Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 12 to 16.. Working as a novelist is n[r]
(1)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 01
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A interviewer B variety C simplicity D triangular
Question 2: A material B survival C pyramid D official
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A iron B restaurant C parents D celebrate
Question 4: A compose B wholesale C opponent D colony
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness
A B C D
Question 6: Many people are afraid that in the future there will be no space leaving for human beings and
A B C they express the idea of robots replacing human beings
D
Question 7: The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to 15
Fossils are the remains and traces (such as footprints or other marks) of ancient plant and animal life that are more than 10,000 years old They range in size from microscopic structures to dinosaur skeletons and complete bodies of enormous animals Skeletons of extinct species of human are also considered fossils An environment favorable to the growth and later preservation of organisms is required for the occurrence of fossils Two conditions are almost always present: The possession of hard parts, either internal or external, such as bones, teeth, scales, shells, and wood; these parts remain after the rest of the organism has decayed
Organisms that lack hard parts, such as worms and jelly fish, have left a meager geologic record Quick burial of the dead organism, so that protection is afforded against weathering, bacterial action, and scavengers
Nature provides many situations in which the remains of animals and plants are protected against destruction Of these, marine sediment is by far the most important environment for the preservation of fossils, owing to the incredible richness of marine life The beds of former lakes are also prolific sources of fossils The rapidly accumulating sediments in the channels, floodplains, and deltas of streams bury fresh-water organisms, along with land plants and animals that fall into the fresh-water
The beautifully preserved fossil fish from the Green River soil shale of Wyoming in the western United States lived in a vast shallow lake The frigid ground in the far north acts as a remarkable preservative for animal fossils The woolly mammoth, along-haired rhinoceros, and other mammals have been periodically exposed in the tundra of Siberia, the hair and red flesh still frozen in cold storage
Volcanoes often provide environments favorable to fossil preservation Extensive falls of volcanic ash and coarser particles overwhelm and bury all forms of life, from
flying insects to great trees
Caves have preserved the bones of many animals that died in them and were subsequently buried under a blanket of clay or a cover of dripstone Predatory animals and early humans alike sought shelter in caves and brought food to them to the eater, leaving bones that paleontologists have discovered
Question 8: The passage primarily discusses which of the following?
(2)C How fossils are discovered D Conditions favorable to the preservation of fossils Question 9: The word "traces" in line is closest in meaning to
A skeletons B structures C imprints D importance
Question 10: All of the following facts about fossils are refereed to by the author (paragraph 1) EXCEPT
the fact that they can be
A complete animal bodies B microscopically small
C fragile D skeletons of human ancestors
Question 11: The fossil fish from the Green River (paragraph 3) were probably preserved because they were
A covered by sediment B buried slowly C protected by oil D in a deep lake Question 12: The word "exposed" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A located B photographed C uncovered D preserved
Question 13: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found as a fossil, assuming that all are buried rapidly?
A a worm B a dinosaur C a human ancestor D a woolly mammoth
Question 14: It can be inferred that a condition that favors fossilization when volcanic ash falls to Earth is
A high temperature B cold storage C quick burial D lack of water
Question 15: Which of the following is true of the environments in which fossil are found?
A There are few environments in which fossils are protected
B Very different environments can favor fossilization
C Environments that favor fossilization have similar climates
D Environments that favor fossilization support large populations of animals
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 16 to 20
American Indians played a central role in the war known as the American Revolution To them, however, the dispute between the colonists and England was peripheral For American Indians the conflict was a war for American Indian independence, and whichever side they chose they lost it Mary Brant was a powerful influence among the Iroquois She was a Mohawk, the leader of the society of all Iroquois matrons, and the widow of Sir William Johnson, Superintendent of Indian Affairs Her brother, Joseph Brant, is the best-known American Indian warrior of the Revolution, yet she may have exerted even more influenced in the Confederacy than he did She used her influence to keep the western tribes of Iroquois loyal to the English king, George III When the colonists won the war, she and her tribe had to abandon their lands and retreat to Canada On the other side, Nancy Ward held position of authority in the Cherokee ration She had fought as a warrior in the war against the Creeks and as a reward for her heroism was made "Beloved Woman" of the tribe This office made her chief of the women's council and a member of the council of chiefs She was friendly with the White settlers and supported the Patriots during the Revolution Yet the Cherokees too lost their land
Question 16: What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A Siding with the English in the Revolution helped American Indians regain their land
B Regardless of whom they supported in the Revolution, American Indians lost their land
C The outcome of the Revolution was largely determined by American Indian women
D At the time of the Revolution, the Superintendent of Indian Affairs had little power
Question 17: According to the passage, Mary Brant's husband had been a
A Mohawk chief B government official C Cherokee council member D revolutionary hero
Question 18: To which tribe did Nancy Ward belong?
