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Master gmat 2010 part 64 pptx

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24. If the letter M represents a digit in the decimal number 0.0M , and if the letter N represents a digit in the decimal number 0.0N, then 0.0M 3 0.0N 5 (A) 1 10,000 3 M 3 N (B) 0.000MN (C) 1 1000 3 M 3 N (D) 0.00MN (E) 1 100 3 M 3 N 25. Critter Kennel currently boards eight fewer cats than dogs. If the ratio of boarded cats to boarded dogs is 5:6, how many cats and dogs altogether are boarded at the kennel? (A) 64 (B) 77 (C) 84 (D) 88 (E) 98 26. On the xy-coordinate plane, points R(7,23) and S(7,7) are the endpoints of the longest possible chord of a certain circle. What is the area of the circle? (A) 7p (B) 16p (C) 20p (D) 25p (E) 49p 27. In a group of m workers, if b workers earn D dollars per week and the rest earn half that amount each, which of the following represents the total number of dollars paid to the entire group of workers in a week? (A) bD 1 b 2 m (B) bD 1 1 2 mD (C) 3 2 bD 1 mD (D) 3 2 D(b 1 m) (E) 1 2 D(b 1 m) 28. Distribution D consists of five different numbers. What is the standard deviation of distribution D ? (1) The average of the five numbers in distribution D is 12. (2) The range of the five numbers in distribution D is 12. 29. The distance from City 1 to City 2 is 825 kilometers. On an accurate map showing both cities, 1 centimeter rep- resents 75 kilometers. On the map, how many millimeters separate City 1 and City 2? [Note: 1 centimeter 5 10 millimeters.] (A) 10 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90 (E) 110 practice test Practice Test 6 613 www.petersons.com QUESTIONS 30–31 REFER TO THE FOLLOWING CHART: 30. During the greatest ten-year change in nonminority scholarship funds awarded, which of the following most closely approximates the greatest five-year percent change in minority scholarship funds awarded? (A) 15 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 33 (E) 43 31. During the year in which the total amount of nonminority and minority funds awarded was the greatest, the difference between the two amounts was approximately (A) $130,000 (B) $170,000 (C) $220,000 (D) $270,000 (E) $400,000 32. If integer x ≥ 1, is x an even number? (1) x 3 2 x 2 2 x is an even integer. (2) 3x 1 2x 1 x is an even integer. 33. If 3a 5 5b and ab 5 135, then which of the following is the entire solution set for a 1 b? (A) 66 (B) 624 (C) 6 (D) 24 (E) All real numbers 34. A merchant mixes a pounds of nuts worth b cents per pound with c pounds of nuts worth d cents per pound. At what price, expressed in cents, should he sell a pound of the mixture if the merchant wishes to make a profit of 10 cents per pound? (A) ab 1 cd a 1 c 1 10 (B) ab 1 cd a 1 c 1 1 10 (C) b 1 d a 1 c 1 10 (D) b 1 d a 1 c 1 1 10 (E) b 1 d 1 10 a 1 c 35. If x 3 , x 7 , and x 9 are all positive integers, what is the least possible value of x? (A) 36 (B) 42 (C) 54 (D) 56 (E) 63 614 PART VI: Five Practice Tests www.petersons.com 36. B C A D In parallelogram ABCD above, ∠BAD measures 60°. What is the sum of the measures of ∠ABC and ∠ADC ? (A) 60° (B) 120° (C) 180° (D) 240° (E) 300° 37. If A . B . 0, is A B an integer? (1) Neither A nor B is an integer. (2) A 5 3B practice test Practice Test 6 615 www.petersons.com VERBAL SECTION 41 QUESTIONS • 75 MINUTES Directions for Sentence Correction Questions: (These directions will appear on your screen before your first Sentence Correction question.) This question presents a sentence, all or part of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others. This question tests correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of Standard Written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error. Directions for Critical Reasoning Questions: (These directions will appear on your screen before your first Critical Reasoning question.) For this question, select the best of the answer choices given. Directions for Reading Comprehension Questions: (These directions will appear on your screen before your first group of Reading Comprehension questions.) The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. 1. According to recently published federal aviation statistics, twin- engine aircraft accidents, which aircraft typically have only two seats, account for the vast majority of airplane accidents, well over ninety percent. (A) twin-engine aircraft accidents, which aircraft typically have only two seats, account for the vast majority of airplane accidents, well over ninety percent (B) twin-engine aircraft, which typically have only two seats and account for the vast majority of airplane accidents, well over ninety percent (C) accidents involving twin-engine aircraft, which typically have only two seats, account for the vast majority, well over ninety percent, of all airplane acci- dents (D) the vast majority of airplane accidents, well over ninety percent, are twin-engine aircraft, which typically have only two seats (E) well over ninety percent, the vast majority, of airplane accidents are twin-engine aircraft accidents, which typically have only two seats 616 PART VI: Five Practice Tests www.petersons.com 2. When Margaret Thatcher won the British general election in 1979, she had become Europe’s first woman prime minister, although the