Tài liệu Gmat official guide 10th edition part 14 pptx

326 achievements. These achievements, which the second paragraph states occurred primarily after the Crimean War, apparently did not influence Summers’ interpretation of Nightingale’s importance. Given the author’s favorable assessment of Nightingale’s reputation, it is likely that the author would agree that Summers’ interpretation ignores this important evidence. Choice A is not the correct answer. Although, in lines 40-42, the author concedes that Summers may be correct in her assessment of Nighingale’s wartime achievements, nothing is said in the passage about Summers’ discussion, if any, of Nightingale’s postwar influence or activities. Choice B is also incorrect. In lines 33-35, the author cites the editors’ collection of Nightingale’s letters as evidence of Nightingale’s “brilliance and creativity.” In addition, in light of the author’s statement that Nightingale has earned “an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers” (lines 43-44), there is no reason to think the author would agree that the editors exaggerated Nightingale’s influence on later generations. Choice D is not the correct answer. In the last paragraph of the passage, the author refers to Nightingale’s letters as evidence of her “brilliance and creativity” (lines 33-35), and as the basis for a conlusion that Nightingale has earned “an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers” (lines 43-44). It is therefore highly unlikely that the author believes that the editors of these letters have “mistakenly propagated” outdated notions or impeded a balanced assessment of Nightingale’s role. Choice E is also incorrect. In the last paragraph of the passage, the author states that “the evidence of Nightingale’s letters supports continued respect for Nightingale’ brilliance and creativity.” Summers, on the other hand, seeks in her book to “debunk” Nightingale’s “heroic reputation” (lines 3-5). Rather than supporting Summers’ conclusions about Nightingale, the evidence of Nightingale’s letters contradicts them. 78. The best answer is A. In the last paragraph of the passage, the author presents two examples of Nightingale’s “brilliance and creativity.” In the first of these, the author compares Nightingale to “a modern educator” for counseling a village schoolmaster to encourage children’s powers of observation. The fact that the author believes that this is evidence of Nightingale’s creativity suggests that it was unusual at that time to emphasize developing children’s ability to observe. Choice B is not the correct answer. Nightingale’s efforts to improve conditions in British military barracks are not cited as evidence of her creativity, nor is it suggested that Nightingale’s counseling a village schoolmaster, not enlisting schoolmasters’ help (lines 35-36); moreover, nothing in the passage suggests that educators had failed to enlist such help prior to the incident the author describes. Choice D is incorrect: although the author cites Nightingale’s contributions to the care of the needy (lines 37-40), the passage does not suggest that no organized help for the needy existed before Nightingale began her work. And choice E is incorrect, because although Nightingale’s cost-accounting system is presented in the passage as having made a lasting contribution to the British Army’s medical services, the passage never suggests that before Nightingale the Army lacked a cost-accounting system. 79. This question asks you to identify the author’s primary concern in the last paragraph of the passage. The best answer is D. In the last paragraph, the author cites examples of Nightingale’s achievements to support the author’s conclusion that Nightingale’s achievements to support the 327 author’s conclusion that Nightingale is worthy of respect and has earned “an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers” (lines 43-44). Choice A is incorrect. The third paragraph does not summarize the arguments presented in the first two paragraphs. Choice B is also not the correct answer: in the third paragraph, the author expresses essential agreement with the positive view of Nighingale’s career described in the second paragraph. Choice C is incorrect because in the last paragraph the author does not analyze the weakness of any evidence cited elsewhere in the passage. And choice E is not the correct answer because the author does not correct any factual errors in the two works under review. 80. This question asks you to identify the primary focus of the passage. The best answer is B. The author describes the new theoretical model in the first paragraph; in the final paragraph the author states that the data obtained from actual observations, which are discussed in the second and third paragraphs, is consistent with the new theoretical model. Choice A is not correct; the computer model confirmed the astronomers’ hypothesis that meteor streams broaden with time, and although the model yielded an unexpected result, the passage does not contrast the predictions yielded by competing theories. Choice C and D are not correct because the passage makes no reference to further areas for research, and only a single phenomenon is described in the passage. And choice E is not correct because it reverses the order of events. The model yielded a prediction that was subsequently confirmed by observational data, the model was not constructed to explain the data. 81. This question asks you to identify an accurate statement about meteor streams. Choice C, the best answer, restates information about the composition of meteor streams from the first sentence of the passage. Choice A is not correct. The passage discusses the influence of planetary gravitation on meteor streams but says nothing about its influence on the orbits of comets. According to the passage, it is planetary gravitation, not the gravitational fields of comets, that causes meteor streams to increase in size, so choice B is not correct. And choice D and E are not correct answers because the passage says nothing about the composition of comets or the role that meteor streams play in their further disintegration. 