A Mohawk B Iroquois C Creek D Cherokee
Question 19: How did Nancy Ward gain her position of authority?
A By being born into a powerful family B By joining the Confederacy
C By bravery in battle D By marriage to a chief
(3)A Each influenced her tribe’s role in the American Revolution
B Each went to England after the American Revolution
C Each lost a brother in the American Revolution
D Each was called "Beloved Woman" by her tribe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 21: Scientists know him well However, very few ordinary people have heard of him
A He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public
B Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists
C Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public
D Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name
Question 22: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule
A Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight
B Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule
C Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule
D Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 23 to 27
Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting (23) _ fun And every year, more and more people start a stamp collection on their own and discover an interest which can last a (24) _ Starting your collection is easy because stamps can be found everywhere Holiday postcards from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (25) _ you with stamps from all over the world But once you have started collecting (26) _, you will probably want to join the Stamp Collectors’ Club (27) _ exists to provide collectors with new British stamps
Question 23: A and B also C but D or
Question 24: A life buoy B lifetime C life insurance D lifelong
Question 25: A consider B give C provide D take
Question 26: A attractively B seriously C competitively D greatly
Question 27: A what B when C which D where
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 28: Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? - Salesgirl: _
A Can I help you? B Which one? This one? C It’s much cheaper D Sorry, it’s out of stock
Question 29: - Mike: Good morning Could I speak to Mr Brown, please? - Carter:
A Propably by Monday next week B I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first
C Certainly Would two o’clock be OK? D He’s in a meeting Can I take a message?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 30: In order to enjoy fine wine, one should drink it slowly, a little at a time
A spill it B stir it C smell it D sip it
Question 31: John boasting again I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in the County
A speaking too much B pulling my leg
C holding his tongue D blowing his own trumpet
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 32: He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head
A lost touch B excited
(4)Question 33: Perhaps the customer has overlooked his monthly statement and not paid the bill
A perused B confused C received D neglected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 34: bought that second-hand car and he then recognized that he shouldn’t have done that
A Jack wished he did not buy that second-hand car
B Jack wished he had not bought that second-hand car
C Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car
D Jack regretted not buying that second-hand car
Question 35:“John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,” said Janet
A Janet objected to John’s bad behavior B Janet was angry with John
C Janet dislikes John D Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior
Question 36: My goal was to train myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future
A Self-training to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future is my desire
B I aimed at training myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future
C I train myself as much as possible with the aim of preparing for the future
D I try to attain the goal of learning as much as possible to prepare for the future
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 37: The discovery of penicillin was a significant medical _
A innovation B revolution C breakthrough D novelty
Question 38: Little _ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me
A do I know B I knew C I have known D did I know
Question 39: Please don't _ it amiss if I make a few suggestions for improvement
A judge B take C assume D think
Question 40: I must confess I was myself with rage
A outside B beside C beyond D above
Question 41: Different cultures _ dreams in different ways
A express B interpret C associate D interfere
Question 42: Can I _ your brain for a moment? I can’t this crossword by myself
A have B use C pick D mind
Question 43: Our family is a _ from which we can go into the world with confidence
A basis B basal C basic D base
Question 44: Natural gas often occurs petroleum in the minute pores of rocks such as sandstone and limestone
A both together with B both together C both with D with
Question 45: It is the greatest happiness on earth
A to love and to be loved B love and be loved C loving and to be loved D to love and being loved
Question 46: The authorities recommend that the meeting next Wednesday
A be held B is held C will be held D held
Question 47: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is _, someone who
refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society
A abnormalities B abnormally C abnormal D abnormality
Question 48: _, his television would not be so loud
A Had Rafael being studied B Were Rafael studying
C If Rafael studies D Unless Rafael was studying
Question 49: If you need any support, you can rely on me to _
A set you down B back you up C face up to you D put you through
Question 50: Life is a diary _ each line contains a story of experience
(5)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 02
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A behave B academic C examination D grade
Question 2: A introduces B practices C wishes D leaves
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A technology B achievement C economics D dependent
Question 4: A humidity B incredible C necessary D endangered
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering
A B C
Department were eligible for admission
D
Question 6: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what
A B C
stopped the flood from reaching his house
D
Question 7: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the
A B C D
hereditary nature of many diseases
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 8: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth
A direct B facial C available D instant
Question 9: With so many daily design resources, how you stay up-date with technology without spending
too much time on it?
