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PHÔT PHOTOCOPY QUANG TUẤN – ZALO: 036.922.4176 TUYỂN CHỌN 45 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2022 Môn TIẾNG ANH SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VIẾT MÔN: Anh – Lớp 12 XUÂN Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from to 15 Question (NB): Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ? A doesn't she B hasn't she C won't she D isn't she Question (TH): On our trip to Spain, we crossed Atlantic Ocean A x B a C the D an Question (TH): She likes reading books the library A on B at C in D from Question (TH): The government suggests robots to access remote areas that are dangerous to the lives of militants A to design B designing C design D designed Question (NB): If the bride's father the car, she would be at the Church now A has B had C will have D would have Question (TH): Since Helen 10 years old, she has mastered Braille as well as the manual alphabet and even learned to use the typewriter A was B were C will be D has been Question (TH): People should stop smoking it is extremely detrimental to health A although B despite C because of D because Question (TH): She will take management training course A as soon as the epidemic was controlled B when the epidemic had been controlled C until the epidemic will be controlled D right after the epidemic has been controlled Question (TH): You can't expect a foreign language in a few months A learn B learning C to learn D to learning Question 10 (TH): Good students aren't intelligent students A necessity B unnecessary C necessary D necessarily Question 11 (VD): He some excuse about his daughter being sick A broke in B made up C run across D took after Question 12 (VD): The US president Barack Obama an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership A delivered B paid C offered D gave Trang Question 13 (TH): The of toothpaste are located in the health and beauty section of the supermarket A pints B tubes C quarts D sticks Question 14 (TH): There is no longer the use of animals to test products Only some are used A expansive B intensive C extensive D tentative Question 15 (VDC): Alex dreams of going on tour – he's just waiting for his big to get his foot in the door of the music industry A break B cheese C cake D deal Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 16 to 20 Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably (16) these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K and (17) parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end”) marked the end of summer and kicked off the Celtic new year Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something that was doubly symbolic because it (18) with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges Eventually, Halloween became more popular in secular culture than All Saints' Day The pagan-turnedChristian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those (19) may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints (20) , whether Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth Question 16 (VD): A separate B estimate C associate D celebrate Question 17 (TH): A each B every C another D other Question 18 (TH): A coincided B originated C compared D occurred Question 19 (TH): A which B whom C who D what Question 20 (TH): A Moreover B However C Instead D Therefore Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges from 21 to 22 Question 21 (TH): Mary is talking to her professor in his office - Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?” - Professor: “ ” A Try your best, Mary B You mean the podcasts from other students? C You can borrow books from the library D I like it that you understand Question 22 (TH): – Tom: “Who's going to win the contest?” – Jerry: “ .” A There's nothing you don't know about beauty B Your guess is as good as mine C It might be a good idea to bet D I've set my heart on winning it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 23 to 24 Question 23 (TH): The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job A employ B help C make D allow Question 24 (TH): She was brought up in a well-off family She can't understand the problems we are facing A wealthy B kind C broke D comfortable Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 25 to 27 Question 25 (TH): Facebook allow you to send messages and post status updates to keep in touch with friends and family A and B to keep C allow D status updates Question 26 (TH): Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated national monuments A history B cultural C have D been designated Question 27 (TH): Just as the performance ended, all the concertgoers raised to their feet and applauded A raised B Just as C their feet D ended Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 28 to 30 Question 28 (TH): Helen's boss earns more money than she does A Helen doesn't earn as much money as her boss B Helen's boss earns as much as she does C Helen earns more money than her boss D Helen's boss earns less money than she does Question 29 (TH): Cindy said that “I haven't seen John since last month.” A Cindy said she wasn't seen John since the previous month B Cindy said she hadn't seen John since the previous month C Cindy said she hasn't seen John since last month D Cindy said I hadn't seen John since the previous month Question 30 (VD): John is not here, perhaps he is ill A Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here B John might be ill, so he is not here C John must be ill, so he is not here D John needn't be here because he is ill Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 31 to 32 Question 31 (NB): A effort B actor C perform D area Question 32 (NB): A disappear B recommend C entertain D fortunate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of sentences in the following questions from 33 to 34 Question 33 (VDC): You can go out with your friends Make sure you finish your homework by p.m A As long as you finish your homework by p.m., you can go out with your friends B You cannot go out with your friends provided you finish your homework by p.m C You can't go out with your friends in case you cannot finish your homework by p.m D Unless you finish your homework by p.m., you can go out with your friends Question 34 (VDC): He has great intelligence He can solve all the problems very quickly A So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly B An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly C So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly D He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems very quickly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 39 As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their actual products or services, there is an intrinsic advantage to those organizations who use designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most competitive of markets Those that don't, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their customer's expectation of them Make no mistake, in our high paced and digitally connected economies, the experience gap is driving markets, fast For example, take Instagram and Twitter These brands filled the demand for a whole new human experience that did not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled that They were pioneers, and there were no established players to unseat But we are also seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries New entrants are coming in and taking the space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers a better experience than the incumbents Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400 He says banking has already become quite complicated and he wanted to make a change His neobank is working to solve customers’ problems more holistically Bell said, “It's significantly harder work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services.” Think about that for a moment Do you notice how better experiences, leads to better relationships, which is then the stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer connection and the necessary foundation of trust first (Source: https://which-50.com/) Question 35 (VD): What does the passage mainly discuss? A The importance of experience to competitive advantage B Businesses are unwilling to disrupt themselves C A far-reaching cultural transformation D Knowledge drives behavior, loyalty, satisfaction Question 36 (TH): The word “them” in paragraph refers to _ A brands B economies C customers D markets Question 37 (TH): According to paragraph 2, what is true about Instagram and Twitter in the stated instance? A They are the one and only companies providing such revolutionary services B Prior to their advent, there were already several competitors in the field C They were the trailblazers for the experience-oriented marketing strategy D Their reputation famously preceded even the 4th Industrial Revolution Question 38 (TH): According to paragraph 3, what is the attitude of Robert Bell towards the customers? A He views them as the golden goose for his business B He displays worship in its purest form towards them C He sees them as modern slaves to consumerism D He maintains a healthy relationship of give and take Question 39 (TH): What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph mean? A An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling B An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things C A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time D An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 40 to 41 Question 40 (NB): A jumps B arrives C follows D rains Question 41 (NB): A effect B enter C restore D engage Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 48 Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of 18 Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal Girls from the wealthiest families marry years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of school and earn little money Food insecurity plays an important role too Nepalese families that not have enough food to eat are more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden One study shows that 91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19 Dowry is also a common practice in many communities Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible because the money they have to pay for the groom's family is higher if their daughter is older Since 2010, the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the Nepalese Country Code The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up to 10,000 rupees (£102) But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied There has been quite a lot of progress in Nepal over the past years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and civil society cooperation The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing Nepal's first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not Brides Nepal However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow and the national strategy has been delayed (Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/) Question 42 (VD): Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality B Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal C Nepal's strategies to child protection programming D One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage Question 43 (TH): According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families _ A play an important role in bolstering their household finances B can get married two years later than those are from poor families C are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money D have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families Question 44 (TH): The word “those” in paragraph refers to _ A girls B years C rates D families Question 45 (TH): The word “burden” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A potency B load C cargo D issue Question 46 (TH): The word “imprisonment” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _ A salvation B custody C detention D emblem Question 47 (VD): According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? A Parents who marry their children before the allowed age normally pay a fine B The age of marriage in Nepal depends on the money the families have C According to the law, if people have their parents' permission, they are allowed to marry at 18 D Nepalese families have a tendency to marry their daughters at a young age Question 48 (VDC): It can be inferred from the passage _ A Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world B The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage C Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money D The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 49 to 50 Question 49 (TH): Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest A rich B hungry C poor D full Question 50 (VDC): Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task A full of sincerity B without money C lack of responsibility