AAMC MCAT test 9

MCAT Practice Test Association of American Medical Colleges Non-Disclosure Statement for the MCAT Practice Test This practice test is not administered under the same secure conditions as the nationally administered MCAT Accordingly, the scores you achieve on this practice test should be considered an estimate of the scores you might achieve on an actual MCAT administration In consideration of being permitted to take this practice test, I affirm that I am bound on my honor to take the practice test without sharing the content in any form including, printed, electronic, voice, or other means I further affirm that I understand that my scores on this practice test are an estimate of the scores I may achieve on the actual MCAT I understand that if the AAMC has reason to believe that I have violated this nondisclosure statement, it may, at its discretion, bar me from future practice tests and/or examinations, or take other appropriate actions By downloading, printing, or taking this practice test, I acknowledge that I have read this nondisclosure statement and agree to abide by the terms stated therein Taking Your Practice Test Offline The full length practice test may be taken online, printed and taken offline, or a combination of both methods However, if you customize your practice test it can only be taken online If you started a practice test online, the answer sheet provided at the end of this printout does not include the answers you entered online Your online answers will appear on the online answer sheet used to submit your answers for scoring Once you have completed your offline practice test, follow these steps to enter your answers and submit them for scoring • Login to the web site • If this is a new test, click the "Start on Paper" link provided in the "Start a New Test" table of your home page • If you want to continue entering answers for an in-progress test, click the "Restart on Paper" link provided in the "In-Progress Tests" table of your home page • Click the "Ready to Enter Your Answers? 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Guide Use this printing guide as a reference to print selected sections of this practice test To print, click the PRINTER icon located along the top of the window and enter one of the following options in the PRINT RANGE section of the print dialog window: To Print Enter Print Range Options Complete Practice Test Click ALL radio button Physical Sciences Section Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter pages to 31 Verbal Reasoning Section Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter pages 32 to 52 Writing Sample Section Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter pages 53 to 55 Biological Sciences Section Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter pages 56 to 82 Periodic Table Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter page to Answer Sheet Click PAGES FROM radio button and enter page 83 to 83 This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account The AAMC and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means) If there are any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202-828-0690) Physical Sciences Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77 Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided for your use You may consult it whenever you wish This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account The AAMC and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means) If there are any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202-828-0690) Periodic Table of the Elements H He 4.0 10 1.0 Li Be B C N O F Ne 6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar 23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr 39.1 37 40.1 38 45.0 39 47.9 40 50.9 41 52.0 42 54.9 43 55.8 44 58.9 45 58.7 46 63.5 47 65.4 48 69.7 49 72.6 50 74.9 51 79.0 52 79.9 53 83.8 54 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe 85.5 55 87.6 56 88.9 57 91.2 72 92.9 73 95.9 74 (98) 75 101.1 76 102.9 77 106.4 78 107.9 79 112.4 80 114.8 81 118.7 82 121.8 83 127.6 84 126.9 85 131.3 86 Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn 132.9 87 137.3 88 138.9 89 178.5 104 180.9 105 183.9 106 186.2 107 190.2 108 192.2 109 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222) Fr Ra Ac† Unq† Unp Unh Uns Uno Une (223) (226) (227) (261) (262) 58 (263) 59 (262) 60 (265) 61 (267) 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu 140.1 90 140.9 91 144.2 92 (145) 93 150.4 94 152.0 95 157.3 96 158.9 97 162.5 98 164.9 99 167.3 100 168.9 101 173.0 102 175.0 103 * † Th 232.0 Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260) Passage I A group of students investigated the properties of solutions containing Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, and Ba2+ Flame Test The students prepared 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each metal nitrate They dipped a Pt loop into each solution and heated a drop of each solution over a flame They recorded the color of the flame (Table 1) They repeated the flame test with Unknown A, a solution that contained