A connect to the Internet all day B update new status
C use social network daily D get latest information
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 10: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly
A knowledgeable B ignorant C rude D uneducated
Question 11: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas and the result is the growth of cities
A transposition B maintenance C movement D variation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 12 to 16
Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist Although a few well-known ones, like Harry Potter author J K Rowling, have become very (12) , most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book sales Novels take a long time to write and authors can get into financial
(13) if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job But for those (14) to
write novels, it is without doubt one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (15) , meaning they put all their time and effort into their work They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them For this, a good sense of humor often helps Or the thought that may be their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (16) !
Question 12: A worth B plenty C wealthy D valuable
Question 13: A problem B trouble C worry D upset
Question 14: A fixed B convinced C agreed D determined
(6)Question 16: A best-seller B attraction C blockbuster D victory
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 17 to 24
Did you know that humans aren't the only species that use language? Bees communicate by dancing Whales talk to each other by singing And some apes talk to humans by using American Sign Language
Meet Koko, a female gorilla born at the San Francisco Zoo on July 4th, 1971 Koko learned sign language
from her trainer, Dr Penny Patterson Patterson began teaching sign language to Koko in 1972, when Koko was one year old Koko must have been a good student, because two years later she moved onto the Stanford University campus with Dr Patterson Koko continued to learn on the campus until 1976 That's when she began living full-time with Patterson's group, the Gorilla Foundation Patterson and Koko's relationship has blossomed ever since
Dr Patterson says that Koko has mastered sign language She says that Koko knows over 1,000 words, and that Koko makes up new words For example, Koko didn't know the sign for ring, so she signed the words finger and bracelet Dr Patterson thinks that this shows meaningful and constructive use of language
Not everyone agrees with Dr Patterson Some argue that apes like Koko not understand the meaning of what they are doing Skeptics say that these apes are just performing complex tricks For example, if Koko points to an apple and signs red or apple, Dr Patterson will give her an apple They argue that Koko does not really know what the sign apple means She only knows that that if she makes the right motion, one which Dr Patterson has shown her, then she gets an apple The debate is unresolved, but one thing is for certain: Koko is an extraordinary ape
Sign language isn't the only unusual thing about Koko She's also been a pet-owner In 1983, at the age of 12, researchers said that Koko asked for a cat for Christmas They gave Koko a stuffed cat Koko was not happy She did not play with it, and she continued to sign sad So for her birthday in 1984, they let her pick a cat out of an abandoned liter Koko picked a gray cat and named him "All Ball." Dr Patterson said that Koko loved and nurtured All Ball as though he were a baby gorilla Sadly, All Ball got out of Koko's cage and was hit by a car Patterson reported that Koko signed "Bad, sad, bad" and "Frown, cry, frown, sad" when she broke the news to her
It seems like Patterson and Koko have a good relationship, but not everyone agrees with it Some critics believe that Patterson is humanizing the ape They believe that apes should be left in the most natural state possible Even Dr Patterson struggles with these feelings When asked if her findings could be duplicated by another group of scientists, she said, "We don't think that it would be ethical to again." She went on to argue that animals should not be kept in such unnatural circumstances Nonetheless, Koko lives in her foundation today
As for the future, Dr Patterson and the Gorilla Foundation would love to get Koko to an ape preserve in Maui, but they are having trouble securing the land So unless you have a few million dollars to spare, Koko's going to be spending her time in Woodland, California with Dr Patterson Koko probably doesn't mind that If she moved to Hawaii, she'd have to give up her Facebook page and Twitter feed, and she's got like 50 thousand likes Some may deny that she knows sign language, but nobody says that she doesn't know social networking
Question 17: Which best expresses the main idea of this article?
A It is natural for gorillas and house cats to live together
B If you want a lot of "likes" on Facebook, get a talking gorilla
C Koko uses sign language but some people think it's just a trick
D Bees, whales, and apes like Koko all use language to communicate
Question 18: Which best expresses the author's purpose in writing the second paragraph?
A The author is persuading readers that Koko should be freed
B The author is telling readers about Koko and Dr Patterson's background
C The author is informing readers how Dr Patterson developed her skills
D The author is describing the environment in which Koko lives
Question 19: Which happened LAST?