82. This question asks what the author says about the purpose of the research described in the first paragraph. The best answer is D. According to the author, the purpose of the computer-modeling experiment was to test the hypothesis that meteor streams broaden with time. Choice A is not correct; although the observational data described in the last paragraph allowed scientists to estimate the age of the Geminid stream, this data was analyzed to confirm a surprising prediction made by the computer model. This analysis was not part of the original experiment. Choice B is also incorrect. Although the experiment yielded a surprising prediction about a particular feature of meteor streams, the purpose of the experiment was to determine whether meteor streams broaden with time, not to identify the various structural features of meteor streams. Choice C is not correct because the experiment was undertaken to test a general hypothesis about meteor streams. It was not undertaken to explore the nature of any particular meteor stream, and 328 the passage never suggests that the actual meteor streams used in the computer model was “particularly interesting.” Choice E is not correct. Although the computer model did confirm the astronomers’ hypothesis, the purpose of the experiment was not to show that such models are useful. 83. This question asks you to make an inference about what would most probably be observed during the Earth’s passage through a meteor stream if the conventional theories mentioned in the passage were correct. According to line 18-20, the conventional theories predicted that the meteor stream would be most dense at the center. The computer model, one the other hand, predicted that a meteor stream would come to resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe (lines 21-22). The passage states that, if the computer model were correct, two peak periods of meteor activity would be observed as the Earth passed through the walls of the “pipe” (lines 28-31). According to lines 36-38, observational data confirmed the prediction of the computer model. If, on the other hand, the conventional theories were correct, it can be inferred that a bifurcation of meteor activity would not be observed; instead, it can be inferred that scientists would expect to observe a single peak of meteor activity as the Earth passed through the dense center of the stream. Choice A identifies this single peak of activity as the most likely observation if the conventional theories were correct. Choice B and D are not correct because they describe meteor activity that is either steady or erratic, neither of which is consistent with the conventional theories. Choice C describes meteor activity more in line with the bifurcation predicted by the computer model, rather than the single peak of activity that the conventional theories would suggest. Choice E is incorrect because the passage says that meteor showers occur whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream; it cannot be inferred that either theory would predict otherwise. 84. This question asks for the reason given in the passage for a characteristic feature of meteor streams. According to lines 1-7, the dust particles in a meteor stream eventually surround a comet’s original orbit because of the different velocities at which they are ejected, as stated in choice A, the best answer. Choice B is directly contradicted by information in the passage (lines 8-10). The other answer choices re incorrect because the passage does not say that the dust particles become part of the meteor stream at different times, or that their velocity slows over time, or that their ejection velocity is slower than that of the comet. 85. This question asks you to identify a prediction that can be derived from both the conventional theories about meteor streams and the new computer-derived model. You must base your answer on information that is suggested by, but not expressly stated in, the passage. According to lines 7-8 of the passage, the conventional theories hypothesized that meteor streams should broaden with time, and the computer simulation confirmed this hypothesis. The passage also suggests that the time it takes for the Earth to cross a meteor stream (and, by implication, the duration of the resulting meteor shower) is directly related to the breadth of the stream (lines 23-28). From these pieces of information, which are supported by both the conventional theories 329 and the new computer-derived theory, it can be inferred that on average the meteor showers caused by older (and therefore broader) meteor streams would be longer in duration than those caused by very young (and therefore narrower) meteor streams, as stated in D, the best answer. Choice A is incorrect because it contradicts the predictions of both the conventional theories (that the particles will be most dense at the center of the stream) and the computer model (that the stream will resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe). Choice C is also incorrect because it is inconsistent with the conventional theories that suggested the distribution of dust in a meteor stream is denser at the center. And choices B and E are incorrect because the theories discussed in the passage do not suggest anything about the likelihood that the Earth’s orbit will cross that of any particular meteor stream, nor do they suggest anything about the size of the dust particles that compose meteor streams. 