Tài liệu Master the Gre 2010 - Part 59 docx

legitimacy to”—and so it is an apt phrase for the first blank. 8. The correct answer is (D). This is an “intrinsic aspect or quality” analogy. COTTON is SOFT to the touch; similarly, an iron is hard to the touch. These are both inherent tactile characteristics. 9. The correct answer is (E). This is a “place or environment for” analogy. FISH are kept in an AQUARIUM, an environment created by humans. Birds are kept in an aviary, also an environment created by humans. Lions live in dens, and insects live in the ground, but these environments are natural—they’re not human- created. An automobile can be kept in a garage, but an automobile has no natural environment. 10. The correct answer is (C). This is a “degree of” analogy. A SPARK is a very small fire, while a CONFLA- GRATION is a very large fire. The relationship is one of degree. Simi- larly, a drizzle is a very light rain, while a downpour is very heavy rain. 11. The correct answer is (E). The words “Just as” provide a clue that Beethoven, like Mozart, was a musical revolutionary. Therefore, to say that he overturned the rules and initiated change makes good sense. 12. The correct answer is (C). In the second paragraph, the author states that one of the effects of New Towns was to draw high-income citizens away from the cities—essentially what choice (C) indicates. 13. The correct answer is (E). According to the first sentence of the passage, New Towns were originally conceptualized as a way to absorb growth. Based on other information in the passage, it appears that New Towns in the United States achieved this objective—at least to some extent—since city residents who could afford to move away from urban centers did so. At the same time, however, the cities were left with new problems, such as an insuf- ficient tax base to support them- selves and to retain businesses. Thus, like a computer program that attempts to solve one software problem but creates another, New Towns were a new innovation that served to solve one problem but created another along the way. 14. The correct answer is (B). To SATIATE is to “fill to capacity.” To deplete entirely is to use up com- pletely. Crave (long for) is related to satiate—a person who has become satiated doesn’t crave anymore. But lack of craving is not part of the defi- nition of satiate. 15. The correct answer is (A). OSSIFIED means “turned to bone, or fossilized”; when wood, for example, becomes fossilized, it hardens as bone. Liquefied means “made or turned to liquid.” 16. The correct answer is (D). REC- TITUDE means “moral virtue or strength.” Choice (D) provides an ideal antonym. 17. The correct answer is (B). The passage mentions exposure to sun- light as one factor determining peak bone mass. Although the passage states that “many of the factors that affect the attainment of peak bone answers practicetest6 Practice Test 6 563 . www.petersons.com mass also affect rates of bone loss,” the passage does not indicate that exposure to sunlight is one such factor. 18. The correct answer is (A). The author lists various factors affecting peak bone mass, then asserts that many of these factors also affect the rate of bone loss. In mentioning preg- nancy and lactation as “additional factors” affecting bone loss, the author implies that these two factors do not affect peak bone mass. 19. The correct answer is (C). A mis- creant is a villain, scoundrel, or criminal. The sentence strongly sug- gests that Catcher in the Rye might provoke (incite) potential miscreants to engage in violent antisocial behavior. 20. The correct answer is (C). This is a “defining characteristic” analogy. An INTERLOPER seeks to MED- DLE (interfere) in the affairs of another. An advocate (ally) will espouse (support or defend) a par- ticular viewpoint or cause. In both cases, the second word describes the inherent objective of the first. 21. The correct answer is (A). This is a “form of” analogy. To AMBLE is to WALK unhurriedly without a prede- termined destination. To tinker is to work aimlessly without a predeter- mined direction. 