A Dr Patterson began teaching Koko to sign B Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation
C Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas D Koko lost All Ball
Question 20: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?
A Koko doesn't really know sign language B Some people are troubled by how Koko was raised
C Everybody likes how Dr Patterson has raised Koko D Koko has mastered sign language without a doubt
Question 21: Which best defines the word "duplicated" as it is used in the sixth paragraph?
(7)C To be disproven through debate D To lie to someone or to fool them
Question 22: Which event happened FIRST?
A Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation B Koko moved onto the Stanford University campus
C Koko picked All Ball out for her birthday D Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas
Question 23: Which best describes the main idea of the SIXTH paragraph?
A Dr Patterson has treated Koko very cruelly
B Some people are working very hard to prove that Dr Patterson is wrong
C Dr Patterson and Koko have a beautiful, pure, and unconflicted relationship
D Some people think that Koko should not have been treated like a human
Question 24: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?
A Some people think that Koko only signs to get food
B Dr Patterson has no regrets about working with Koko
C The Gorilla Foundation would like to move Koko to an ape preserve
D Dr Patterson has worked hard to teach Koko sign language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 25 to 29
The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World His initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish A second attempt ended in disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587 The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586, but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer Within a short time the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization
Question 25: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
A British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World B Early Attempts at Colonizing North America
C The Regulation of Trading Companies D Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century
Question 26: The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in
establishing colonies in North America?
A They were acting on their own B They were members of large trading companies
C They were immediately successful D They were requested to so by Queen Elizabeth
Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true?
A He fought the Spanish twice B His trading company was given a patent by the queen
C He died in 1587 D He never settled in North America
Question 28: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first Roanoke settlement?
A Most were not experienced sailors B They named the area "Virginia"
C Some did not survive D They explored the entire coastal region
Question 29: According to the passage, which of; the following statements about the second settlement on
Roanoke Island is true?
A It was conquered by the Spanish B Its settlers all gave up and returned to England
C The fate of its inhabitants is unknown D It lasted for several years
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 30: We are aware that, _, the situation will get worse
A if dealt not carefully with B if not carefully dealing with
C unless dealing with carefully D if not carefully dealt with
Question 31: - "Can you read that sign?" - "Just a minute Let me my glasses."
A put away B put off C put on D put with
Question 32: Because the waiter didn’t what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of
the chicken wings that I’d wanted
A stay up B call on C check in D take down
Question 33: It is thought that traditional marriage are important basis of limiting divorce rates
A records B responses C appearances D values
Question 34: She agreed that all the present paperwork for everyone to have more time to socialize
(8)Question 35: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made _ accident
A by B at C in D on
Question 36: The world famous physicist and _ Stephen Hawking published an important paper
before he died at the age of 76
A cosmonaut B cosmology C cosmologist D cosmologic
Question 37: _ did not surprise us
A That Peter failed his exam B Peter failed his exam that
C Peter failed his exam, that D Peter failed his exam
Question 38: Why don't you have the documents _?
A to photocopy B photocopied C photocopying D photocopy
Question 39: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers
A touch B connection C contact D link
Question 40: Italian TV has a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary
A ordered B consulted C commissioned D appointed
Question 41: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one the most
A that influences B why farmers influence it C it influences farmers D farmers that is influences
Question 42: It is not easy to _ our beauty when we get older and older
A maintain B develop C gain D collect
Question 43: The government was finally by a minor scandal
A pulled down B taken down C put back D brought down
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 44: - Ann: Do you need any help? - Kate: _
A No, thanks I can manage B That’s fine by me
C I haven’t got a clue D That’s all for now
Question 45: - "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - " _."