86. This question asks you to draw an inference from information in the last paragraph of the passage. The best answer is C. According to the passage, the Geminid meteor shower occurs yearly; because meteor showers occur whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream, one can infer that the Earth crosses the Geminid stream once every year. Choice A is incorrect because the passage provides no information from which to generalize about the age of meteor streams. Choice B, which is directly contradicted by lines 31-32, is also incorrect. Choice D is incorrect. In lines 25-28, the passage says that the Earth would take just over a day to cross the stream if the stream were 5,000 years old. However, in lines 38-42 the passage states that in fact an average of only 19 houses elapsed between the time that the Earth entered the stream until the time that it exited, leading researchers to conclude that the stream is only about 3,000 years old. Choice E is incorrect because the passage says only that planetary gravitational fields perturb the orbits of dust particles in a meteor stream; it does not say that the effect of the Earth’s gravitation is greater than that of other planets. 87. This question asks you to identify an assumption underlying the last sentence of the passage. In this sentence, the author of the passage draws a conclusion about the age of the Geminid stream. This conclusion is based on two pieces of information. The first is the length of time the Earth would take to cross the computer-model Geminid stream if the stream were 5,000 years old (lines 24-28). The second is the actual elapsed time between the two peaks of meteor activity predicted by the computer model (lines 36-40). In concluding from this information that the Geminid stream is actually only 3,000 years old, the author is assuming the accuracy of the computer model, as stated in E, the best answer. Choice A is incorrect because the passage says that the time the Earth takes to cross the stream would vary from year to year (lines 32-34) and that 19 hours was the average time, not the exact time, observed from 1970 to 1979 (lines 36-40). Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not suggest anything about the current state of the comet associated with the Geminid stream or about the expected longevity of the stream. Choices D is incorrect because the computer model is said to confirm the broadening predicted by the conventional theories; the fact that the model projected the positions of the particles in the stream over a 5,000-year period does not suggest that researchers expected the stream to be older (and therefore broader) than it turned out to be. 88. 330 This question asks you to determine the main task that the passage is designed to accomplish. The best answer is B. The passage identifies a problem (shareholder’ and manager’ failure to enhance companies’ long-term productivity) in the first paragraph, most pointedly in the last sentence of that paragraph. In the second paragraph, the author recommends certain actions as a means of solving that problem. Choice A is not correct. The author of the passage identifies a problem in the first paragraph, but the author does not compare two different approaches to that problem. Rather, in the second paragraph, the author proposes a single, unified approach to solving the problem. Choice C is incorrect. The author does not defend an established method of institutional shareholding in the United States and recommends a different method in the second paragraph. Choice D is also incorrect. The author describes a situation in the first paragraph but does not provide data or draw any conclusions from data. Choice E is not the correct answer. The author does not compare alternative analyses of the current situation discussed in the passage. 89. This question asks you to decide what the passage implies, rather than states directly, about majority shareholders in a corporation. The best answer is C. According to lines 4-8 of the passage, those individual capitalists who were once majority shareholders in a corporation would not be able to make a quick profit by selling a large amount of stock because such a sale would depress the stock’s value. It can be inferred from the passage that this would be true of any majority shareholders. Choice A is not the correct answer. The passage suggests, in lines 11-13, that majority shareholders can actively influence a company’s decision-making, but it does not suggest that this influence is equal to the absolute authority suggested by the language of this answer choice. The passage also does not discuss the “operational management decisions” of corporations. Choice B is not correct. The passage does not specify what percent of a corporation’s stock any one shareholder is allowed to own. Choice D is not the correct answer. The author does not imply that majority shareholders are more interested in profits than in productivity. In fact, the author argues the opposite, stating that majority shareholders such as the old-style capitalists concentrated more on long-term productivity than on quick profits. Choice E is also incorrect. In lines 30-33, the author proposes that shareholders of more than 20 percent of a company’s stock should be required to give advance public notice before a stock sale, but the passage does not suggest that majority shareholders