world had seen its very first female head of state, Sirimavo Bandaranaike of Sri Lanka, nineteen years earlier. (A) When Margaret Thatcher won (B) Upon Margaret Thatcher’s winning (C) Whenever Margaret Thatcher won (D) Margaret Thatcher had won (E) At the time Margaret Thatcher won 3. Which of the following provides the best completion of the passage below? Our nation’s public policy dictates that our lands be put to their most economically productive uses. Although farm subsidies help farmers avoid bankruptcy during years in which they lose their crops due to natural disasters, in the long term, subsidies provide a disincentive for farmers to farm productively. Therefore, ________ . (A) the farm subsidy system is ultimately to blame when a farm goes bankrupt (B) our nation’s public policy should be modified to accommodate farm subsidies (C) farmers should strive to make more productive use of their farmland (D) in the long term, farmers would operate their farms more profitably without subsidies (E) the current farm subsidy system amounts to a violation of our nation’s public policy 4. Many literary critics consider James Joyce’s Ulysses (1922), a novel once banned as an obscene one, as the greatest novel of the twentieth century due to its remarkable synthesis of mythology, philosophy, and social realism. (A) a novel once banned as an obscene one, as (B) which is a novel that was once banned as obscene, as (C) once banned for its obscenity as a novel, to be (D) once a banned and obscene novel, to be (E) a novel once banned as obscene, to be 5. Despite escalating gasoline prices and a slowing economy, Zenith State Park is growing in popularity as a tourist destination. The state authorities who operate the park currently charge a five-dollar entrance fee per vehicle and are concerned that the congestion and noise caused by the steady stream of park visitors, particularly motorists, now detract significantly from the en- joyment of the park, which was once known for its isolation and solitude. Which of the following courses of ac- tions, if implemented, would most likely address the concerns of the authorities who operate Zenith State Park? (A) Impose an entrance fee based on the number of occupants per ve- hicle instead of a per-vehicle fee. (B) Establish and strictly enforce a limit on the total number of ve- hicles entering the park each day. (C) Encourage the public to avoid the park during the peak tourism sea- son and to visit during other times of the year instead. (D) Require all motorized vehicles to remain outside the entrance gate and allow park entrance only to pedestrians and non- motorized vehicles. (E) Allow entrance to the park only to visitors who have made reservations in advance. practice test Practice Test 6 617 www.petersons.com 6. In the sport of maxiball, in which the objective is to score more goals than the opposing team, each team member faces off against one mem- ber of the other team. The coach for the Panthers predicts victory over the Cougars in an upcoming match between these two maxiball teams. The chief reason for the coach’s prediction is that the Cougars’ best defensive player will not be defend- ing against Fonsica, who is the Panthers’ highest scoring player. Which of the following, if true, would cast most doubt on the prediction made by the Panthers’ coach? (A) The Panthers have defeated fewer opponents than the Cougars this year. (B) Fonsica is the Panther’s best defensive player. (C) The Panthers’ best defensive player will not be defending against the Cougars’ highest scoring player. (D) Fonsica is not the Panthers’ best defensive player. (E) The Cougars’ highest scoring player will not be defending against Fonsica. QUESTIONS 7–9 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE, WHICH WAS WRITTEN IN 1994: Line The dynamic growth of the People’s Republic of China in recent years is attributable to several factors. Trade between the United States and China resumed in 1972, after a twenty-year hiatus, and has developed rapidly since normalization of diplomatic relations in 1979. Economic growth is also attribut- able largely to China’s policies of economic reform. The pace of reform quickened in the wake of senior leader Deng Xiaoping’s call in early 1992 for more growth, greater openness, and stepped-up reform. Deng’s policies were endorsed that year by the Fourteenth Congress of the Chinese Communist Party, by the Eighth Annual People’s Congress in 1993, and again in 1993 by the Third Plenum of the Chinese Communists Party’s Fourteenth Central Committee. The Third Plenum adopted several new reform initiatives aimed at transforming the Chinese economy into a market system— particularly the privatization of state-owned enterprises. But what are the possible intra- national political consequences of the government’s current stress on eco- nomic development at the expense of political reform? Certain regions are experiencing a greater economic boom than others. Guangdong province, for example, has benefited from neighbor- ing Hong Kong’s freewheeling capitalis- tic economy, and the movement of Hong Kong’s manufacturing sector into the province has created what is probably the most dynamic economy in the world. Such anomalies in economic development are likely to create unrest in less prosperous areas. Political instability might also result if current inflationary trends become uncontrol- lable. Further, the question of leader- ship succession remains unresolved, a situation that might generate political unrest. Political unrest will remain relatively dormant only while economic expansion continues and spreads to the nation’s internal regions. 