Gmat exam success_6 pot

in the film, so choice c is incorrect. Fans of the original film may have wanted more Star Wars stories, but the passage does not state this, so choice d is not a logical conclusion to the argument. 29. b. The passage argues that foods with little or no fat leave people feeling unsatisfied, so they are likely to eat more than they would of foods that have a substantial fat content. Although the evidence suggests that eating a low-fat diet is better than a no-fat diet (choice a), choice b is a more logical conclusion, especially because the focus in the passage is how much we eat. The health value of potato chips, which are only used as an example, is not discussed, so choice c is incorrect. Choice d is incorrect because the passage suggests that weight control is a matter of what kind of foods people eat, not the suppression of cravings. The passage does not state that fat-free foods should be banned from stores, so e is not a logical conclusion. 30. d. The huge difference in results after the robots were reprogrammed makes d the most logical conclusion: Sharing information can dramatically improve the productivity of a group. Choice a is incorrect for several reasons. First, self-interest and sharing aren’t exclusively human behaviors; animals are also driven by self-interest, and many animals also share (information, food, etc.). Second, the robots were programmed, not taught. The experiment doesn’t really show that the robots learned anything; they did what they were programmed to do, and as a result, they were more successful. Choice b is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the robots were incorrectly programmed in the first experiment. Nothing indicates how the researchers felt about the results, so choice c is not a logical conclusion. Although the robots were far less productive when they were self-interested, choice e is not logical because they did indeed gather some pucks and because in many instances self-interest can result in highly productive behavior (e.g., self-preservation). 31. b. The lack of good music (choice a) may help account for older bands making a comeback, but this is not the best explanation. More convincing is the notion that older bands were able to blend their old sounds with new sounds to appeal to a wide audience — people who enjoyed their older music and people who enjoy the sounds of contemporary music. This would help explain their renewed popularity, because they still have a core of older fans as well as a large contingent of newer fans (younger listeners who were not necessarily familiar with their older music). Choice c is incorrect because a nos- talgia for the 1960s and 1970s would mean the bands’ older music would be in demand, not their new music. Choice d is incorrect because this does not account for their lapse into “relative obscurity.” Choice e is incorrect for the same reason as c — if a new generation of listeners discovered classic rock, then they would be more interested in the bands’ older work. 32. c. Jensen and Ling did not have to be in direct competition with each other; indeed, they did not even have to know the other business existed. Rather, this argument hinges on other important assumptions. Clearly, the most important assumption is a, that the business leader’s personality is the main factor in the business’s success or failure. The premises focus on the personality traits of Jensen and Ling and jump to the conclusion that their personalities made the difference in their business success. Choice b is incorrect for the same reason; it also forms a logical link between the premises and the conclusion. Choices d and e are incorrect because they state assumptions that are essential in making this an apples-to-oranges comparison. Whatever their personality differences, this comparison does not work if Jensen and Ling were not similarly equipped (with education and experience) and in comparable businesses operating under comparable circumstances. – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 199 33. e. This statement would actually support the argument that angels exist. All of the other choices, however, offer valid objections to the argument. 34. d. Including the fact that the poverty line is regularly raised to account for inflation would signifi- cantly strengthen the conclusion that more families were living in poverty in 1990 despite the lower percentage of families under the poverty line. Choice a is an opinion that expresses anger at statistical manipulation but does not provide a premise that would further support the conclusion. Choice b offers information that might help account for a normal difference in the number of families living in poverty, but the passage doesn’t argue that fewer families were in poverty in 1990; rather, it argues the opposite. Choice c is essentially irrelevant. Democrats and Republicans may have certain agendas and institute certain social policies, but this is not relevant unless the reader knows a specific Democratic or Republican measure taken to affect the poverty level. Choice e suggests that many more poor people needed assistance in 1990 than 1980, but it is essentially irrelevant without further information showing the correlation between welfare recipients and the poverty line; it may be an apples-to-oranges comparison. You would need to know if any significant changes in welfare policy occurred in the interim. 