đề thi thử tiếng anh lớp 11 chuyên (1)

SECTION A: FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 64 8 points Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct words for each of the followi

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TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN

Đề thi gồm 06 trang

ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 4

Năm học 2015 – 2016 Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

(Không kể thời gian phát đề)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……… Số báo danh:……… Lớp: 11A… Mã đề: 498

(Học sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm 64 câu vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm

và phần tự luận vào giấy thi.)

SECTION A: FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 64 (8 points)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks.

The 24th Southeast Asian Games was (1) in Thailand from December 6 to December 16, 2007 The Thai Olympic Committee was (2) the event to coincide with the commemoration of 80th birthday of King Bhumibol Adulyadej Officials were studying the possibility of doing the events in multiple venues (3) _ what had been done in Vietnam and the Philippines It was (4) sixth time Thailand hosted the SEA Games Thailand hosted the 1959, 1967, 1975, 1985 and 1995 SEA Games

On 24 February 2006, northeast Thailand's Province authorities met to (5) the 2007 SEA Games schedule, and progress on the province's under-construction US$65 million sports complex The meeting provided an overview of (6) _, and ended with reassurances that everything would be ready (7) SEA Games in 2007

The sports (8) included a 5,000-seater indoor stadium and 16 tennis court facilities among other facilities scheduled to be finished on June 2007

The 2007 SEA Games featured (9) than 400 events in 45 sports The 24th edition of the games had the highest number of sporting events in the entire (10) of the SEA Games, more events than the Asian Games and the Olympic Games

Question 2: A winning B competing C fighting D planning

Question 6: A facilities B tools C materials D furniture

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the

underlined words in each of the following sentences.

Question 11: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the

island

Question 12: My other pursuits include listening to music, reading and gardening.

Question 13: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took

place

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the

underlined words in each of the following sentences.

Question 14: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about”

A good behavior B behaving improperly C behaving nice D behaving cleverly

Question 15: There are number of things I like to do in my free time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 16: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center And they are

going to have a date with each other later

Laura: “Well, it’s getting late Maybe we could get together sometime.”

Ken: “ _”

A Nice to see back you B Take it easy

C Sounds good I’ll give you a call D Yes, I’ve enjoyed it

Question 17: Had I studied harder, I better in the last exam.

A would do B would have done C had done D wouldn’t have done

Question 18: I suggest the room _ before Christmas.

A be decorated B is decorated C were decorated D should decorate

Question 19: In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men's gold _.

Question 20: The salary of a computer programmer is _ a teacher.

C twice as high as that D twice as high as that of

Question 21: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _.”

A out of the blue B under the weather C out of order D under the impression

Question 22: With our senses, we perceive everything .

A is around us B that is around us C whom is around us D whose is around us

Question 23: The primary causes of species extinction result habitat destruction, commercial

exploitation and pollution

Question 24: Laws have been introduced to _ the killing of endangered animals.

A advise B decrease C prohibit D encourage

Question 25: Ann could not speak Chinese and could John.

Question 26: Near the park is a famous landmark the Unification Palace.

Question 27: It was on his birthday he was presented this precious book by his father.

Question 28: - "Who wrote the poem?" - "It is said _ written by one of the Bronte sisters"

Question 29: They don’t let anyone enter the area.

A Nobody is let to enter the area B Nobody is allowed to enter the area

C Nobody is allowed entering the area D The area is not allowed entering

Question 30: Not only my son but also I tired from walking so far.

Question 31: We bought some

A old lovely German glasses B German old lovely glasses

C German lovely old glasses D lovely old German glasses

Question 32: Many species of plants and animals are in _ of extinction.

Question 33: The last person _ the room must turn off the lights.

A to leave B who leave C that leave D all are correct

Question 34: Today, Minh watches Mai playing badminton in Phu Dong Health Tournament During the

break, he meets her and encourages her to play with flying colors

Minh: “How well you are playing!”

Mai: “ _”

A Say it again I like to hear your words B I think so I am proud of myself

C Thank you too much D Many thanks That is a nice compliment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction

in each of the following questions.

Question 35: Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.

A B C D

Question 36: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on

our test tomorrow A B C D

Question 37: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise it.