are currently required to do so. 90. This question asks you to identify the stated purpose of the author’s suggestion in lines 30-33, namely, that any institution holding 20 percent or more of a corporation’s stock be required to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell that stock. The best answer is C. The purpose of the requirement that institutions holding 20 percent or more of a company’s stock be required to give advance public notice of the sale of that stock is stated in lines 38-42: to prevent insititutions from “trading shares at the propitious moment” and to encourage them to concentrate on increasing a company’s productivity. Choice A is incorrect. The suggested requirement that an institution give advance notice of its intent to sell a significant amount of stock tends to discourage institutional stockholders from selling stock they believe will decrease in value since, according to the passage, such an announcement would cause the stock’s value to plummet (lines 33-36). Choice B is also incorrect. 331 In lines 28-30, the author argues that insititutional stockholders should be “encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest.” The advance notice requirement discussed in lines 30-33 is proposed by the author as a means of fostering, not discouraging, institutional stockholders’ participation in the operation of the companies they invest in. Choice D is not the correct answer. The passage does not discuss ownership of company stock by that company’s employees. Choice E is also incorrect. The passage states only that institutions should be allowed to acquire “a dominant shareholding position in a corporation,” but it does not discuss whether investors should diversity their stock holdings by investing in different companies. 91. To answer this question, you must use information contained in the passage to infer something about the “old-style capitalist” referred to in line 23. The best answer is B. According to lines 1-7 of the passage, the individual capitalists of the past, referred to later in the passage as “old-style” capitalists (line 23), could not “sell out for a quick profit” because to do so would depress the value of their stocks. From this statement it can be inferred that someone who typifies the “old-style capitalist” would be unlikely to engage in short-term stock trading. Choice A is incorrect. A comparison between the old-style capitalists and their modern counterparts is made in lines 36-38, but the passage does not express an opinion about whether or not the management techniques used by these capitalists are outdated. Choice C is not the correct answer. The passage does not discuss the investment policies of the corporations in which financial institutions invest. Choice D is also incorrect. According to the passage (lines 1-2; line 23), the old-style capitalists were individual investors, not large institutions. While the passage stats that large institutions are affected by anti-trust legislation (lines 8-12), it says nothing about whether this legislation affects individual investors. In addition, the passage does not mention anything about how great a role individual investors now play in the stock market. Choice E is also incorrect. The passage states that the old-style capitalists focused on long-term productivity (lines 5-8), and hence not on short-term profitability. 92. This question asks you to infer, from information stated in the passage, what the author assumes about the companies once controlled by individual capitalists. The best answer is B. In liens 5-8, the author asserts that individual capitalists “had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies.” Then, in lines 20-21, the author identifies improved long-term profitability as a consequence of improved long-term productivity. From this it can be inferred that the author assumes that if the businesses controlled by individual capitalists had improved long-term productivity, they would also have become more profitable. Choice A is not correct. The author does not make any direct comparison between the profitability of past and present corporations. Choice C is not the correct answer. The first sentence of the passage states that most large corporations were once dominated by individual capitalists who owned large portions of the companies’ stock, but the passage does not specify whether many or few people owned the remainder of each company’s stock. Choice D is incorrect. In lines 4-6, the passage states that the individual capitalists who once dominated large corporations “could not sell out for a quick profits,” but the passage does not indicate whether or not the other shareholders of 332 these corporations were involved in short-term trading of their stock. Choice E is not correct. The passage does not suggest that intuitions owned no stock in most large corporations, only that individual capitalist owned enough stock to dominate these corporations. 93. This question asks you to infer, from information stated in the passage, a way in which the role of large institutions as stockholders differs from that of the “old-style capitalist.” The best answer is B. According to the passage, the old-style capitalists were able to play a dominant role in the corporations in which they held stock because they owned enough stock to do so (lines 1-4). The passage also states that large institutions are legally barred from owning a majority of a company’s stock (lines 8-12). From this it can be inferred that large institutions, because their ability to own stock is limited, do not play as dominant a role in the corporations of which they are stockholders as did the old-style capitalists. Choice A is not correct. The passage does not indicate whether large institutions invest in mny companies, few companies, or even just a single company. Choice C is not the correct answer. The passage does not mention brokers or any other parties who might influence the investment choices made by large institutions. Choice D is incorrect. In lines 33-36 of the passage, the author notes that an institution’ sale of a large amount of stock would, in fact, decrease the stock’s value. Choice E is not the correct answer. The passage does not suggest any reason why large institutions are attracted to the stock of any particular corporations. 