two of the metal nitrates Solubility Test The students prepared 1.0 M aqueous solutions of four reagents A solution contains 0.1 M Mg2+(aq), 0.1 M Ca2+(aq), and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq) All three ions can be precipitated if which two reagents are added to the solution? A) Reagents and B) Reagents and C) Reagents and D) Reagents and A test tube contains mL of 0.1 M Ca2+(aq) A precipitate will most likely form if which of the following reagents is added to the tube? A) 1.0 M HCl(aq) Reagent = NH3(aq) Reagent = (NH4)2SO4(aq) Reagent = (NH4)2C2O4(aq) Reagent = (NH4)2CO3(aq) They combined 1.0 mL of each metal nitrate solution with 1.0 mL of each reagent, and the solution either remained clear or a white precipitate formed (Table 1) Table Results of Flame Test and Solubility Test of Metal Nitrate Solutions Metal ion Na+(aq) 2+ Mg (aq) 2+ Color of flame yellow no color Ca (aq) red Sr2+(aq) red 2+ Ba (aq) green Unknown A red Appearance of solution after reagent was added Reagent Reagent Reagent Reagent clear clear clear clear white clear clear clear ppt white white clear clear ppt ppt white white white clear ppt ppt ppt white white white clear ppt ppt ppt white white white white ppt ppt ppt ppt Note: ppt = precipitate Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright B) 1.0 M NaOH(aq) C) 1.0 M H2SO4(aq) D) 1.0 M Na2CO3(aq) The students added Reagent to a test tube containing 0.1 M Ca2+(aq) and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq) Which of the following procedures will best enable the students to recover a fairly pure sample of SrSO4(s) from this mixture? A) Allowing the water to evaporate and collecting the solid that remains in the tube B) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the insoluble substance, and allowing the water to evaporate from the insoluble substance C) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the filtrate containing the soluble substance, then allowing the water to evaporate from the filtrate D) Adding Reagent 3, pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the filtrate containing the soluble substance, and allowing the water to evaporate from the filtrate The information in Table suggests that which of the following substances has the smallest Ksp? A) MgSO4 B) MgC2O4 C) CaSO4 D) CaC2O4 A solution contains either Ca2+(aq) or Sr2+(aq) Which of the following actions will best enable the students to identify the ion in the solution? A) Performing a flame test B) Adding Reagent C) Adding Reagent D) Adding Reagent Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Passage II Students constructed the electrical circuit shown below to study capacitors A battery with a voltage of 10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and a 500-Ω resistor The capacitor is constructed from two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × 10–5 m2 The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10–3 m, and the space between the plates is a vacuum The connecting wires have no resistance After the switch is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle with a charge of 8.0 × 10–19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s is injected midway between the capacitor plates Which of the following graphs best illustrates how charge accumulates on the plates of the capacitor after the switch is closed? A) B) C) Figure Circuit D) If the speed of the charged particle described in the passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical force on the particle will: A) decrease by a factor of B) remain the same C) increase by a factor of D) increase by a factor of Making which of the following changes to a circuit element will increase the capacitance of the capacitor described in the passage? A) Replacing the 500-Ω resistor with a 250-Ω resistor B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge of q is injected midway between the plates of a capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E What is the acceleration of this particle due to the electric field? 11 Which of the following best describes the motion of a negatively charged particle after it has been injected between the plates of a charged, parallelplate capacitor? (Note: Assume that the area between the plates is a vacuum.) A) Eq/m A) It moves with constant speed toward the positive plate B) Em/q C) mq/E D) Emq 10 Another capacitor, identical to the original, is added in series to the circuit described in the passage Compared to the original circuit, the equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is: A) 1/2 as great B) the same C) times as great D) times as great Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright B) It moves with constant speed toward the negative plate C) It accelerates toward the positive plate D) It accelerates toward the negative plate 174 Which of the following figures (A–D) shows expected solute filtration rates (mEq/mL-min) as a function of molecular weight for two dialysis membranes: Membrane with large pores and Membrane with small pores? A) B) C) D) Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Passage