A I feel a little under the weather B I feel a little under the impression
C I feel a little out of the blue D I feel a little out of order
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: Despite her inexperience in the field, Lynn applied for the job
A Lynn applied for the job even though she had no experience in the field
B Lynn was unable to the job because she was inexperienced
C Lynn applied for the job because she had experience in the field
D Lynn did not apply for the job because of her inexperience in the field
Question 47: Without his help, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay
A Had he helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay
B If he hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay
C He didn’t help me, so I hadn’t been able to complete my essay
D He hadn’t helped me, but I could complete my essay
Question 48: "Believe me It's no use buying that machine," Jimmy told his friend
A Jimmy suggested to his friend that buying the machine was useful
B Jimmy tried to convince his friend that the machine was not worth buying
C Jimmy opposed his friend's idea that buying the machine was not useful
D Jimmy managed to persuade his friend that buying the machine was worthwhile
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Sheila worked on a project together with Keith She got married to him afterwards
A Sheila worked on a project with Keith, whom she had married earlier
B Sheila got married to Keith before they worked on a project together
C Sheila and Keith were married, so they began to work on the project together
D Sheila got married to Keith, with whom she had worked on a project together
Question 50: What the teacher told me has given me food for thought
A The teacher told me about the food that was good for me
B The teacher told me something that was too difficult for me to
C I didn't care much about what the teacher told me
(9)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 03
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A decoration B opportunity C expectation D temperature
Question 2: A digest B describe C swallow D advice
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A necessity B economy C society D facility
Question 4: A schedule B picture C match D children
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 5: He asked the salesman for his refund for the laptop he had bought
A pay back B charge C repay D return
Question 6: Despite all my anxiety, I got hired for the job I wanted
A was offered B was offering C was dismissed from D took
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 7: Our new house is modern but there is not enough room to swing a cat
A there's no space for children B there's no playground for cats
C it's very small D there's no room to keep cats
Question 8: We played my brother's school at football and beat them hollow
A had a draw B lost the game C defeated easily D broke a nil score
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 9: - Trang: "I live in Vietnam." - Thomas: " _”
A About where? B Whereabouts? C What is it about? D How about in Hanoi?
Question 10: - Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter My car has broken down on the way here - Peter: _
A Well, it’s worth a try B No, I wouldn’t mind at all
C That’s all right D Not on my account
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 11: Lake Superior, _, borders on the United States and Canada
A in the world is the largest lake B is largest lake in the world
C it is the largest lake in the world D which is the largest lake in the world
Question 12: I must confess that I was myself with rage
A outside B beside C above D beyond
Question 13: I can't make the presentation myself, I've asked my assistant to be prepared to it for me
A For B In the event that C Only if D On the other hand
Question 14: - "What was the groom wearing?" - "He was dressed in a ."
A light summer suit B suit summer light C summer suit light D light suit summer
Question 15: Just put your coat in
A the hall's closet B hall closet C the hall closet D the closet of the hall
Question 16: Please go to to pick up your ID card
A window third B the third window C the window three D third window
Question 17: The dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face
A stylistic B stylistically C stylish D stylishly
Question 18: The thief managed to the police barricade
(10)Question 19: _ excellent art museums, Moscow has a world-famous ballet company
A Because of B In spite of C In case of D In addition to
Question 20: The teacher is going to _ the children according to height
A group B collect C flock D gather
Question 21: Lightning currents to the interior of an airplane
A penetrate in rarity B penetrate seldom C seldom penetrate D rare penetrate
Question 22: You your seats today if you want to go to the game
A had better to reserve B had better reserve C had to better reserve D had to reserve better
Question 23: Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among
his most famous, the Nobel prize in 1982
A who won B having won C which won D won
Question 24: When he went to Egypt, he knew _ no Arabic, but within months he had become
extremely fluent
A scarcely B virtually C entirely D barely
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 25: The bones of the elderly are more prone to fractures than of young people
A B C D
Question 26: Folklore consists of the beliefs, customs, traditions, and telling stories that people pass from
A B C
generation to generation
D
Question 27: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 28 to 32
The final stage before adulthood is adolescence This is a period of transition for teenagers and there are many crucial milestones Socially and emotionally, teens worry that they may not be developing at the same rate (28) _ their peers They become extremely self-conscious and may be sensitive about their appearance Teens may rebel (29) _ their parents but are also more able to accept the consequences of their actions
This is also a period of enormous physical changes and adolescents experience changes in their physical development at a rate unparalleled since infancy These changes include significant gains in height and weight Within a year, boys and girls can gain an (30) _ of 4.1 inches and 3.5 inches repectively This growth spurt typically years earlier for girls than for boys and can tend to make both sexes go through a clumsy phase (31) _ their cognitive development, adolescents have greater reasoning skills and have developed the ability to think logically and hypothetically They are also able to discuss more abstract concepts They should also have (32) _ strategies to help them study
Question 28: A like B just C along D as
Question 29: A against B to C for D with
Question 30: A amount B addition C average D increase
Question 31: A In terms of B In addition to C In spite of D Regardless of
Question 32: A developed B grown C achieved D advanced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 33 to 37
As viewed from space, the Earth's distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white clouds Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the only one in our solar system known to harbor life Circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million km (93 million miles) The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the solar system
(11)processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after it was formed The Earth has a single natural satellite - the Moon
Question 33: Approximately how much of the Earth's atmosphere isnitrogen?