22. The correct answer is (B). This is a “symptom of” analogy. One sign of PARALYSIS is the lack of SEN- SATION (feeling). Similarly, one sign of dieting is the lack of obesity.Asfor choices (A) and (E), the two words in each pair are antonyms. The same can’t be said for sensation and paralysis. Paralysis is not defined by a lack of sensation, but by lack of ability to move. 23. The correct answer is (E). It is reasonably inferable from the first paragraph as a whole that the “standard repertory” refers to the music of Bach and Telemann as well as to other (“modern”) music from their time (first half of the eigh- teenth century). In the second para- graph, the author mentions that the music of Bach, Telemann, and their contemporaries called for obsolete instruments. Thus, the standard repertory might have included music that called for the use of obsolete instruments, as choice (E) indicates. 24. The correct answer is (D). Although performance practice did indeed involve varying the perfor- mance of a work of music from one time to the next (by including spon- taneous vocal and instrumental ornamentation), the passage neither states nor implies that how the delivery of music varied from time to time depended upon the particular tastes of the audience. Thus, choice (D) is unsupported by the passage. 25. The correct answer is (A). According to the passage, one reason for the encroachment was that some of the oral traditions associated with the Viennese classics (the works of Mozart, Haydn, and Beethoven) could not be traced back to the eigh- teenth century. Choice (A) supports this point by providing specific evi- dence that this was indeed the case. 26. The correct answer is (D). The author’s primary concern in the PART VI: Five Practice Tests564 . www.petersons.com passage is to trace the scope of works included in performance practice from the early twentieth century to the latter half of the century. The author identifies and explains the reasons for the trend of including later works within the scope of so- called “early music” (second and third paragraphs), then refers (in the final paragraph) to a controversy surrounding this trend. Choice (D) reflects the author’s primary concern as well as embracing the controversy. 27. The correct answer is (A). As a whole, the sentence clearly suggests that Martha wishes to emulate her sister in order to accomplish at least what her sister did. To attend a “highly respected” college would obviously require a good academic record, so the first word must essen- tially mean “excellent.” Choices (A), (B), and (D) each provide such a word. The word for the second blank should relate to what’s needed to achieve such a record. Among those three choices, only choice (A) makes sense. 28. The correct answer is (E). To SYNERGIZE is to “coordinate dif- ferent elements toward achieving a common goal.” To sabotage is to “deliberately spoil or damage as to make useless or unproductive.” An act of sabotage may very well be designed to disrupt or spoil an attempt to synergize. Though not a perfect antonym, sabotage is the best of the five choices. 29. The correct answer is (A). This is a “defining characteristic” analogy. A MUNIFICENT person is charac- terized by great GENEROSITY; similarly, a dolorous person is char- acterized by great sorrow. Since luck can be either bad or good, choice (D) is not as strong an analogy as choice (A). 30. The correct answer is (B). It’s fair to characterize bullying as either antisocial, cruel,oraggressive. The word bravado means “pretense,” and feigned means “pretended.” So by pretending to be superior, a bully hides his insecurities. Among the choices, then, choice (B) makes for the most cohesive sentence overall. answers practicetest6 Practice Test 6 565 . www.petersons.com Quantitative Reasoning 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. 16 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. E 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. E 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. E 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 1. The correct answer is (A). There are six possible two-pair combina- tions: (B1-B2), (B1-G1), (B1-G2), (B2-G1), (B2-G2), (G1-G2). Since four of the six combinations involve removing one blue pair and one gray pair, the probability is 4 6 ,or 2 3 . 