VI Two antigens that are expressed on the surfaces of erythrocyte plasma membranes produce the A-B-O blood series in humans Antigen production is controlled by two genes (Figure 1) Substance H is produced by a gene that has a dominant allele (H) and a rare inactive allele (h) Gene I has one functionless allele (i) and two codominant alleles (I A and I B) I A and I B produce enzymes that transform substance H into the A and B antigens 175 A person with genotype I A I A S s will express the A antigen in which of the following places? A) In saliva and on erythrocytes B) Neither in saliva nor on erythrocytes C) Only on erythrocytes D) Only in saliva 176 Ulex extract most likely reacts with what component of type O blood? A) Antigen A B) Substance H C) Secretor gene antigens D) Enzyme products of the i allele Figure Pathways of antigen formation Table lists the possible I locus genotypes and their corresponding blood types Individuals with genotypes I AI A or I BI B convert nearly all of their substance H into surface antigens Individuals with genotypes I Ai or I Bi leave a significant amount of their substance H unchanged 177 A person with the genotype hhSS would express which of the following antigens? A) A and B in saliva, but not on erythrocytes B) A and B on erythrocytes, but not in saliva C) Neither A nor B antigens D) B on erythrocytes only Table Genotypes of the A-B-O Blood Types Genotype ii A A I I or I A i I BI B or IBi I AI B Blood type O A B AB The very rare individuals with the hh genotype are said to have the Bombay blood type They are distinct from type O individuals: an extract from the plant Ulex reacts with type O blood to cause clumping of erythrocytes, but it causes no reaction with Bombay type blood A secretor gene controls the secretion of the A and B antigens into saliva and semen, but it does not affect the expression of erythrocyte surface antigens Expression of the dominant allele (S) allows antigen secretion; the recessive allele (s) is nonfunctional Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright 178 Which of the following best explains why adults with the Bombay blood type lack the A and B antigens? A) Such individuals lack the I A and I B alleles B) Such individuals lack substance H C) Expression of the h allele inactivates the enzymes produced by I A and I B D) Expression of the h allele suppresses expression of the I gene 179 If Ulex extract is added to blood from a type A donor, will clumping of erythrocytes occur? A) Yes, but only if the donor’s genotype is I A i B) Yes, but only if the donor’s genotype is I AI A C) No, because the erythrocytes lack the A antigen D) No, because the H allele is present Passage VII A group of students investigated the free radical halogenation of 2,3-dimethylbutane I, Reaction The bromination of 2,2-dimethylbutane IV was attempted under the same conditions without success Reaction Finally, the students carried out a competitive bromination experiment using a mixture of II and V (Reaction 3) The product of the bromination of Compound II was the only product observed Reaction The reaction was monitored by gas chromatography, which showed the initial formation of the monobromo product II followed by the rapid conversion to the dibromo product III Data obtained at one point in the reaction are given in Table The retention times of authentic samples of I, II, and III, at equal concentrations, used as standards, are given in Table Reaction Table Reaction mixture from Reaction Peak Peak Retention Peak area time (s) (cm2) 60 74 10 Table 180 Compound II can also be prepared by treatment of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol with: A) Br2/light B) Br2/CCl4 C) NaBr Compound (standards) I II III Retention Peak area time (s) (cm2) 40 10 60 10 75 10 Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright D) HBr 181 Which of these cycloalkanes will undergo free radical bromination most rapidly? 183 What stereochemical outcome is expected in the formation of Compound II? A) A) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers, because invasion of the bromine radical can approach from either side B) B) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers, because inversion is faster than carbon–bromine bond formation C) D) C) It would be formed as a pair of diastereomers, because the bromine radical can approach from either side D) It is an optically inactive compound, because it has no chiral carbon 184 The 1H NMR of Compound II would consist of: A) two singlets 182 According to the gas chromatographic data in Table 1, what is the composition of the reaction mixture from Reaction 1? B) a doublet and a septet A) 33% II and 67% III D) two singlets, a doublet, and a septet B) 33% III and 67% II C) 45% II and 55% III D) 45% III and 55% II Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright C) a singlet, a doublet, and a septet Passage VIII During metabolism, carbohydrates are converted into many other biologically important oxygencontaining compounds In glycolysis, phosphate esters and anhydrides are particularly important A phosphate ester can be thought