94. This question asks you to determine the main purpose served by the second paragraph of the passage in the context of the passage as a whole. The best answer is E. The second paragraph is devoted to the author’s recommendations of certain actions, namely, the adoption of new regulations concerning the holding and selling of stock by institutional investors. Choice A is not the correct answer. The author of the passage identifies a problem-short-term trading done by institutional shareholders-but does so in the first paragraph, not in the second. Choice B is incorrect. In the second paragraph, the author recommends new regulations regarding shareholding by institutions. Although in lines 38-42 the author mentions some consequences of the suggested regulations, the author clearly views these consequences as desirable. Choice C is not correct. The second paragraph contains suggestions about new ways to regulate shareholding by institutions. Although the author asserts that certain effects would result from the proposed regulations, these effects are not explained. Choice D is not correct. The second paragraph proposes measures to solve the problem presented in the first paragraph, but it simply describes, rather than evaluate, these proposed solutions. 95. The best answer is D. In the first paragraph, the author outlines a business strategy, “developing integrated approaches for successful mass production and distribution.” The rest of the passage discusses the rivalry between Beta and VHS producers for control of the global VCR market, an illustration of the use of this strategy by VHS producers. The author briefly evaluates the two competing technologies and traces the impact of each on the market, but neither of these is the 333 passage’s primary concern, so A and B are incorrect. Choices C and E are incorrect because no events are reinterpreted in the passage and no new approaches to business planning are proposed. 96. The best answer is E. Lines 4-8 of the passage set up a contrast with “traditional” ways to benefit from marketing a product by stating that marketplace success based on leadership in “mass production and distribution” is characteristic of today’s companies, not those of the past. Choices B and D are incorrect because they describe ways in which companies have achieved success in the past. Choices A and C are incorrect: they present ways of earning profits that are not discussed in the passage. 97. The best answer is D. Lines 23-25 of the passage state that the “perception among consumers that prerecorded tapes were more available in VHS format further expanded VHS’s share of the market.” None of the information given in the passage suggests that consumers thought the VHS-format was technically better (A) or less expensive than Beta (B). Nor does the passage indicate that consumers believed that VHS-format VCR’s were the first on the market (C) or that VHS-format VCR’s would eventually drive Beta VCR’s out of production entirely (E). 98. The best answer is D. VHS producers formed “strategic alliances with other producers and distributors” (lines 10-13) that helped manufacture and market their product, whereas Beta manufacturers “were reluctant to form such alliances and eventually lost ground” (lines 15-16). Choice A is incorrect because it describes the strategy used by Beta producers. Choice B is incorrect because, although VHS producers held an early lead in sales, they did not give up their advantage. Choice C is also incorrect: the passage states that VHS manufacturers took advantage of “strategic alignments with producers of prerecorded tapes” (lines 21-22), but no mention is made of a strict VHS monopoly on such tapes. Choice E incorrect because the passage does not suggest that VHS producers sacrificed technological superiority over Beta-format VCR’s. 99. The best answer is C. The alliances formed by VHS producers with videotape manufacturers created partnerships between companies whose products were mutually interdependent. Choice C, an alignment with the producer of a complementary product that is necessary for the original product to function correctly, offers the closest analogy. An alignment between manufacturers of competing products (A) is not analogous, nor is an alignment with a parts manufacturer (B). Choice D and E describe alignments with companies that distribute and market the product and are similar to some of the strategic alliances formed by VHS producers, but not to their alignment with videotape producers. 100. The best answer is A. In the first paragraph, the author presents a general observation about contemporary business; the rest of the passage narrates a specific series of recent events concerning two companies in particular. The story of these companies serves as an example that illustrates the observation being made in the first paragraph of the passage. Choices B, C and E can be eliminated because the author does not advance an argument. Although the passage does advance an argument, the author does not anticipate that the conclusions being drawn will be 334 disputed, so choice D is also incorrect. 