35. a. Kylie’s stomachache could have been caused by any number of factors other than the food at Joe’s. Perhaps she ate or drank something that evening that did not agree with her. Perhaps she was nervous or anxious about something and that caused her stomach to be upset. Perhaps she caught the stomach flu. Reversing causation is not possible, so choice b is incorrect. The argument does not necessarily assume she wouldn’t have gotten sick eating the same food at Moe’s (choice c); the passage doesn’t say what she ate or whether she even could have eaten the same thing at Moe’s. The only assumption here is that she was sickened by the food at Joe’s. The argument does not specify the type of illness (choice d) or describe how long it lasted (choice e), but these are not the best criticisms of the argument. Knowing more about the kind of illness she had might help us rule out food poisoning or other food- related illnesses, but the best criticism is clearly a. 36. c. Because she has never had the jitters before, it is important for Brianais to try to do something to stop them. Therefore, this is not a criticism of her plan of action. The other options, however, all point out reasons why her plan of action may not be effective. If the jitters are caused by lack of sleep (choice a) or anxiety (choice e), then her plan will fail. Similarly, if her jitters worsen by a total withdrawal from caffeine (choice b), her plan will also fail. The fact that Brianais often gets the jitters when she drinks too much coffee (choice d) suggests that Brianais does not need to stop drinking coffee alto- gether; she just needs to cut back to her regular amount. 37. c. The unstated assumption that connects the premise to the conclusion in this argument is that Grammy nominations and record sales are accurate measures of an artist’s greatness. Obviously, this is a highly debatable assumption, but it does provide the necessary link between the premise and the conclusion. The success of Jones’s previous albums (choice a) and his next album (choice c) are irrelevant to the conclusion, which is focused on his success today. Jones may or may not win those Grammy awards (choice d), but that is essentially irrelevant as well; it does not logically connect the premise to the conclusion. Jones’s popularity with both fans and critics (choice e) is important, but it likewise does not provide a logical connection. – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 200 38. a. Anuj’s plan of action is based on the assumption that he will have the same success with the diet pill as his acquaintances. In order for this to be true, however, a must also be true — he must have a similar body type, exercise regimen, and diet. If, for example, he does not exercise but those people who lost weight with the pill did, he might not have the same results. Anuj may have to avoid certain foods (choice b) or take the pill at the same time each day (choice c) in order for it to be most effective, but these assumptions do not underlie his belief that he will have the same results as the others. Choice d is incorrect because the passage does not state what sort of diet the others had, and again this plan of action rests upon the assumption that he will have similar results. Anuj should probably monitor his weight loss carefully (choice e), but this is just common sense and not relevant to his plan of action. 39 d. The fact that her apartment building was constructed prior to 1940 is essentially irrelevant to her sleep difficulties in her apartment. All of the other factors, however, could logically account for her sleep difficulties and the fact that they disappeared once she moved. 40. b. Perhaps something was wrong with Toby, causing him to deviate from his normal course of action, but there are many other plausible explanations, including his decision to avoid foods high in choles- terol (choice a), a simple desire for a change of pace (choice c), a decision to go on a diet and eat foods lower in fat (choice d), or a decision to eat only vegetarian foods (choice e). 41. d. The relationship that Zsa Zsa has with her competitors will have little effect on her plan of action. Rather, her plan rests on the other assumptions provided. If she is to succeed in creating a niche for her- self in the neighborhood, she needs to have a large enough population of young people (choice a), provide the styles and services those clients desire (choice b), offer those styles and services at prices her clients can afford (choice c), and offer styles and services not available at her competitors (choice e). 42. c. The fact that Dr. Frankenstein brings a creature to life but then abandons that creature, refusing to take responsibility for his creation, tells us that one of Frankenstein’s main themes is scientific responsibility. This would help explain why college professors concerned about scientific responsibility would choose this book. The other choices may be interesting and informative, but they do not help you evaluate the argument because they do not provide information that enables you to ascertain the relevance of the conclusion. 43. e. Brandon does not directly address the issue of whether or not animals have rights. Instead, he brings in another issue — whether or not animals would kill him if they were hungry for food — and thus shifts the argument to his pain rather than the right of animals to be free of pain. Thus, the best criticism of this argument is that Brandon brings in a red herring. Brandon’s response is not based on any assumption about human beings’ right to kill animals, so choice a is incorrect. He does give one specific example (lions), so choice b is incorrect. He does not attack Arthur, so choice c is incorrect. Finally, he does not make an absolute statement including all animals, so choice d is also incorrect. 