of as the product of the reaction between an alcohol and phosphoric acid (Equation 1) Figure Intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism 185 Which of the following compounds is the precursor for the oxygen atoms in the glycolysis intermediates? A) Glucose B) Atomic oxygen (O) Equation A phosphate anhydride is the product of the reaction of an organic acid and phosphoric acid (Equation 2) C) Molecular oxygen (O2) D) Carbon dioxide (CO2) 186 Which of the following classifications apply to dihydroxyacetone? I II III IV Alcohol Ketone Carbohydrate Acetal A) I and II only B) III and IV only Equation The intermediates of the citric acid cycle are carboxylic acids or their α-keto derivatives One key intermediate, pyruvate, is a molecular link between glycolysis, the pathway in which it is produced from the carbohydrate glucose, and the citric acid cycle, the pathway in which it is metabolized to CO2 Figure shows the structures of some intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright C) I, II, and III only D) I, II, and IV only 187 Which of the following structures is the enol form of pyruvate? 189 The four five-carbon carbohydrates shown below illustrate principles of carbohydrate nomenclature A) B) Another five-carbon carbohydrate is xylulose Which of the following statements apply(applies) to xylulose? C) I II III It is an isomer of deoxyribose It is an isomer of ribose It is an isomer of xylose A) I only D) B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only 188 A reaction in the citric acid cycle is shown below (The equation is not balanced.) This reaction would be described as: I II III oxidation–reduction decarboxylation isomerization A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Both I and III Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other 190 One characteristic common to arteries, veins, and capillaries is the: 193 Which of the compounds shown below can form hydrogen bonds with water? CH3–CH2–CH3 Compound A) presence of a layer of endothelial cells A) Compound only B) presence of numerous valves that prevent the backflow of blood B) Compound only CH3–CH2–NH2 Compound C) Both compounds C) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating blood flow D) Neither compound D) ability to supply surrounding tissues with nutrients by filtration and diffusion 194 The term α-helix refers to what kind of protein structure? 191 Tissue that is very active metabolically, such as skeletal muscle, contains large numbers of: A) Primary B) Secondary A) nuclei C) Tertiary B) fat deposits D) Quaternary C) blood capillaries D) lymphatic vessels 192 The finches observed by Darwin on the Galapagos Islands are an example of adaptive radiation In order to set up conditions that would produce adaptive radiation, it would be necessary to place members of: A) one species in one rapidly changing environment B) one species in several different environments C) several very similar species in the same environment D) several unlike species in one environment to compete for the same resources Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Passage IX Bone remodeling is a cyclic process involving bone resorption by osteoclasts (OC), followed by bone formation by osteoblasts (OB) How this event is triggered is uncertain A new drug, Peptide A, binds to specific sites on the plasma membranes of OB, the bone-forming cells Two experiments were done to study Peptide A Experiment Peptide A was added to the growth medium of cultured OB The medium and cells were analyzed 24 hours later The only apparent effect of Peptide A on OB was an increase in the production and secretion of a peptide called osteoblatin Figure l shows these results Upon further investigation, osteoblatin was found to be 97% homologous to osteoactivin, a peptide that markedly stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption Table Effects of Peptide A OB OC activity activity [Osteoblatin] (ng/mL) (units) (units) 10 NA NA NA NA NA NA 11 Group OB only OB + Peptide A OC only OC + Peptide A OB + OC OB + OC + Peptide A (NA = not applicable) 23 50 Peptide B competes with Peptide A for the same plasma membrane receptors; however, Peptide B has no effect on the OB, does not stimulate osteoblatin production, and competitively inhibits Peptide A 195 Which conclusion about Peptide A receptor binding can be reached from Figure 1? A) Peptide A requires 100% receptor binding to produce the most osteoblatin B) Peptide A produces the most osteoblatin possible at less than 100% receptor binding C) At 50% binding to its receptors, Peptide A produces 50% of the maximal amount of osteoblatin D) Peptide A continues to stimulate increasing levels of osteoblatin production at over 50% receptor binding Figure Effect of Peptide A on osteoblatin Experiment Growth medium with and without Peptide A (25 ng/mL) was then incubated with OB only, OC only, or OB plus OC After 24 hours, the medium and cells were tested for the amount of osteoblatin secreted, for bone-forming activity (OB activity), and for boneresorbing activity (OC activity) The results are shown in