D full of experience Đáp án 1-D 2-C 3-C 4-B 5-B 6-A 7-D 8-D 9-C 10-D 11-B 12-B 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-C 17-D 18-A 19-C 20-B 21-C 22-B 23-B 24-A 25-C 26-A 27-A 28-A 29-B 30-B 31-C 32-D 33-A 34-C 35-A 36-C 37-C 38-D 39-D 40-A 41-B 42-D 43-D 44-A 45-B 46-C 47-A 48-B 49-D 50-D Trang SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ THÁNH TÔNG ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN MÔN: Anh – Lớp 12 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks COVID-19 has forced us into social distancing, isolation and quarantine These conditions are likely fostering (1) _ anxiety and loneliness in our cities However, COVID-19 is an opportunity to build a new kind of contact on (2) _ we know and learn from this situation It's possible to promote social and emotional well-being Integrating public and online spaces is one of the approaches for building better communities Our new online communication skills can help us develop a better physical-digital interface for bringing people together Video conferencing is flexible and can enable long-distance connection and “work from home” hubs (3) _, social media platforms, such as Facebook, Meetup, WhatsApp or art-based apps like Somebody, are (4) for organising physical meetings too These can help with community volunteering, socialising, or simply sharing guerrilla-garden herbs for local cooking A better physical-digital interface could help new jobs flourish in "interactive" creative industries that virtually connect (5) isolated individuals New art spaces could be established, putting connective digital infrastructure, such as audio-visual platforms, within physical spaces to help face-to-face and virtual audiences interact (Adapted from https://theconversation.com/reconnecting-after-coronavirus) Câu (TH): A national B widespread C global D international Câu (TH): A that B what C whom D which Câu (TH): A In contrast B Therefore C Otherwise D Moreover Câu (TH): A grateful B careful C awful D useful Câu (TH): A another B every C other D one Choose the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Câu (TH): Mike's inviting Sue to go dancing - Mike: "Shall we go dancing tonight?" - Sue: “ ” A Yes, let's B Not a little bit C Never mind D I can't agree with you Câu (TH): Mike and Susan are talking about changes in the modern society - Mike: "Our living standards have been improved greatly." - Susan: “ _” A Sure I couldn't agree more B Yes, it's nice of you to say so C No, it's nice to say so D Thank you for saying so Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Câu (VDC): You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold A keeps testing B keeps going C keep changing her opinion D keeps taking things Câu (TH): With the Artemis program, NASA will land the first woman and next man on the Moon by 2024, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before A crude B rustic C traditional D latest Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Câu 10 (TH): A participant B particular C enthusiast D preferential Câu 11 (NB): A technique B finish C reduce D impress Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Câu 12 (TH): Many places of (A) history, scientific, (B) cultural, or scenic (C) importance (D) have been designated national monuments A history B cultural C importance D have been Câu 13 (VD): The villagers are (A) highly appreciable of the (B) volunteers' efforts in (C) reconstructing their houses after the (D) devastating storm A highly appreciable B volunteers' efforts C reconstructing D devastating Câu 14 (NB): Basic knowledge (A) of social studies, such as (B) history and geography, (C) are considered a basic part of the education of (D) every child 10 Schools are also teaching cognitive skills to the nearly 40 percent of American students (31) _do not go on to higher education In the (32) of a recent report by the Commission on Achieving Necessary Skills, “A strong back, the willingness to work, and a high school diploma were once all that was necessary to (33) _ a start in America They are no longer A well-developed mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to put knowledge to work are the new keys to the future of our young people, the success of our business, and the economic well-being of the nation.” (Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version) Question 29: A fight B cope C stay D Question 30: A discharging B distributing C delivering D addressing Question 31: A whom B which C who D whose Question 32: A ways B directions C words D minds Question 33: A get B take C make D bring Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 34: Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.” Daisy: “ ” A There’s no doubt about that B It doesn’t matter at all C It is very kind of you to say so D I am sorry to hear that Question 35: Two friends, Peter and Lucy, are talking about Lucy’s hair Peter: “What a great haircut, Lucy!” Lucy: " _" A It’s my pleasure B Oh yes, it’s very unfashionable C Thanks It’s very kind of you to say so D You think so? I don’t like it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant effort to improve the quality of his life Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of surplus human population A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance 251 Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself Question 36: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4? A harmful consequences B effective techniques C latest developments D useful experiments Question 37: The word "underlying" in paragraph could best be replaced by _ A finding B noticing C depriving D causing Question 38: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work _ A accurately and objectively B harder and harder C on social and political purposes D with other social scientists Question 39: What is the author's purpose in this passage? A To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society B To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems C To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population D To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering Question 40: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering A is the most desirable for life B may us more harm than good C will change all human traits D is no longer desirable Question 41: What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage? A genetic engineering misuse B social and economic deficiencies C environmental pollution