2. The correct answer is (C). In Quan- tity A, divide by subtracting the de- nominator exponent from the numerator exponent: x x xx 8 2 82 6 == −() . In Quantity B, combine by adding ex- ponents: (x)(x 2 )(x 3 )=x (1+2+3) = x 6 .You can now see that Quantity A equals Quantity B. 3. The correct answer is (B). Let Jennifer’s salary equal 3x, and let Carl’s salary equal 2x. A $200 raise for Carl will bring his salary to 2x + 200. Thus, 3x =2x + 200, and x = 200. Therefore, Jennifer’s current weekly salary is (3)($200) = $600. 4. The correct answer is 16. Divide by 2 four times, as follows: 5 years ago: 256 4 2 = 128 10 years ago: 128 4 2=64 15 years ago: 64 4 2=32 20 years ago: 32 4 2=16 5. The correct answer is (D). The total number of degrees is 360°, and so x + x +2x +(x + 40) = 360. Solve for x: 5 40 360 5 320 64 x x x += = = 6. The correct answer is (B). To make the comparison, apply prime factorization: 99=33 33=33 3 3 11 39=33 13 As you can see, the greatest prime factor of 99 is 11, and the greatest prime factor of 39 is 13. Therefore, Quantity B . Quantity A. 7. The correct answer is (D). The problem does not provide the actual weight of any of the three horses, and so it is impossible to make the comparison. 8. The correct answer is (C). The price of 100 apples (4 bags of 25) is $28 (4 3 $7), the same as the price for 100 pears. In other words, the price of apples is the same as the price of pears. Accordingly, to compare the two quantities you can simply compare the total numbers of fruit pieces. You can see that the totals are the same: 178 + 461. Hence, the two quantities are equal. PART VI: Five Practice Tests566 . www.petersons.com 9. The correct answer is (D). The minimum value of Quantity A is 1 + 2+3=6,inwhichcase qr = 6, and the two quantities are equal. The maximum value of Quantity A is 2 + 3+4=9,inwhichcase qr = 12, and the two quantities are unequal. Therefore, the correct answer is choice (D). 10. The correct answer is (A). For each year, the gray portion of the bar indicates sales of oral injection medi- cation. In 1991, those sales clearly totaled more than $1 million, but in 1992 they totaled no more than $1 million. 11. The correct answer is (E). Since the two areas both equal L 3 W, the master bedroom (the longer room) must have a length of 3 2 L and a width of 2 3 W. Accordingly, the perimeter of the master bedroom = (2) S 3 2 L D +2 S 2 3 W D ,or3L+ 4 3 W. 12. The correct answer is (C). A quick way to divide by 500 is to first divide by 1,000, and then multiply the quo- tient by 2. In this problem, then, divide 40.5 by 1,000 by simply shifting the decimal point 3 places to the left, and then multiply that quo- tient by 2. The calculation is very simple: (.0405)(2) = .0810 13. The correct answer is (B). Quantity A = 30 4 1.5 = 20; Quantity B=(20)(1.5)=30 14. The correct answer is (C). Here’s the sequence up to the 12th second: 0W 1B 2W 3G 4W 5R 6W 7B 8W 9G 10 W 11 R 12 W Every time you reach a time divisible by 6, the sequence starts over with W and proceeds: W-B-W-G-W-R. 204 is divisible by 6; hence, starting at the 204th second, here are the light’s movements through the 209th second: 204 W 205 B 206 W 207 G 208 W 209 R As you can see, the movement from the 208th to the 209th second is from white (W) to red (R). 15. The correct answer is (E). You can express the amount of sugar after you add water as .05(60 + x), where .05=5%and(60+x) represents the total amount of solution after you add the additional water. 16. The correct answer is (B). Multi- plying together any combination of the factors of p will result in a product that is also a factor of p. The only number among the choices listed that is not a product of any of these combinations is 36. 17. The correct answer is (C). Apply the defined operation to the values specified in each column: Quantity A = 21 12 3 3 1 −− −− = − =− () Quantity B = −− −− = − =− 24 42 6 6 1 () 18. The correct answer is (D). You can express y 2 + y 2 6 as the product of binomials (y +3)and(y 2 2). Thus, answers practicetest6 Practice Test 6 567 . www.petersons.com the equation y 2 + y 2 6=0hastwo distinct roots, or y-values: 23 and 2. Since y could have either of two values, the answer is choice (D). 19. The correct answer is (A). Both triangles are right triangles. The tri- angle described in Column A has legs 3 and 4 units long. The triangle described in Column B has legs 3 units long each. Hence, the hypot- enuse and, in turn, the perimeter of the triangle described in Column A must be greater than those of the triangle described in Column B. There’s no need to calculate either hypotenuse or perimeter. 