Table Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright 196 When OB is incubated with a constant concentration of Peptide A (25 ng/mL) and increasing concentrations of Peptide B, osteoblatin concentration: A) increases exponentially B) increases linearly C) remains constant D) decreases 197 What can be concluded about Peptide A from Experiment 2? A) It is ineffective in stimulating osteoclastic activity 199 To most effectively study the effect of Peptide A on transcription of the osteoblatin gene, a scientist should determine the: A) sequence of the osteoblatin gene B) It acts directly on OC to increase bone resorption B) amount of osteoblatin mRNA in the cell C) It acts indirectly through OB to increase bone resorption C) amount of osteoblatin peptide in the cell D) total RNA in the cell D) It acts directly on OB to increase bone formation 200 The overall effect of Peptide A on bone is to: 198 In Experiment 2, which three groups demonstrated cell line viability and allowed the determination of basal cellular activities? A) increase bone mass A) Groups 1, 2, and C) narrow haversian canals B) Groups 1, 3, and D) maintain constant bone mass C) Groups 2, 4, and D) Groups 4, 5, and Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright B) decrease bone mass Passage X Butylated hydroxy toluene (BHT), 2,6-di-tertbutyl-4-methylphenol, is an important antioxidant in the food, petroleum, and rubber industries It is prepared by an acid-catalyzed reaction between paracresol and 2-methylpropene, as shown in Figure Compound 201 According to the passage, which of the following compounds can serve as an antioxidant? A) Figure Synthesis of BHT B) Autoxidation is a chain reaction that occurs in compounds containing easily removed hydrogen atoms Figure shows the first three steps in the mechanism of autoxidation Initiation Step 1: R–H → R• + H• C) Propagation Step 2: R• + O2 → RO2• Step 3: RO2• + R–H → RO2H + R• Figure Autoxidation A radical (R•) is formed in Step by the homolytic cleavage of a σ bond The radical reacts with atmospheric oxygen in Step to form a peroxy radical (R-O-O•) In Step 3, the peroxy radical abstracts a hydrogen atom from the starting material to produce a hydroperoxide (R-O-O-H) and a new radical This type of oxidative chain reaction causes the spoilage of food and the deterioration of rubber articles Antioxidants such as BHT inhibit the chain reaction The rate-controlling step in the antioxidation process is the formation of a BHT radical by the removal of a hydrogen atom from BHT The BHT radical terminates the chain reaction by coupling with a peroxy radical, yielding a quinone such as Compound Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright D) 202 Compared to the activation energy for the hydrogen-atom abstraction from BHT, the activation energy for the reaction between a BHT radical and peroxy radical is: A) less B) equal C) greater D) impossible to determine from the data given 203 Which of the following phenols can undergo intra- molecular hydrogen bonding? A) 204 A 1H NMR spectrum of BHT contains how many unique (nonequivalent) proton signals? A) B) B) C) 12 D) 24 C) D) Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Passage XI A new strategy of drug design uses nucleic acid macromolecules to prevent the expression of a gene The target of the drug can be a gene in a bacterial cell, a cancer cell, or a virus-occupied eukaryotic cell; the macromolecular drug can be either produced within a biological system or added to it Normally produced messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules are known as the sense RNA Antisense nucleic acids, which are complementary to a portion of the sense mRNA, can be synthesized The antisense molecules will bind specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the production of the natural gene product A problem encountered in the design of antisense drugs was that oligonucleotides may only persist for a matter of minutes before they are degraded by cellular processes Antisense drugs became feasible when phosphorothioate analogs of the oligonucleotides were developed; these analogs can exist for days or weeks within the cell Genes that produce an antisense sequence can also be synthesized and added to the genome of organisms In this manner antisense and sense RNA molecules could be produced simultaneously—in effect, preventing the production of the gene product permanently 205 When used as described in the passage, antisense drugs prevent: 206 To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains the target gene must be: A) on the same chromosome as the target gene but not necessarily be physically adjacent B) on the same chromosome as the target gene and must be physically adjacent C) regulated in a similar manner as the target gene D) coded on the same strand of DNA as the target gene 207 Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which eliminates its enzymatic activity Could an antisense drug help individuals with this disorder? A) Yes, if it binds to the mRNA of the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene and prevents its translation