A B C D

Question 38: The Southeast Asian Games, also knowing as the SEA Games, is a biennial multi-sport

A B

event involving participants from the current eleven countries of Southeast Asia

C D

Question 39: I high recommend this book for its beautiful language of description.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933 In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941 It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952 In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which

provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology Her imagery and language had a poetic quality Carson consulted no less than 1,000

printed sources She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers

In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy It proved

how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides She detailed how they poison

the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her

findings were flawed However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science

Advisory Committee

Question 40: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work .

Question 41: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?

Question 42: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of .

Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind .

A became more popular than her other books B was outdated

Question 44: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The

Sea Around Us?

C letters from scientists D a research expedition

Question 45: Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?

A poetic B fascinating C highly technical D well researched

Question 46: The word reckless is closest in meaning to .

A irresponsible B unnecessary C continuous D limited

Question 47: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily .

A an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry

B a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply

C a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides

D an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food

Question 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word flawed?

Question 49: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory

Committee?

A To validate the chemical industry’s claims

B To indicate a growing government concern with the environment

C To support Carson’s ideas

D To provide an example of government propaganda

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Bears spend much of their time looking for food, and they are not choosy, gorging on insects,

berries, nuts, small mammals, ham sandwiches, and garbage with equal relish Despite this, the chief natural factor limiting a bear population is the food supply Dr Lynn Rogers has found that, contrary to popular belief, so-called garbage bears – those that visit town dumps or campsites – do not lose their ability to forage successfully for wild foods but are simply supplementing their diets with easy pickings

In fact, these enterprising bears grow faster, mature sooner, and reproduce earlier than those that depend only on wild foraging Rogers has also found that dump-fed bears are the strongest and largest in the

population He and his crew once captured a male bear that weighed in at 611 pounds But easy living for the bears carries a price: those that stalk garbage dumps are easier targets for hunters and those that visit

camps – if not injure – visitors Some state wildlife agencies capture “nuisance” bears that have become

too chummy with people and cast them off to less populated parts of the forest The removal programmes

do not always work; bears released 100 miles or more from their place of capture have reappeared in their old haunts

Question 50: The passage suggests that Dr Lynn Rogers is a _.

A writer who has published books about bears’ feeding habits

B naturalist whose concern is preserving bears’ wild habitats

C scientist who has studied dump-fed bears

D rapper who captures live bears for zoos

Question 51: The author states that which of the following assumptions about bears has been proved to

be wrong?

A Some would rather eat wild foods than garbage

B They devote a lot of time to searching for food

C Some do not fear campers and approach campsites readily

D They lose their foraging ability after feeding at garbage dumps

Question 52: Which of the following is NOT true of bears that feed at garbage dumps and campsites?

A They grow at a relatively slow rate B They can be easily shot

C They reproduce at an early age D They are sometimes relocated

Question 53: It can be concluded from the passage that garbage bears are the strongest of the bear

population because

A their natural predators are not found near garbage dumps

B they can get more food by combining wild food and food from dumps

C they have been known to travel 100 miles or more

D they get a lot of exercise climbing in and out of garbage cans

Question 54: The term “those” refers to _.

Question 55: It can be inferred from the passage that bears’ contact with humans resulted in _.

A bears’ preference for life in the wild B both benefits and disadvantages to bears

C an increase likelihood of the extinction of bears D bears’ susceptibility to a variety of diseases

Question 56: According to the passage, the purpose of removal programme is to _.

C settle bears in less populated areas D reduce the bears’ food supply

Question 57: The word “choosy” is closest in meaning to _.

Question 58: The word “captured” is closest in meaning to _.

Question 59: The word “removal” is closest in meaning to .

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation

in each of the following questions.

Question 62: A southern B athlete C both D enthusiasm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 64: A documentary B occupation C competitive D individual

SECTION B (2 points)

I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it Write your answers on your answer sheet (0.5 points)

Question 1: Joanna enjoys listening to rock music, so does her brother

Both

Question 2: We bought two bicycles Neither of them worked well.

We bought _

Question 3: The couples who live in the house next door are both college professors

The couples living _

Question 4: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him

The teacher accused _

Question 5: Tom arrived late and started complaining.

Not only

_

II Write a paragraph of 140 words about one of your hobbies, following these guidelines (1.5 points)

• What your hobby is

• When you started it

• How you enjoy it

• How much time you spend on it

• Why you enjoy it

• How long you think you will continue with your hobby/your plan in the future.

- THE END

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