D manipulation of genes Question 42: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about _ A the development of new ideas B his basic research C his manipulation of genes D the consequences of his discoveries Question 43: The word "which" in paragraph refers to _ A serious environmental pollution B activities of an overpopulated society's industry C activities of surplus human population D the waste products dumped into our environment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence Question 44: The workers at the factory are required to wear protective clothing A The workers at the factory shouldn’t wear protective clothing B The workers at the factory must wear protective clothing C The workers at the factory needn’t wear protective clothing D The workers at the factory may wear protective clothing Question 45: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers A Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers B It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk C It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution D The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution Question 46: "You should exercise and eat more vegetables", the doctor said to me A The doctor suggested that I exercise and eat more vegetables 252 B The doctor told me to exercise and eat more vegetables C The doctor had me to exercise and eat more vegetables D The doctor reminded me to exercise and eat more vegetables Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 47: A heat B sweat C seat D meat Question 48: A provoked B achieved C defined D emerged Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 49: A determine B pollution C essential D charity Question 50: A behave B allow C remind D enter THE END BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN 1-B 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-B 6-C 7-B 8-D 9-B 10-C 11-D 12-C 13-B 14-A 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-A 20-B 21-D 22-C 23-C 24-A 25-A 26-B 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-D 31-C 32-C 33-C 34-A 35-C 36-A 37-D 38-D 39-B 40-B 41-C 42-D 43-B 44-B 45-A 46-A 47-B 48-A 49-D 50-D 253 SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ VĂN HƯU ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 – LẦN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút MỤC TIÊU - Củng cố kiến thức Ngữ âm (phát âm & trọng âm từ), chủ điểm ngữ pháp bản: Các tiếng Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu tường thuật, Câu hỏi đi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hịa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì, kiến thức từ vựng cấp THPT - Hoàn thiện nâng cao kỹ xử lý dạng tập tiếng Anh: Ngữ âm, Tìm lỗi sai, Ngữ pháp & từ vựng, Đọc điền từ, Đọc hiểu, Tìm câu đồng nghĩa, Từ đồng nghĩa/Trái nghĩa, Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 1: “What did you last night?” the policeman asked the woman A The policeman asked the woman what did she the night before B The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before C The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before D The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before Question 2: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well A I would have spoken English well if I could get that job B I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well C Despite my poor English I was successful in the job D I failed to get the job because of my poor English Question 3: “Why don’t you go to bed earlier?”, she said to me A She suggested that I went to bed earlier B She asked me why I don’t go to bed earlier C She suggested I should go to bed earlier D She asked me to go to bed earlier Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 4: A pressure B future C enthusiasm D resume Question 5: A played B tried C smiled D wanted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 6: A admit B suggest C remind D manage Question 7: A approval B applicant C energy D influence Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 8: He had hardly left the office when the phone rang A No sooner he had left the office than the phone rang B No sooner had he left the office than the phone rang C No sooner he had left the office when the phone rang 254 D No sooner he did left the office than the phone rang Question 9: Some people were diagnosed with having Covid-19 They had exposed to so many people before they got the health check result A Some people whom was diagnosed with having Covid-19 had exposed to so many people before they got the health check result B Some people whose diagnosed with having Covid-19 had exposed to so many people before they got the health check result C Some people diagnosing with having Covid-19 had exposed to so many people before they got the health check result D Some people diagnosed with having Covid-19 had exposed to so many people before they got the health check result Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 10: Since we came here, we a lot of acquaintances A have had B had C have D are having Question 11: The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, _? A is it B doesn’t it C isn’t it D is not it Question 12: They began the party after every dish ready A is B was C had been D were Question 13: his physical disability, he managed to finish the course with good results A Although B Since C Because of D Despite Question 14: If he _ the lesson yesterday, he could the test better today A has reviewed B had reviewed C will review D reviewed Question 15: My teacher reminded me _ my essay carefully before handing it in A checked B checking C to have checked D to check Question 16: It is advisable that you your application as soon as possible A submit B will submit C will have submitted D have submitted Question 17: Every student in English is ready to participate the orchard contest A majors B majoring C to major D majored Question 18: _ colleges and universities are the main institutions that provide tertiary education A 0-0 B 0-the C The-0 D The-the Question 19: Ensure that your behavior matches what you are saying A verbal B non-verbal C tongue D oral Question 20: They appeared _ pessimistic about their chances of winning A surprisingly B advisedly C firmly D repeatedly Question 21: I _ my chance to get that job because I had arrived late for the interview A threw B flew C blew D drew Question 22: are the formal rules of correct or polite behavior among people using the Internet A Traffic rules B Family