618 PART VI: Five Practice Tests 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 www.petersons.com 7. The passage mentions all of the following as factors contributing to China’s economic growth EXCEPT: (A) renewed political relations between China and the United States (B) the policies of Deng Xiaoping (C) particular initiatives of the Third Plenum (D) endorsements made by the Eighth Annual People’s Congress (E) a decrease in the number of state-owned enterprises 8. The author discusses Guangdong province primarily in order to (A) illustrate a political phenomenon (B) discount an economic theory (C) support a prediction (D) help define a historical trend (E) rebut an opposing viewpoint 9. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage’s second paragraph? (A) Unless accompanied by political reforms, economic growth and reform in China might result in political instability. (B) In order to ensure future economic growth, China must continue to trade with the United States. (C) China’s recent economic growth is the result of both improving political relations with the United States and reforms in economic policy. (D) While positive political develop- ments have been largely responsible for China’s recent economic growth, continued unfettered growth might ironically have adverse political consequences in the future. (E) The potential for United States exports to China, although great, might be adversely affected in the future by both economic and political factors. 10. With the cold war against the Soviet Union long over and our nation’s youth losing ground academically to the rest of the world, it is time for our society to reconsider its priorities regarding education and national defense. (A) society to reconsider its priori- ties regarding (B) society’s members to reconsider the priorities of (C) society to reprioritize the value of (D) society to reconsider their priorities with respect to (E) society to reconsider whether to prioritize 11. According to Newtonian physics, the greater the distance between two particles, given the so-called gravita- tional constant, the less will be the gravitational force between them. (A) the greater the distance be- tween two particles, given the so-called gravitational constant, the less will be the gravitational force between them (B) given the so-called gravitational constant, the greater the distance between two particles, the smaller the gravitational force between them (C) given the so-called gravitational constant, more distance be- tween two particles will result in a lesser gravitational force between them (D) the less of a gravitational force between two objects, the more of a distance between them, given the so-called gravitational constant (E) the greater the distance the less the gravitational force between two particles, given the so- called gravitational constant practice test Practice Test 6 619 www.petersons.com 12. A court reporter can have trouble if a witness speaks too quickly during testimony, possibly producing an inaccurate transcript. (A) A court reporter can have trouble if a witness speaks too quickly during testimony, possibly producing an inaccu- rate transcript. (B) Should he or she speak too quickly, a court reporter can have trouble producing an accurate transcript based on a witness’s testimony. (C) If speaking too quickly, a court reporter can have trouble producing an accurate tran- script based on that witness’ testimony. (D) An accurate transcript based on a witness’s testimony can, if speaking too quickly, produce trouble for a court reporter. (E) A court reporter can have trouble producing an accurate transcript based on the testi- mony of a witness who speaks too quickly. 13. State X requires employers to pay hourly-wage employees 50 percent more than their regular wage for every work hour in excess of 8, on any workday. State Y requires employers to pay these employees the same overtime rate, but only for work hours in excess of 40 during any given week. Most hourly-wage employees prefer to work in state Y over state X. Based only on the statements above, which of the following best explains why most hourly-wage employees prefer to work in state Y over state X? (A) Most hourly-wage employees work at least five days per week. (B) Most hourly-wage employees prefer to work for employers that do not provide over- time work. (C) Most hourly-wage employees prefer to work for employers that provide overtime work. (D) Overtime work hours for most hourly-wage employees exceed regular work hours by at least 50 percent. (E) Most hourly-wage employees work fewer than 40 hours per week. 620 PART VI: Five Practice Tests www.petersons.com 14. During the past week, 120 RamTech Corporation employees have reported symptoms of a strain of food poison- ing known as disporella, but only 8 of these employees have tested positive for the strain. A RamTech spokesper- son claims that the apparent out- break