44. d. If pet owners cannot completely control their pets’ behaviors, then this undermines the conclusion that pet owners should be 100% accountable for their pets’ actions. The other choices, however, all make claims that support the argument for accountability. – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 201 45. a. The problem with this statement is that it may reverse causation. Perhaps Lotta made new friends after she came out of her shell, but it is equally possible that Lotta’s new friends helped her come out of her shell. Lotta’s accomplishments at work may have helped her come out of her shell (choice b), but that is not a relevant criticism of the argument; it has nothing to do with the question of making friends after coming out her shell. The level of intimacy of her new friendships (choice c) is also irrelevant to an analysis of the argument because it does not make any claims about the depth of the rela- tionships. If Lotta often has periods of introversion (choice d), then she also has periods of coming out of her shell, so this is not relevant (again, it does not address the cause/effect issue). If Lotta is very likeable (choice e), it might explain an ease in making new friends or the number of new friends, but it does not connect the two pieces of the statement. 46. c. All of the choices except c provide information that would help evaluate the conclusion that using midwives could save millions of dollars a year in healthcare costs. Only choice c is irrelevant. The author’s own experience with a midwife may or may not be typical and does not address the issue of whether or not midwives are more cost effective. 47. a. The issue in the argument is whether increased speed limits are dangerous, so the argument should focus on proving that this is the case. The fact that the argument does not discuss why the speed limit was originally set at 55 mph is essentially irrelevant, so it is not a valid criticism of the argument. All of the other options, however, express valid criticisms and point out significant flaws in the reasoning. 48. d. The conclusion of the argument is that we should expect an unusually cold winter because we are in the twelfth year of a cycle in which every twelfth year is unusually cold. Although the 12-year cycle might indeed have existed for the last 36 years, it goes against our understanding of weather that such a pattern will continue. In all likelihood, the fact that the twelfth year has been unusually cold for the last 36 years is coincidence, not a set meteorological pattern. Thus, the information that would most strengthen the argument is predictions from the National Weather Center, which uses advanced fore- casting technology and analysis of existing weather patterns to predict the weather and could estimate the general tenor of the approaching season. The charts in choices a through c would be useful in proving that such a pattern has existed the last 36 years, but they do not provide strong evidence of the weather to come. A discussion of weather patterns (choice e) would be informative, but it would not strengthen the argument about the approaching winter weather. 49. b. The information provided in the passage leads to the conclusion that objects should be dispersed evenly around the room. This would “encourage the free flow of energy” and reduce clutter, because objects would not be crammed together. Proper ventilation (choice a) may indeed improve the flow of energy, but that cannot be concluded from the passage. The passage does not indicate where square objects should be placed (choice c), whether walls should be kept bare (choice d), or whether light col- ored paints are best (choice e), so these choices are incorrect. 50. a. This argument assumes that the main concern of the Task Force is its own existence. The speaker assumes that the Task Force will present findings that would ensure that the Task Force is not dis- banded. The passage did not identify the speaker’s relationship to the leader of the Task Force (choice b) or indicate that the speaker was not asked to join the Task Force (choice c). Neither of these – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 202 assumptions make a logical connection between the premise and conclusion of the argument. It is possible that the speaker’s leadership ability will be questioned by the Task Force findings (choice d) or that the Task Force wants to hire more police officers (choice e), but these two assumptions also do not link the premise and conclusion. Sentence Correction 51. c. Choices a, b, and d have problems with word order. In choices a and d, the modifier presumed to be genetic or partially genetic in origin is misplaced. In b, the subject and predicate are reversed. Choice e is unnecessarily wordy and redundant. 52. a. The original is the most clear and correct version. Choices b and c are unnecessarily wordy, and c also creates a sentence fragment with the semicolon. Choice d is awkward and unclear, and the use of since in choice e is illogical. 53. b. The correct idiom is hazard a guess. All of the other choices incorrectly express the idiom. In addi- tion, the idiom completes an independent clause, and we need more data to draw a real conclusion is also an independent clause; they cannot be separated with a comma, so choices a and d are also incorrect. 54. d. This choice is nearly identical to a, except that choice a makes a mistake in subject-verb agreement (have instead of has, which must be singular to agree with each). Choice b reverses the subject and predicate, creating awkward word order. Choice c disrupts the parallel structure of the list, and choice e is slightly wordy and less direct than choice d. 55. c. Errors is a plural noun, so it should be modified by fewer, not less. Thus, choices a, b, and e are incorrect. Choice e also reverses the word order, placing the modifier less after the noun. Choice d is incorrect because it is less concise than choice c and the placement of 20% to 30% in parenthesis is slightly awkward and less direct than in choice c. 56. b. Choices a, c, and d are wordy and redundant, with a being the most problematic. Choice e changes to make decisions into deciding, creating an awkward sentence because the sentence opens with a par- ticiple rather than an infinitive clause, suggesting action already in progress rather than action that will be taken once reasons for punishment are understood. 