rules C Codes of etiquettes D Codes of netiquettes Question 23: I believe that she’ll the failures she has got A get on with B get up to C get through D grow out of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 255 Question 24: He has a thorough knowledge of the Vietnamese history He can answer any questions about the country’s milestones A complete B practical C wonderful D whole Question 25: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit A organized B delayed C encouraged D proposed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges Question 26: Liam and Kara are having a discussion about learning new skills Liam: I think that self-leadership is a crucial skills for everyone nowadays” Kara: “ _ It greatly helps us achieve success.” A I don’t think it’s right B I don’t understand C You may be wrong D I definitely agree Question 27: Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful” - Laura: “ .” A Don’t tell a lie I thought it was terrible B I completely agree with you It was terrific C You must be kidding It was not as good as I had expected D No doubt! Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 32 My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store I wanted to work part–time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper I remember the interview as though it were yesterday The (28) manager sat behind a large desk He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post Also, as a member of staff, I was (29) to some benefits, including discounts When I eventually started, I was responsible (30) the toy section I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (31) got on our nerves (32) , working there was a great experience which I will never forget Question 28: A person B personal C personage D personnel Question 29: A entitled B given C catered D supplied Question 30: A.in B with C for D to Question 31: A which B why C where D who Question 32: A By contrast B However C Moreover D On the whole Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 33: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstances A be confident B be pessimistic C be optimistic D be smart Question 34: They started on the study excitedly They had prepared all the need things for it A emphasized B concluded C included D summarized Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34 For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent population of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play 256 and party, making it the number one spring break destination in the United States A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American university students have found a way to make spring break matter For them, joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage makes spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15 “alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States, and five international trips One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in a homeless shelter One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie on the sand They performed exhausting physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding While most university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student volunteers are able to help people now On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous Students often sleep on the floor of a school or spend the week camping in tents But students only pay around 250 dollars for meals and transportation, which is much less than some of their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United States Students cite a number of reason for participating Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new friends Others want to exercise their beliefs about people’s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a break from school work (Source: FCE success workbook) Question 35: What is the passage mainly about? A Students travelling preferences B A traditional approach to spring breaks C American student’s social life D Students’ alternative spring breaks Question 36: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring break? A Around 10,000 B Around 36,000 C Around 500,000 D Around 50.000 Question 37: The word “cite” in paragraph probably means _ A listing B getting C avoiding D inventing Question 38: The word “them” in paragraph refers to _ A degrees B people C projects D students Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break trips to help solve? A Environment damage B Homelessness C Poverty D Overpopulation Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 47 By mid-century, there will likely be billion people on the planet, consuming ever more resources and leading ever more technologically complex lives What will our cities be like? How much will artificial intelligence advance? Will global warming trigger catastrophic changes, or will we be able to engineer our way out of the climate change crisis? Making predictions is, by nature, a dicey business, but to celebrate the 40th anniversary of Smithsonian magazine Big Think asked top minds from a variety of fields to weigh in on what the future holds 40 years from now The result is our latest special series, Life in 20 50 Demographic changes in world population and population growth will certainly be dramatic Rockefeller University mathematical biologist Joel Cohen says it's likely that by 2050 the majority of the people in the world will live in urban areas, and will have a significantly higher average age than people today Cities theorist Richard Florida thinks urbanization 257 trends will reinvent the education system of the United States, making our economy less real estate driven and erasing the divisions between home and work Large migrations from developing countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, Bangladesh, Mexico, and countries in the Middle East could disrupt western governments and harm the unity of France, Germany, Spain, the Netherlands, Poland, and the United Kingdom under the umbrella of the European Union And rapidly advancing technology will continue ever more rapidly According to Bill Mitchell, the late director of MIT's Smart Cities research group, cities of the future won't look like "some sort of science fiction fantasy" or "Star Trek" but it's likely that "discreet, unobtrusive" technological advances and information overlays, i.e virtual reality and augmented reality, will change how we live in significant ways Self-driving cars will make the roads