of disporella can be attributed to contaminated food served two weeks ago at the company’s annual employee picnic. Which of the following, if true, would best support the claim made by the RamTech spokesperson above? (A) Disporella symptoms generally last only a few days. (B) RamTech’s cafeteria facilities provide lunch to RamTech employees during every work- day. (C) People with disporella do not generally test positive for disporella until at least one week after disporella symptoms begin to occur. (D) People with disporella often do not exhibit disporella symptoms until more than a week after contracting disporella. (E) A person can test positive for disporella without exhibiting symptoms of disporella. QUESTIONS 15–17 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE: Line Radiative forcings are changes imposed on the planetary energy balance; radiative feedbacks are changes induced by climate change. Forcings can arise from either natural or anthropogenic causes. For example, the concentration of sulfate aerosols in the atmosphere can be altered by volcanic action or by the burning of fossil fuels. The distinction between forcings and feedbacks is sometimes arbitrary; however, forcings are quantities normally specified in global climate model simulations, while feedbacks are calculated quantities. Examples of radiative forcings are greenhouse gases (such as carbon dioxide and ozone), aerosols in the troposphere, and surface reflectivity. Radiative feedbacks include clouds, water vapor in the troposphere, and sea-ice cover. The effects of forcings and feedbacks on climate are complex and uncertain. For example, clouds trap outgoing radiation and thus provide a warming influence. However, they also reflect incoming solar radiation and thus provide a cooling influence. Current measurements indicate that the net effect of clouds is to cool the earth. However, scientists are unsure if the balance will shift in the future as the atmosphere and cloud formation are altered by the accumulation of green- house gases. Similarly, the vertical distribution of ozone affects both the amount of radiation reaching the earth’s surface and the amount of reradiated radiation that is trapped by the greenhouse effect. These two mechanisms affect the earth’s tempera- ture in opposite directions. practice test Practice Test 6 621 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 www.petersons.com 15. It can be inferred from the informa- tion in the passage that “burning of fossil fuels” (line 9) (A) is an anthropogenic cause of radiative forcings. (B) results in both radiative forcings and radiative feedbacks. (C) does not affect atmospheric forcings or feedbacks. (D) is a significant type of radiative forcing. (E) is an anthropogenic cause of radiative feedbacks. 16. According to the passage, radiative forcings and radiative feedbacks can generally be distinguished in which of the following ways? (A) Whether the radiative change is global or more localized (B) The precision with which the amounts of radiative change can be determined (C) The altitude at which the radiative change occurs (D) Whether the radiative change is directed toward or away from the earth (E) Whether the amount of radiative change is specified or calculated 17. The author discusses the effect of clouds on atmospheric temperature most likely in order to show that (A) radiative feedbacks can be more difficult to isolate and predict than radiative forcings. (B) the climatic impact of some ra- diative feedbacks is uncertain. (C) some radiative feedbacks cannot be determined solely by global climate model simulations. (D) the distinction between radia- tive feedbacks and radiative forcings is somewhat arbitrary. (E) the effects of radiative forcings on planetary energy balance are both complex and uncertain. 18. As any economist knows, healthy people pose less of an economic burden to society than unhealthy people. Not surprisingly, then, every dollar our state government spends on prenatal care for undocumented immigrants will save taxpayers of this state three dollars. Which of the following, if true, would best explain why the statistics cited above are not surprising? (A) The state’s taxpayers pay for prenatal care of all immigrants. (B) Pregnant women who do not receive prenatal care are more likely to experience health problems than other pregnant women. (C) State benefits for prenatal care serve to promote undocumented immigration. (D) Babies whose mothers did not receive prenatal care are just as healthy as other babies. (E) Babies born in this state to undocumented immigrant parents are entitled to infant care benefits from the state. 622 PART VI: Five Practice Tests www.petersons.com . question.) This question presents a sentence, all or part of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original;. Fourteenth Congress of the Chinese Communist Party, by the Eighth Annual People’s Congress in 1993, and again in 1993 by the Third Plenum of the Chinese Communists Party’s Fourteenth Central Committee distance between two particles, given the so-called gravita- tional constant, the less will be the gravitational force between them. (A) the greater the distance be- tween two particles, given the so-called

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