57. c. The correct idiom is to live a life of privilege, so choices a and d are incorrect. Choice b is wordy (simultaneously repeats while and she is repeated unnecessarily), as is choice e (wealth is redundant with life of privilege). 58. e. This is the most correct and concise version. Choices a, b, and d are less concise, and d creates an illogical sentence by changing have to having. Choice c is incorrect because declining over the last 20 years is misplaced and as a result modifies main reason. 59. e. Choice a reverses the subject and predicate. Choice b is correct but is less effective than choice e because it sets up the two items of information as equal — that stalking is probably as old as human society and its definition. Choice e uses probably as old as human society as an introduction to the focus of the sentence — the definition of stalking. Choice e is also more direct and does not need to repeat – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 203 the verb is. Choice c uses the phrase the definition of stalking is rather than the more direct stalking is defined as. Choice d puts the definition before the word being defined, which is less effective, making readers wait until they have finished the definition to find out what is being defined. 60. c. This choice maintains the parallel structure necessary in a not only/but also construction. Choices a and d disrupt the parallel structure, and d is also wordy. Choice b uses the grammatically incorrect phrase being that. Choice e has two problems. First, it creates an illogical sentence by changing as having to as it has. If you eliminate the whether clause in the middle of the sentence, the core sentence would read Typically people think of genius as it has two qualities, not only supernatural but as well eccentric. Second, it changes not only/but also to not only/but as well, an incorrect idiom. 61. a. Choice b is a run-on sentence. Choice c inserts an unnecessary which clause, making the sentence unnecessarily wordy. Choice d misplaces the modifier a system of recording, analyzing, and reporting economic transactions, which should be as close as possible to accounting. Choice e has awkward word order and the indirect and bulky phrase in that it is. 62. b. Choices a, c, and e are incorrect because the helping verb is is required to make the sentence logical. Choice e is also missing the preposition through, which is necessary for the correct meaning as suggested by the context of the sentence. Choice d uses the preposition by instead of through, which is inconsistent with the final phrase and also less correct as suggested by the context of the sentence. 63. d. Choice a uses a double superlative, combining most and a modifier with -est. Choice b uses a double comparison as well, using more and a modifier with -er. Choice c incorrectly uses evolving instead of evolved, changing a modifier to a verb and making the sentence illogical. Choice e makes evolutionarily an adverb, which creates an awkward and unclear sentence. 64. c. The proper idiom is in conjunction with. Choices a and e are therefore incorrect. Choices b and d are incorrect because the pronoun who, not that, must be used to refer to doctor. 65. d. Choice a is wordy and redundant. Choice b is correct, but it is less effective than choice d because the word choice and sentence structure are less sophisticated. Choice c has an error in subject-verb agreement (problems shows) and has awkward word order. Choice e has a misplaced modifier; because of its placement, lacking computer-related skills modifies today’s job market. 66. a. This is a complicated sentence, and many phrases and clauses separate the subject story from the verb is (this subject-verb pair is not the main subject of the sentence but the subject and verb in the that clause describing what Jung and Campbell believed). Because story is the subject, choice c is incorrect; the verb must be singular. Choices d and e are incorrect because they do not provide a verb to complete the clause; rather, they create an additional clause or phrase. Choice b creates a sentence fragment by inserting a semicolon after people. 67. c. The correct idiom is based on, so all other choices are incorrect. 68. d. The pronoun who should be used to refer to people. Choices a and c are therefore incorrect. The clause who suffer from antisocial personality disorder is necessary to describe which people demonstrate a disturbing emotional shallowness. Choices b and e do not use a pronoun to create such a clause, making the sentence unclear and/or illogical. – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 204 69. e. Choices a, b, and c misplace the modifier in protracted space flight, which should follow astronauts, and a also misplaces brought on by weightlessness, which should follow atrophy. Choice c also makes an error in the idiom brought on by. Choice d is wordy. 70. b. All of the other choices are unnecessarily wordy and/or less direct. Choices a and e also disrupt the parallel structure of the list. Choice e is also awkward. 71. e. The correct idiom is of a like mind. All other choices are therefore incorrect. 72. a. This is the most concise version. Choice b disrupts the parallel structure by turning the modifier renowned into a clause. Choices c and d are wordy. Choice e incorrectly uses being to create an awkward sentence. 