A Over three-fourths B Over one-half C Over one-fourth D All of it
Question 34: Which of the following helps to create Earth's magnetic fields?
A Its nitrogen atmosphere B Its blue waters C The Moon D Its molten metal core
Question 35: What two factors help protect the Earth from radiation?
A Magnetic field and atmosphere B Blue waters and white clouds
C Rapid spin and molten iron-nickel core D The Sun and the Moon
Question 36: The main idea of this passage is that _
A Earth has no common characteristics with other planets B Earth is predominantly watered
C Earth is the only planet with a moon D there are life-supporting characteristics on Earth
Question 37: This selection leads one to believe that
A Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future B Earth always gets hit by meteors
C Earth never gets hit by meteors D Earth was hit by meteors in some past time period
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 38: The way to get the best out of me is to make me work very hard
A My work is under consideration, so I my best B If you make me work hard, I can't get the best
C I work best when I am under pressure D Don't make me work hard or I can't make the best out of me
Question 39: I found myself at a loss to understand my closest friend’s words
A I found my closest friend's words quite incomprehensible
B I understood my closest friend's words completely
C I found my closest friend's words easy to understand
D I lost heart and didn't understand my closest friend's words
Question 40: Peter had very little money but managed to make both ends meet
A Peter found it hard to live on very little money B Peter could hardly live on little money
C Peter got by on very little money D Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 41: It was raining cats and dogs outside I wanted to climb the mountain this morning but I couldn’t
A I couldn’t carry out my mountain climbing because there were many cats and dogs falling out the sky
B I found it rather hard to climb the mountain despite a heavy downpour outside
C The heavy rain made it posssible for me to continue going climbing this morning
D It was the heavy rain that prevented me from climbing the mountain today
Question 42: The most successful candidates are not always the best educated They are the best trained in the
technique
A The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique
B The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique
C The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education
D The most successful candidates are people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 43 to 50
Imagine that you're a fly You're just zipping around the sky, looking for a place to rest, when you see nice pink leaf That looks like a nice place to land You think to yourself in your fly head As you rest your feet on the leaf, you notice something strange This leaf is hairy You begin to make your move, but you trigger the plant's reflex Snap! In one-tenth of a second, you are caught in the Venus flytrap You will be digested in five to twelve days Welcome to the world of carnivorous plants!
(12)The snap of the Venus flytrap is not the only way that plants eat bugs Pitcher plants trick their prey into landing on them They offer nectar bribes to the foolish insects that would take them True to their name, pitcher plants have deep chambers Their landing surface is slippery They have inward pointing hairs, making it hard to escape The fly lands on the pitcher plant to eat, but slips into a pit filled with digestive fluids and is eaten
Then there're sundews We call them sundews because they sparkle in the sun as if covered in morning dew Of course, that sparkle is from something much more treacherous It is a sweet goo called mucilage that bugs can't resist Sundews create mucilage to attract bugs As they fly in to eat, bugs become trapped in the very object of their desire They soon exhaust themselves by trying to escape the mucilage Or the sundew's tentacles, which respond to prey by curling around them, smother them Bugs usually die in about 15 minutes Then the plant dissolves its prey in enzymes and absorbs the nutrients
Have you ever walked into trouble and found that you couldn't get out? So has every insect that has ever wandered into a corkscrew plant Bugs love to investigate plants for nectar and food
Corkscrew plants have inviting stems Curved hairs line the inside of these stems These hairs allow insects to go up the stems, but not back Going forward leads a chamber filled with digestive fluid, the plant's stomach Bugs who wander into the corkscrew plant find that they are unable to escape They must march to their own demise
And then there are the bladderworts They're about as nice as they sound They live in water and float near the surface Their traps are like small bladders hidden beneath the water Only their flowers are visible from the surface When bugs swim into the trigger hairs, the plant reacts A trapdoor in the bladder opens up The bladder sucks up the prey and the water surrounding it A tenth of a second later, the bladder shuts again The plant has trapped the prey It releases digestive fluids The prey will be digested within hours
Carnivorous plants might sound tough, but they are difficult to keep at home They are built to survive in places that other plants cannot This specialization comes at a cost They have a hard time adapting to other environments Their strengths become weaknesses in rich soil They depend on the harsh yet delicate environments in which they thrive They are not so hardy after all Still, there's something to be said about the power of life when one finds a plant that can survive in barren soil
Question 43: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?