safer, driving more efficient, and provide faster transports A larger version of driverless cars-driverless trucks-may make long haul drivers obsolete Meanwhile, the Internet will continue to radically transform media, destroying the traditional model of what a news organization is, says author and former New York Times Public Editor, Daniel Okrent, who believes the most common kinds of news organizations in the future will be "individuals and small alliances of individuals” reporting and publishing on niche topics (Source: https://bigthink.com) Question 40: What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A The population in the future B The advanced artificial intelligence C The life in 2050 D Global warming and its impacts Question 41: The word “trigger” in the first paragraph could be best placed by A cause B prevent C encourage D promote Question 42: Which of the following predictions in paragraph is NOT true? A The world population will grow considerably B The humans will have a longer life span C Urbanization trends will increase the separation between home and workplace D More and more inhabitants choose urban areas to live Question 43: The word “disrupt” in paragraph is closest in meaning A settle B establish C disturb D replace Question 44: According to paragraph 4, the following countries are damaged by the migrations, EXCEPT A the countries in the Middle East B Germany C the United Kingdom D the Netherlands Question 45: What is the problem caused by advanced technology for future humans in paragraph 5? A It makes people likely to live in the virtual reality B It will be unsafe for people to drive their cars in the roads C Long haul drivers may become unemployed D People’s lives will be getting worse Question 46: What does the word “who” in the last paragraph refer to? A Daniel Okrent B New York Times C author D traditional model Question 47: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude about the life in 2050? A pessimistic B optimistic C doubtful D anxious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 48: The man, together with his family, were invited to the Clambake last night 258 A The B together with C were D to the Question 49: We’ve got a terrible amount of work to today A We’ve B terrible C of D to Question 50: Outdoor activities, such as playing sports, swimming and to fly kites, are good for our health A activities B playing C to fly D are THE END BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-A 5-D 6-D 7-A 8-B 9-D 10-A 11-C 12-C 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-B 18-A 19-B 20-A 21-C 22-D 23-D 24-A 25-A 26-D 27-C 28-D 29-A 30-C 31-D 32-D 33-B 34-B 35-D 36-C 37-A 38-C 39-D 40-C 41-A 42-C 43-C 44-A 45-C 46-A 47-B 48-C 49-B 50-C 259 SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC NINH TRƯỜNG THPT HÀN THUYÊN Mã đề 103 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 LẦN II NĂM HỌC: 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề (50 câu trắc nghiệm) MỤC TIÊU - Củng cố kiến thức Ngữ âm (phát âm & trọng âm từ), chủ điểm ngữ pháp bản: Các tiếng Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu tường thuật, Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì, kiến thức từ vựng cấp THPT - Hoàn thiện nâng cao kỹ xử lý dạng tập tiếng Anh: Ngữ âm, Tìm lỗi sai, Ngữ pháp & từ vựng, Đọc điền từ, Đọc hiểu, Tìm câu đồng nghĩa, Từ đồng nghĩa/Trái nghĩa, Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each question Question 1: A worm B worse C work D more Question 2: A coughed B laughed C matched D weighed Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 3: The objective is to promote the role of inhabitants and communities in the development of a modern architecture imbued national identity A against B for C by D with Question 4: I must warn you I am not used to _ so rudely A speak B be spoken C speak to me D being spoken to Question 5: these two sources is considered green energy because they produce a lot of pollution when they are burned A Both of B Because of C On account of D Neither of Question 6: Some people feel a strong to keep their cultural identities A urge B wish C craving D pressure Question 7: The lawyer rarely wears anything other than jeans and a T-shirt _ the season A whatever B whenever C wherever D however Question 8: Patients were from the hospital because the beds were needed by other people A liberated B discharged C released D freed Question 9: Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we what is proper or improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture A express B signal C evaluate D calculate Question 10: I was rather embarrassed when John gave me such a(n) gift A affluent B extravagant C rich D well- off Question 11: The party was I had expected A a hundred times funnier than B more a hundred times funny than C a hundred times more funny than D a hundred times funny more than Question 12: I can't give you the report I for today because I 260 A promised - didn't finish B have promised - haven't finished C have promised - didn't finish D promise - don't finish Question 13: There is no doubt that this volume is _for those interested in the syntax of free word order A significance B of greatly significance C of great significance D in great significant Question 14: Al’s under the to decide by the end of the month whether to move his company A horse B gun C tree D table Question 15: There is a possibility that Jack will be late, , I will take his place A so if B unless C if D if so Question 16: It is desirable that the plane as light as possible A was B is C were D be Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 17: Turmeric can help in boosting immune system and fight off free radical attacks in the system A destroying B enhancing C weakening D stopping Question 18: He said he was only joking, but his comments were so close to the bone A offensive B annoying C personal D respectful Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 19: I think Mr John is on the level because he always tells the truth and never tries to deceive others A honest B dishonest C talented D intelligent Question 20: Television also interferes with family life and communication A conflicts B comes C chats D goes Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions South Pole explorer Ernest Shackleton never reached his goal of crossing Antarctica, but the circumstances that prevented him from reaching that goal pushed him to achieve an even more amazing feat In January 1915 Shackelton’s