously judged unprofitable Argument Construction Situation Country Z bans the importation of products that would compete with those that some of its new industries are beginning to make Consequently, the export-dependent local industries that buy these products must pay more for them, and these exporters are now less competitive in their markets Reasoning What conclusion can be drawn about the export-dependent industries? Any conclusion must be supported by the facts in the passage The export-dependent industries could no longer compete effectively when they had to purchase necessary products at greater expense from local industries The export-dependent industries' inability to adjust successfully to the rise in costs suggests that staying competitive in their markets required tight cost control to maintain their profit margins It is reasonable to conclude then that their profit margins were not high enough for them to be able to absorb the increased costs caused by their new need to purchase domestically made products A Correct This statement properly identifies the conclusion that the export-dependent industries were low-margin businesses that could not successfully accommodate the higher prices of the domestically made products B No information about other countries' ban ofimports from Country Z is given in the passage C Not enough information isgiven in the passage to support this conclusion D E No information about cutting labor costs is given in the passage No information about the industries' moving into different markets is given in the passage The correct answer is A 605 ... located once they are put in storage 4 23 The Official Guide for GMAT Review 13th Edition QQ:101 434 7461 Supporting ideas Supporting idea This question asks for specific information stated in the passage,... (E) alterthe effects of the five major hormones on plant development 415 The Official Guide for GMAT Review 13th Edition QQ:101 434 7461 Line (5) In the two decades between 1910 and 1 930 , more... 29 C 57 C B 30 B 58 B D 31 C 59 A A 32 B 60 C 33 D D 34 B 85 A 1 13 B 114 D 115 C A 116 D 61 B 117 A B 62 E 90 118 C 35 E 63 D 91 119 D B 36 C 64 D 92 120 C E 37 C 65 B 93 121 C 10 E 38 E 66 C 94