A Only a small number of plants are carnivorous B There are too few plant species in the world
C There are too many species of carnivorous plants D A majority of plants are carnivorous
Question 44: Which plant traps bugs in its stem and forces them to walk forward?
A Bladderworts B Corkscrew plants C Sundews D Pitcher plants
Question 45: Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A Carnivorous plants get their energy from eating bugs B Carnivorous plants get their nutrients from eating bugs
C Carnivorous plants not get nutrients from the soil D Carnivorous plants get their energy from the sun
Question 46: Which event happens LAST when a sundew eats a meal?
A The bug is attracted to the mucilage B The sundew's tentacles curl in response to the prey
C The sundew releases enzymes D The sundew creates mucilage
Question 47: Which best expresses the main idea of the THIRD paragraph?
A There are more types of carnivorous plants than the Venus fly trap
B The pitcher plant tricks bugs into falling into its stomach
C The Venus flytrap kills its prey in various ways
D Some plants attract bugs by offering them nectar
Question 48: Which best describes the overall text structure of the second paragraph?
A Sequential order B Chronological order C Compare and contrast D Spatial
Question 49: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?
A Carnivorous plants are tough and can live in any environment
B Bladderworts react quickly when their trigger hairs are bumped
C Carnivorous plants cannot thrive in rich soil
D Bladderworts hide their traps just below the surface of the water
Question 50: Which title best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?
(13)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 04
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A handcraft B handbag C handbook D handkerchief
Question 2: A procession B depression C erosion D tension
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A accompany B optimistic C minority D eradicate
Question 4: A renovation B stability C eliminate D accelerate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 5: - Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house - Linda: _
A Nothing more to say B You can say that again C Yes, I hope so D No, dogs are good, too
Question 6: - Lan: How you find Hanoi? - Justin:
A Are you living here? B Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam
C It’s a beautiful city D I got a map from the tourist office
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 7: He hid the gun in his pocket
A concealed B put C hit D covered
Question 8: "She always expresses her deep sympathy towards homeless children.”
A broad B inside C profound D kind
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 9: The economy has shuddered to a halt because of the civil war
A been flying high B lingered to success C gone to the moon D stopped suddenly
Question 10: He firmly believes that she is innocent of the crime
A aware B ignorant C informative D guilty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 11: In some nations coffee in the favourite beverage, while _
A I like tea B in has caffeine C in others it is tea D tea has caffeine too
Question 12: Could you please tell me the for Biology 457 and Chemistry 610?
A room's number B rooms numbers C rooms number D room numbers
Question 13: Friends can help you to _ a difficult time in your life
A get around B get by C get through D get over
Question 14: There is a vase on the table
A small-nice-China-blue B nice-blue-small-China C China-small-blue-nice D nice-small-blue-China
Question 15: They stayed for hours, my mother was very annoyed about
A this B whom C. which D that
Question 16: The ballon festival is event that we all desire to attend it
A a too wonderful B a very wonderful C such wonderful an D so wonderful an
Question 17: Many countries can attract many tourists in summer because their weather is _ warm, often hot
A independently B dependence C dependably D dependently
(14)A. enlargement B expansion C increase D extension
Question 19: After the interview, don’t neglect the thank-you note or letter
A follow-up B break-up C turn-up D start-up
Question 20: unprepared for the exam, I felt sure I would get a low score
A Upon B Having C Being D Because
Question 21: Although born in Germany, a citizen of the United States in 1940
A that Albert Einstein became B but Albert Einstein became
C Albert Einstein became D since became Albert Einstein
Question 22: Bell's doctor insists for a few days
A him to rest B his resting C that he is resting D that he rest
Question 23: Sending _, "special delivery", costs about fifteen times as much as sending it "regular delivery"
A pieces of a mail B a mail C mails D a piece of mail
Question 24: _, meat takes on the flavor of the wood it was smoked in
A When smoking B When is it smoked C When smoked D It's when it's smoked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 25: You could not have made a very good impression on them
A Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable
B It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive
C You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably
D You should have tried harder to make them think well of you
Question 26: Many people lack enough water due to population growth and climate change
A Many people lack enough water; therefore, the population grows, and climate changes
B Owing to many people’s lack of water, the population grows, and climate changes
C Because many people lack enough water, the population grows, and climate changes
D Many people lack enough water not only due to population growth, but also because of climate change
Question 27: My boy was just not strong enough to have caused so much damage