B) Yes, if it is incorporated into the chromosome and prevents the expression of the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene C) No, because mRNA does not persist in the cytoplasm of the cell D) No, because blockage of phenylalanine hydroxylase gene expression will not remedy the original disorder C) RNA translation 208 Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′CGAUAC-3′? D) cell replication A) 5′-GCTATG-3′ A) DNA replication B) RNA transcription B) 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C) 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D) 3′-GCAUAG-5′ Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright 209 An effective and efficient method for the delivery of an antisense gene could be: A) orally as an emulsified product B) microinjection into individual body cells C) intravenously as a nonantigenic, blood-stable product D) infection of an embryo by a virus modified to carry the gene 210 If oligonucleotides such as mRNA were not degraded rapidly by intracellular agents, which of the following processes would be most affected? A) The production of tRNA in the nucleus B) The coordination of cell differentiation during development C) The diffusion of respiratory gases across the cell membrane D) The replication of DNA in the nucleus Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other 211 Which of the following describes a primary function of the myelin sheath? A) It provides nutrients to motor neurons B) It regulates synaptic vesicle discharge C) It guides dendrite growth and branching D) It increases the rate of conduction of action potentials 214 If chromosomal duplication before tetrad forma-tion occurred twice during spermatogenesis, while the other steps of meiosis proceeded normally, which of the following would result from a single spermatocyte? A) One tetraploid sperm B) Four diploid sperm C) Four haploid sperm D) Eight haploid sperm 212 When muscles in the skin contract and cause the hair of an animal to “stand on end,” the skin could be functioning as a regulator of: 215 All of the following occur during normal inspiration of air in mammals EXCEPT: A) pH B) relaxation of the diaphragm B) salt excretion C) reduction of pressure in the pleural cavity C) body temperature D) contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles A) elevation of the rib cage D) skeletal muscle tone 213 Of the isomeric alcohols (compounds 1–4), which is most reactive in an SN1 reaction with HBr? 216 Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells In which of the following cell structures will the uracil be incorporated? A) Chromosomes B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Nuclear membrane A) Compound B) Compound C) Compound D) Compound Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Physical Sciences (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) 10 (A) (B) (C) (D) 11 (A) (B) (C) (D) 12 (A) (B) (C) (D) 13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 15 (A) (B) (C) (D) 16 (A) (B) (C) (D) 17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 23 (A) (B) (C) (D) 24 (A) (B) (C) (D) 25 (A) (B) (C) (D) 26 (A) (B) (C) (D) 27 (A) (B) (C) (D) 28 (A) (B) (C) (D) 29 (A) (B) (C) (D) 30 (A) (B) (C) (D) 31 (A) (B) (C) (D) 32 (A) (B) (C) (D) 33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 34 (A) (B) (C) (D) 35 (A) (B) (C) (D) 36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 41 (A) (B) (C) (D) 42 (A) (B) (C) (D) 43 (A) (B) (C) (D) 44 (A) (B) (C) (D) 45 (A) (B) (C) (D) 46 (A) (B) (C) (D) 47 (A) (B) (C) (D) 48 (A) (B) (C) (D) 49 (A) (B) (C) (D) 50 (A) (B) (C) (D) 51 (A) (B) (C) (D) 52 (A) (B) (C) (D) 53 (A) (B) (C) (D) 54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) Verbal Reasoning 78 (A) (B) (C) (D) 79 (A) (B) (C) (D) 80 (A) (B) (C) (D) 81 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D) 99 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) Writing Sample 138 139 Biological Sciences 140 (A) (B) (C) (D) 141 (A) (B) (C) (D) 142 (A) (B) (C) (D) 143 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D) 145 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D) 147 (A) (B) (C) (D) 148 (A) (B) (C) (D) 149 (A) (B) (C) (D) 150 (A) (B) (C) (D) 151 (A) (B) (C) (D) 152 (A) (B) (C) (D) 153 (A) (B) (C) (D) 154 (A) (B) (C) (D) 155 (A) (B) (C) (D) 156 (A) (B) (C) (D) 157 (A) (B) (C) (D) 158 (A) (B) (C) (D) 159 (A) (B) (C) (D) 160 (A) (B) (C) (D) 161 (A) (B) (C) (D) 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) ... 69. 7 49 72.6 50 74 .9 51 79. 0 52 79. 9 53 83.8 54 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe 85.5 55 87.6 56 88 .9 57 91 .2 72 92 .9 73 95 .9 74 (98 ) 75 101.1 76 102 .9 77 106.4 78 107 .9 79. .. Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu 140.1 90 140 .9 91 144.2 92 (145) 93 150.4 94 152.0 95 157.3 96 158 .9 97 162.5 98 164 .9 99 167.3 100 168 .9 101 173.0 102 175.0 103 * † Th 232.0 Pa U Np... 126 .9 85 131.3 86 Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn 132 .9 87 137.3 88 138 .9 89 178.5 104 180 .9 105 183 .9 106 186.2 107 190 .2 108 192 .2 1 09 195 .1 197 .0 200.6 204.4 207.2 2 09. 0