ship Endurance became trapped in the ice of Antarctica He and his crew of twenty-seven lived on the ship trapped in the ice floes for nine months, until they had to abandon the ship when the ice crushed it The day the ship sank, Shackleton wrote his new goal: “The task is to reach land with all members of the expedition.” The group camped on the ice floes for six months, until the ice broke up and they took small lifeboats to nearby uninhabited Elephant Island During their time on the ship, ice, and island, Shackleton’s group endured temperatures as low as twenty degrees below zero and had no daylight from May to July They had to hunt scarce seals and penguins for food, and were hunted themselves by killer whales and sea leopards, which would rise through the ice in search of prey Throughout this time, Shackleton demonstrated his leadership by rationing food, rotating use of warmer sleeping bags, and keeping a calm, positive attitude that helped morale He also showed great courage as he and five of his men crossed eight hundred miles of dangerous ocean to the nearest inhabited island to seek help Despite no maps and terrible weather, Shackeleton’s small boat reached the island where Shackleton and an even smaller group crossed unexplored, jagged mountains to reach a whaling station He organized a rescue party to retrieve the rest of his crew, and despite the perils of living in south polar waters for almost two years, all twenty-seven men came back from the expedition Shackleton never crossed the South Pole, but he completed the task of bringing back all of his crew alive Question 21: Shackleton and his men had to abandon the Endurance when A ice crushed the ship 261 B they ran out of food and had to leave to hunt for more C killer whales attacked the ship D the ship ran aground on Elephant Island Question 22: When did the expedition crew leave the Endurance? A In January 1915 B In October 1915 C In July 1915 D In January 1917 Question 23: What does the word “themselves” refer to? A scarce seals and penguins B Shackleton and his crew C preys D killer whales and sea leopards Question 24: What is the author’s tone in the passage? A doubtful B admiring C sentimental D critical Question 25: What is the best title of the passage? A Shackleton’s Amazing Feat B A Great Attempt to Cross Antarctica C Shackleton’s Life in Antarctica D A Successful Expedition Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions Free-standing sculpture that is molded or carved is a type familiar to almost everyone Although certain free-standing figures or groups of figures can have only a single side intended for viewing, others are completed on all sides As with all other forms of art, the ultimate shape of a sculpture reflects the artist’s vision of individuals or experiences represented by the work Throughout history, people everywhere have discovered a need for sculpture as a record of events and feelings Materials which can be sculptured much to contribute to the artist’s imagination Wood, stone, metal, and various types of plastic and synthetics are all used as sculpting media When sculptures are made of stone, wood, ivory, or even ice, the sculptor carves or chips the substance to reduce it to the necessary shape Developing a sculptured image on all sides represents a change from the older approach when artists left the back portion of the figure unfinished and rough In fact, sculpture in relief is completely attached to the flat background material and appears to be a part of it Relief, which is completed only on one side intended for viewing, was the first type of sculpture created by man, when ancient sculptors removed the background material in a side of a tree or a cave to make their drawing appear more realistic While creating a statue, the artist depends on the appropriate lighting to develop the figure because the quality of the final product relies on the interplay between light and shade When the work is finished, the sculpture must be displayed in the same light as it was originally created If a light from a source is too weak or too strong, the effect that the sculptor intended may be lost For example, in painting, the light and shade give the image shape and solidity that cannot be altered by an external light in which it is displayed When a sculpture is exhibited, the artist’s work is brought to life by light, and its character can be altered by the control of the light source A fundamental difference between a painting and a sculpture is that when viewing a painting, the audience can only see the point of view that the painter had intended A free standing sculpture can be seen from practically any angle The job of the sculptor is then to attain the quality and the volume of the image from any possible point of view In addition to carving a work, sculptures can be cast In the process of casting, a sculpture can be reproduced in a mold when a liquefied medium is poured into shape After the material from which the sculpture is made hardens, the mold is removed, and the work is cleaned of the excess and polished Casting allows the artists to produce as many replicas as needed Most commercially sold sculptures are made in this way Casting metals requires special care and skill Bronze is the preferred metal because of its versatility and malleability To make bronze sculpture, the space in a mold is filled with wax until it is melted by the heated metal This process, sometimes called lost-wax, was favored by Benvenuto Cellini and was common among the artists in ancient China 262 Question 26: What is the main topic of this passage? A Differences between painting and sculpture B Sculpting techniques and media C Types of commercially produced sculptures D Reasons for enjoying sculpture Question 27: The word “ultimate” is closest in meaning to A ulterior B final C formal D formidable Question 28: According to the passage, the purpose of sculpture as a form of art is to A Display a group of figures B Reflect a human need for freedom C Express an artistic vision D Commemorate individuals and events Question 29: According to the passage, all the following are true of sculpture EXCEPT that A it can be found in all parts of the world B it has undergone change since the early times C it can be created from many substances D it is no longer useful for people Question 30: The author of the passage implies that the most important factor in showing a sculpted work is A the effect of light on the sculpted image B the development of the