20. The correct answer is (B). Quantity A (ad) is a negative fractional number greater than a and approaching zero (0). Similarly, Quantity B (bc) is a negative frac- tional number greater than b and approaching zero (0). But ad must be less than cd (that is, farther to the left than cd on the number line). Why? If a and b were both multiplied by c (a positive number), the inequality between a and b (a , b) would remain unchanged: ac , bc.It makes sense that if a is multiplied instead by a positive number (d) that is greater than c, then the inequality between a and b not only remains the same but actually increases. In any event, ad , bc. 21. The correct answer is (E). The June usage difference between houses C and A was 1,125 2 960 = 165 kWh. Divide this monthly differ- ence by 30 to find the average per-day difference: 165 4 30 = 5.5 kWh. 22. The correct answer is (D). To cal- culate per-square-foot usage for a house, divide total usage by square-foot area. Estimating the averages (to either above or below the nearest tenth) for each house will suffice to select the houses at which between 0.5 and 0.7 kWh per square-foot area were used during July: House A: 0.7 + House B: 0.7 2 House C: 0.5 + House D: 0.5 + As you can see, houses B, C, and D fall between 0.5 and 0.7 kWh. 23. The correct answer is (C). The interior volume of each house is the product of its square-foot area and its ceiling height (volume = area 3 height). To determine a house’s ceiling height, divide its volume by its square-foot area. For Houses A, B, and D, the quotient (ceiling height) is exactly 8.0 linear feet. For House C, however, the quotient is greater than 8.0 linear feet. 24. The correct answer is (C). To answer the question, assume that AB \ CD. Extend BE to CD, and let F be the point at which these two seg- ments intersect. m∠EFD = m∠ABE = 40°. m∠FED must equal 110° because the three interior angles of DDEF must total 180° in measure. Since ∠BED and ∠FED are supple- mentary (the sum of their measures is 180°), m∠BED = 70° (x = 70). PART VI: Five Practice Tests568 . www.petersons.com 25. The correct answer is (A). The quickest route to the correct answer is to compare corresponding terms. For example, compare 8 17 (in Column A) to 7 16 (in Column B). Notice that 8 17 71 16 1 = + + . When you add the same number to a fraction’s numerator as its denominator, the fraction’s value increases, and so 8 17 . 7 16 . You can analyze the other corresponding fraction pair in the same way. The value of the each fraction in Column A is greater than the value of the corresponding term in Column B. Thus, the sum of the fractions in Column A must be greater than the sum of the fractions in Column B. 26. The correct answer is (D). The longest side may, but need not, pass through the center of the circle. Thus, its length could be either equal to or less than the circle’s diameter. 27. The correct answer is (C). The expression in Column A is a perfect cube, and the expression in Column B is a perfect square: 82 66 3 22 xy xy= and 442 44422 ()xy x y x y== . As you can see, Quantity A equals Quantity B. 28. The correct answer is (D). It is entirely possible that m = n (for example, in the case of 5 bricks weighing 1 pound each). If so, then n m = 1, and Quantity A = Quantity B. However, if the total number of bricks differs from the total pound weight (for example, in the case of 5 bricks weighing 2 pounds each), then n m Þ 1, and Quantity A Þ Quantity B. answers practicetest6 Practice Test 6 569 . www.petersons.com APPENDIXES APPENDIX A: Scoring Your Practice Tests—Quantitative Reasoning and Verbal Reasoning APPENDIX B: Vocabulary List APPENDIX C: Additional Resources for Graduate Admissions and the GRE APPENDIX D: The GRE for Admission to Graduate Business School . D 1. The correct answer is (A). There are six possible two-pair combina- tions: (B1-B2), (B1-G1), (B1-G2), (B2-G1), (B2-G2), (G1-G2). Since four of the. well as to other (“modern”) music from their time (first half of the eigh- teenth century). In the second para- graph, the author mentions that the music