73. c. Choice a misplaces the modifier also called genetic engineering, which should immediately follow recombinant DNA technology. Choice b turns what should be the predicate of the sentence (the main action and focus of the sentence) into a huge introductory phrase, shifting the emphasis onto also called genetic engineering, which becomes the new predicate. Choice d incorrectly uses the wordy and indirect phrases the cutting of instead of the infinitive to cut and the combination of them with instead of combine them with. Choice e is wordy. 74. b. Choice a is a run-on sentence, which choice b corrects by changing the comma to a semicolon. Choice c creates a wordy and awkward sentence. Choice d changes the meaning of the sentence and makes it unclear — 90% more of what? Choice e is also a run-on. 75. d. Choice a is an unclear sentence because it could refer to several antecedents, including foreign body, molecules, immune system, and species. The correct antecedent is immune system. Choice e also has an error in subject-verb agreement (species requires a singular verb — reacts). – VERBAL SECTION PRACTICE TEST– 205 [...]... learn specific tips and strategies that can be used on the exam Before you begin the AWA review, take the following pretest Use this practice test to help you determine how much preparation you need for this section of the exam Pretest The following AWA pretest contains two essay prompts, one of each kind of prompt you will see on the actual exam This pretest is designed to give you a sense of what... of the exam When you are finished, compare your results to the scoring guide and sample essays in the answer key Use the results to plan your study time effectively and determine the areas where you need the most careful review and practice 213 Test-Taking Tip When practicing essays on your computer, be sure to turn off the spell check and grammar check; the wordprocessing program on the GMAT exam will... the timing of the GMAT exam, spend 30 minutes on each essay On the test, you will have to write both essays in one hour, so do both essays consecutively for the most realistic practice test scenario Make every effort to write your essays on a computer with a basic word processor The more practice you have composing and revising on the computer, the more comfortable you will be on the exam If you cannot... customer base, and even if it is the problem, a move is not the only or best answer 220 C H A P T E R 14 About the Analytical Writing Assessment The first part of the GMAT exam is the Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA): a two-part essay exam designed to measure your ability to think critically and convey your ideas effectively in writing The AWA consists of two separate writing questions: an Analysis... funds or save money health and environmental issues societal trends 223 AWA Prompt List Want to see the AWA writing prompts from last year’s GMAT exam? You can download a complete list of the 2001–2002 AWA essay prompts from the website www.mba.com/mba/TaketheGMAT/Tools/AWATopics2001.htm Analyzing the Argument On the analysis level, your readers will be looking for evidence that you have considered... emphasis For example, sometimes a one-word sentence or paragraph can have great impact as a stylistic technique However, E-rater is likely to see it as a grammatical error (sentence fragment) or an underdeveloped paragraph Instead, stick to a more traditional sentence or paragraph length The GMAT Scoring Rubric Although scoring an essay is far more subjective than correcting a multiple-choice exam, the... ASSESSMENT – you do not need specific knowledge of how successful corporations work to answer the Analysis of an Issue prompt from the pretest Indeed, this prompt is a good example of how open AWA issue questions usually are Notice, for example, the number of terms that can be defined in many ways, leaving the prompt open to a wide range of responses: “Successful corporations have a moral responsibility... when a few words can more clearly and concisely express the same idea (e.g., the pen that belongs to Jill) 209 P A R T III The GMAT Analytical Writing Assessment C H A P T E R 13 Analytical Writing Assessment Pretest In the following chapters, you will learn all about the GMAT Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) section: the kinds of topics you will be asked to write about, how you will be expected... presentation of your ideas using all of the signposts possible is the best way to write on this exam Don’t try to write an elaborate, complicated essay, and do not try to gain points by showing off sophisticated stylistic techniques Aim for simplicity and clarity throughout your essays Instead of implying your main idea, for example, make sure you have a clear thesis statement for your essay and topic sentences... with specific reasons and examples Issue Topics The issue topics can be about anything, including business, social, political, or ethical matters Whatever their subject matter, issue topics will be general enough so that all test takers can form a reasonable opinion on the issue You will not need prior or specialized knowledge of the subject to write an effective essay For example, 221 – ABOUT THE ANALYTICAL . grammar check; the wordprocessing program on the GMAT exam will not include either of these features. 214 To practice the timing of the GMAT exam, spend 30 minutes on each essay. On the test,. ASSESSMENT PRETEST– 2 16 – ANALYTICAL WRITING ASSESSMENT PRETEST– 217  Answer Explanations The following model essays earn a 6 on the AWA section, the top score on the written exam. Both essays have most. premise and the conclusion. The success of Jones’s previous albums (choice a) and his next album (choice c) are irrelevant to the conclusion, which is focused on his success today. Jones may or

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