101. The best answer is D. According to the passage, the electrorecepors in the snouts of spiny anteaters responds to extremely weak electrical fields. In lines 7-11, the author of the passage contrasts these electroreceptors with tactile receptors, stating that it takes field strengths “about 1,000 times greater than those known to excite electroreceptors” to excite the tactile receptors on an anteater’s snout. The passage does not contrast the two types of receptors with regard to the characteristics mentioned in choices A, B, C, and E. 102. The best answer is C. In the experiment described in the first passage, researchers described the electroreceptors in the anteater’s snout as “clustered” at the tip. Thus, it can be inferred that nervous activity was not recorded across the entire snout, but only in certain areas. Therefore, some areas of the snout, including those containing the tactile receptors, were not stimulated by the weak fields used in the experiment, as choice C suggests. There is no information in the description of the experiment provided in the passage to suggest A, B, D, or E. 103. The best answer is A. Because tactile receptors also respond to electrical stimulation, the researchers’ conclusion that electroreceptors exist is valid only if it can be demonstrated that the nervous activity recorded in the anteater’s brain did not originate in the tactile receptors. There is no indication in the passage that tactile receptors function like electroreceptors (B) or that tactile receptors assist electroreceptors (D). There is no information in the passage to suggest that the presence of tactile receptors complicated research on electroreceptors, so C is not correct. Choice E is not correct because the information in lines 7-11 is presented in addition to information about the experiment and not as a criticism or to point out an omission. 104. The best answer is C. Lines 14-17 state that anteaters were “successfully trained” by researchers “to distinguish between two troughs of water,” only one of which had an electrical field. Choices A, B, D, and E can be eliminated because they present hypotheses about anteater behavior that were not tested in the experiment and are not discussed in the passage. 105. The best answer is E. The last sentence in the passage implies that the researchers believed that the anteaters’ locating of their unseen prey was too prompt and too deliberate to be accidental. Choice A is incorrect: researchers were unable to confirm that the anteaters’ favorite prey, termites, emitted electrical signals, and the observation of anteaters locating ants’ nesting chambers “suggests” (lines 25), rather than proves conclusively, that anteaters use their electroreceptors to find prey. Choice B is incorrect because here is no indication in the passage that researchers believed that the anteaters’ behavior was atypical. Choice E is incorrect because, according to lines 24-27, the researchers believed that the anteaters “were using their electroreceptors to locate the nesting chambers”. Choice D is contradicted by the passage: in line 13, the anteater’s sensory system is described as “sophisticated”. 106. The best answer is B. The researchers’ hypothesis is “that anteaters use electroreceptors to detect electrical signals given off by prey.” Evidence that electrical signals emanate from the nesting 335 chamber of an ant colony-on which anteaters are known to prey-would strengthen the hypothesis. Choice C may actually weaken the hypothesis: the passage implies that the rapidity with which anteaters were able to locate ants’ nesting chambers suggested to researchers that anteaters were using electroreceptors to locate prey. Choice A, D, and E provide evidence that does not strengthen the hypothesis. 107. The best answer is C. According to lines 8-10 of the passage, Randolph’s efforts to obtain recognition for the Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters, a goal achieved in 1935, “helped transform the attitude of Black workers toward unions.” Lines 14-15 state that prior to 1935 that attitude was one of skepticism. Therefore, the passage indicates that the workers’ skepticism was diminished as a result of Randolph’s work. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not indicate that the attitude among Black workers in other industries toward unions remained unchanged by 1935. Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not state that the actions of the Pullman Company’s union made Black workers more skeptical of unions by 1935. No information is given in the passage to support either D or E. 108. The best answer is D. In lines 14-16, the author of the passage describes the skepticism of Black workers toward unions, “which had historically barred Black workers from membership,” as “understandable,” thus conveying an appreciation that the attitude of Black workers had a legitimate basis. Choices A and B can be eliminated because they concern Randolph and the Brotherhood rather than the attitude of the workers mentioned in line 14. Choice C is incorrect because the author expresses no ambivalence about the significance of unions to Black workers. Choice E is incorrect because the word “understandable” is used in the passage to describe the attitude of the Black workers rather than the historical attitude of unions toward Black workers. 109. The best answer is B. Lines 16-19 of the passage state that the existence of a Pullman-owned union “weakened support among Black workers for an independent entity” such as Randolp’s Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters. Thus, the passage suggests that some porters did support the Pullman Company union. Lines 16-19 directly contradict A, which implies virtually no support of the Pullman company union. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not suggest anything about Pullman employees other than porters. Choice D is incorrect: in fact, the passage suggests that the porters’ attitude was less positive after Randolph’s union achieved recognition in 1935. Choice E is incorrect because the passage nowhere suggests that the general skepticism of Black workers had no effect on their response to the Pullman Company’s union. 110. The best answer is C. The passage indicated that it was an advantage to Randolph in building the Brotherhood’s membership that Black workers shared “the same grievances from city to city” (lines 32-33), suggesting that it would have been more difficult to build the membership of the Brotherhood if Black workers in different parts of the country had had different grievances. There is no information in the passage to support A, B, D, and E. 111. The best answer is A. Lines 34-38 indicate that in the early 1930’s it became illegal for a company to maintain its own union with company funds. Thus, the passage suggests that prior to the 1930’s [...]... Forged in Battle “use more of a particular kind of source material and relied more closely on a particular aspect of the topic than do previous studies.” Nowhere does the passage compare the reliability of Glatthaar’s work to that of earlier studies, as A and D assert Similarly, C and E can be eliminated because the passage does not assert that previous studies neglected any particular subject, only that... of the other choices describe goal of the author 144 The best answer is E Each paragraph of the passage describes a strategy or program used by local governments in an attempt to stimulate economic development in their locales In each case, an 341 evaluation is made of the strategy or program that is discussed Choices A and D are incorrect because only parts of the passage are concerned with specific... of the passage suggest that individualist feminism was influenced by broader trends in English legal and political tradition Choice B can be eliminated: the passage does not suggest that feminism was part of the Anglo-Saxon tradition Choice C is incorrect: individualist feminism is described in lines 18-26 of the passage as growing, not declining Choice E is incorrect because, although individualist... beyond a focus on leaders There is no information in the passage to support B, C, or E 133 The best answer is B The first paragraph suggests that political activity had been defined in terms of voting, party politics, and office holding, whereas the second paragraph indicates that Baker broadened the definition to include any action influencing government or community issues Thus, 339 the author’s direct... “all stars in the halo should be very nearly the same age” (lines 18-19) The information contained in the other choices is of little or no relevance to any conclusions drawn from the recent observations 140 The best answer is C Bolte claims that one cluster is 2 billion yeas older than most other clusters in the galaxy (lines 22-23) The colleagues claims Palomar 12 is 5 billion years younger than most... another cluster in the galaxy The statement made in A is not implied by the two clams made by Bolte and his colleague, whereas the statements made in B, D, and E are false if the two clams are correct 141 The best answer is D Larson’s theory holds that numbrous gas clouds “drifted about, collided, lost orbital energy, and finally collapsed into a centrally condensed elliptical system” (lines 33-35)... occurred The computer medeling thus provides theoretical support for Larson’s theory Nothing in the passage suggests that Toomre’s computer modeling does any of the things mentioned in the other choices 142 The best answer is B Bolte found that one cluster “is 2 billion years older than most other clusters in the galaxy, while another is 2 billion years younger” (lines 22-24) Thus, he found that at least... it was a colleague of Bolte’s who claimed that a cluster is 5 billion years younger than most The passage does not indicate any finding by Bolte that corresponds to the statements in the other choices 143 The best answer is E To describe a theory as “renegade” is to suggest that it is unconventional However, the author puts the word “renegade” in quotation marks (line 29) when using it to describe theories... issues are not addressed by the author In the first paragraph, the author does give reasons for why firms pursue the strategy, but that is not the purpose of the passage as a whole, so E is also incorrect 114 The best answer is A In lines 7-8, the passage explicitly states that offering unconditional guarantees works best with first time clients, but no mention is made of the relative success of this practice... are discussed, B can be eliminated Choice C is incorrect because no attempt is made in the passage to counter the criticism that are raised against the strategies discussed in the first two paragraphs 145 The best answer is C The final sentence of the first paragraph suggests that, during the 1960’s and 1970’s, a town that attracted a manufacturer thereby achieved a “triumph” (line 9), whereas a town . analysis was not part of the original experiment. Choice B is also incorrect. Although the experiment yielded a surprising prediction about a particular feature. nature of any particular meteor stream, and 328 the passage never suggests that the actual meteor streams used in the computer model was “particularly