sculpted figure C the shape of the material for sculpting D the strength of the light source Question 31: What does the author mention as an important difference between a painting and a sculpture? A A painting does not need shading to be displayed B A painting can be viewed from only one position C A sculpture needs to have proper light D A sculpture does not look good from all angles Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sculpturing medium? A Wax B Ivory C Stone D Ice Question 33: The word “replicas” is closest in meaning to A replacements B molds C reproductions D monuments Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 34: My little son had been in Paris for days last summer A little B had been C for D summer Question 35: The owners of modern manufacturing plants had workers doing heavy and repetitive tasks replacing by robots A manufacturing plants B doing C repetitive D replacing Question 36: Entomologists, scientists who study insects, are often concerned with the fungus, poisonous, or virus carried by a particular insect A scientists B study C poisonous D carried Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 37: My sister thinks the film is too frightening I am not scared at all A My sister thinks the film is too frightening because I am not scared at all B My sister thinks the film is too frightening so I am not scared at all C My sister thinks the film is too frightening, whereas I am not scared at all D My sister thinks the film is too frightening although I am not scared at all Question 38: He was so angry with his boss He quitted his job immediately A Angry with his boss, he quitted his job immediately B He quitted his job immediately, angry with his boss 263 C Angry with his boss he is, he quitted his job immediately D He was so angry with his boss although quitting his job immediately Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks in the following question Urbanisation can bring (39) _ a lot of benefits It can offer people from rural areas not only opportunities for better-paid jobs, but also access to schools, hospitals and other social services As a result, people's overall standard of living can improve People in rural areas tend to be more conservative and follow old-fashioned practices like child marriage and gender discrimination The process of urbanisation can actually (40) _ their mindset and help them to accept more progressive ideas However, there are also some obvious disadvantages High rates of urbanisation can contribute to more crime in big cities (41) _many people benefit, not all get the opportunity of a good and stable job Unemployed, people are more likely to engage in robbery, kidnapping, murder and other illegal activities Another problem caused by urbanisation is the shortage of affordable housing in big cities, (42) can result in growth of slums with no sanitation or drinking water In addition, urbanisation leads to the shift of the working population from agriculture to industries Labour shortages in rural areas are likely to result in a decrease in agricultural and food production as well To sum up urbanisation can bring social and health benefits; however, it also has its own drawbacks I've only discussed some of them If you have any questions or comments, please (43) _ free to raise them and I'll try my best to answer them Question 39: A in B about C with D over Question 40: A have B take C invent D change Question 41: A But B Despite C Although D Because Question 42: A which B that C what D who Question 43: A go B feel C walk D know Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word with the main stress different from that of the other three words in each question Question 44: A agree B prepare C borrow D await Question 45: A cinema B similar C expertise D recipe Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 46: Jenny: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought to us!” - Peter: “ ” A Welcome! It's very nice of you B All right Do you know how much it costs? C Not at all, don't mention it D Actually speaking, I myself don't like it Question 47: Jenny: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.” - Peter: “ I enjoyed it." A Just in case B You are welcome C Not in the least D At all costs Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 48: Preserving cultural identities in international world is a matter of great dispute A It is a great dispute as cultural identities should be preserved in international B No matter how great dispute is cultural identities should be preserved in international C That the dispute of preserving cultural identities in international world is a great matter D The fact that cultural identities should be preserved in international world is a matter of great dispute Question 49: People often mistakenly think that children can learn to speak only one language well A Children are often believed to be able to speak only one language well and it's true B It is often believed that children cannot learn to speak several languages 264 C It is not true that children can learn to speak only one language well D It is normal to believe that children can learn to speak only one language well Question 50: I was not in the mood for taking part in a chatting forum A I didn't want to join in a chatting forum B I was not in a good mood then to chat to you C Having a serious conversation made me moody D I was in a bad mood because of taking part in a chatting forum THE END ĐÁP ÁN 1-D 2-D 3-D 4-D 5-D 6-A 7-A 8-B 9-C 10-B 11-A 12-B 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-D 17-C 18-D 19-A 20-A 21-A 22-B 23-B 24-B 25-A 26-B 27-B 28-C 29-D 30-A 31-B 32-A 33-C 34-B 35-D 36-C 37-C 38-A 39-B 40-D 41-C 42-A 43-B 44-C 45-C 46-C 47-C 48-D 49-C 50-A 265 ... 41-C 42- D 43-B 44-D 45- A 46-A 47-B 48-A 49-C 50-A 29 SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN -Mã đề 21 5 KỲ THI KSCL CÁC MÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN - NĂM HỌC 20 20 -20 21 Môn thi: Tiếng. .. VĨNH PHÚC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN NĂM HỌC 20 20 -20 21 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ tên: ……………………………………………………………... 42- A 43-B 44-A 45- A 46-B 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-C 39 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA TRƯỜNG THPT BỈM SƠN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN NĂM HỌC 20 20 -20 21 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
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