A Someone else, not my boy, caused the damage
B My boy wasn’t strong, but he caused great damage
C My boy, though quite strong, caused little damage himself
D Not much damage was caused because my boy was very weak
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 28 to 35
SOICHIRO HONDA
Soichiro Honda was born in 1906 in a small village in Japan It was so small that it didn’t even have electricity His family was poor Soichiro had eight brothers and sisters Sadly, five of them died when they were young because they did not have good medical care When Soichiro was eight years old, he saw his first automobile He was amazed by it For the next 50 years, he loved machines on wheels When he was 15 years old, Soichiro left his village to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo It was then that Honda discovered motorcycles He spent all of his free time fixing and riding motorcycles He returned to his village six years later to open his own garage Soon he owned several shops and had over 50 employees
At the same time, he began to build and race motorcycles and cars Honda loved to race, and he became one of
Japan’s most competitive drivers In 1936, his race car crashed while he was driving 100 miles per hour Half of
Honda’s face was crushed, and he had other serious injuries It took him a year and a half to recover After this, his family begged him to give up racing He looked for a less dangerous job and finally decided to become a manufacturer
At first, he manufactured engine parts The Japanese navy used a lot of his engine parts in World War II In 1948, after the war, he started the Honda Motor Company He started the company with only $3,300 He made his first machines from engine parts that the military did not need after the war These machines were not real motorcycles; they were bicycles with motors People bought them because they needed a reliable form of
(15)motorcycles were selling all over Japan But there were 50 other motorcycle makers in Japan at the time In 1958, Honda designed a lightweight motorcycle called the Super Cub It was a huge success and Honda made a lot of
money Two years later, Honda built the world’s biggest motorcycle factory in Japan
By the 1960s, the Super Cub was popular all over Asia But Honda wanted the motorcycle to be popular all over the world In Europe, he put his motorcycles in difficult races to show how good they were In the United
States, he tried a different method He used a magazine ad with the words “You Meet the Nicest People on a
Honda.” It showed ordinary Americans such as students, businessmen, and older people all riding happily on the
Honda Super Cub The ad appeared in many popular magazines
Readers who had never ridden a motorcycle saw the ad The ad showed that motorcycles were not just for crazy young people who wore black leather jackets.They were good for other people too The company sold thousands of motorcycles to new riders Honda then started to put the ads on television This was also very successful For example, he put an ad for his motorcycle on during the Academy Awards program Millions of people watched that program, and on the next day, sales of the motorcycle went up tremendously By 1968, Honda had sold million motorcycles in the United States
In 1963, his company started to make cars In 1972, it produced the Civic; the next year, the Accord; and then
in 1978, the Prelude Soon, the company was one of the world’s biggest automobile makers Honda was also
famous for his business style He believed that workers and bosses should have a close relationship He also thought it was important to encourage workers to their best
In 1973, Soichiro Honda retired as president of his company He died in 1991 Honda was very important to Japan’s recent history He and many other business leaders helped make Japan into a leading industrial nation
Question 28: Where did Honda go when he left his village?
A He went to open repair shop B He went to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo
C He went to work as a motor racer D He went to fix and ride motorcycles
Question 29: Honda was very successful because he _
A wasn’t afraid to take chances B had a good education
C owned the only motorcycle maker D put his motorcycles in difficult races
Question 30: Soichiro Honda _
A wasted his time working at an auto repair shop B was poor when hestarted out, but later became a success
C manufactured cars and motorcycles all his life D a mechanic coming from a poor family
Question 31: What was different about the new motorcycle that Honda designed?
A It was the biggest one B It was a cheaper one C It was a lightweight one D It was a bicycle with motor
Question 32: What happened to Honda’s race car in 1936?
A It collapsed B It was crushed C It was injured D It crashed
Question 33: Honda started the Honda Motor Company in
A 1984 B 1948 C 1960 D 1950
Question 34: The word "tremmendously" in paragraph can be best replaced by
A terribly B awfully C slowly D enormously
Question 35: Honda’s business was
A small in the beginning only and then expanded B selling motorcycles to young people
C a huge success from the beginning D a huge success in the United States
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 36 to 40
LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110
The worst prediction for the next century (36) the weather Many people think that global warming will cause important environmental changes There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may disappear if the sea level (37) There is better news regarding health Medical advances mean that people will live longer Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (38) of new technology Infective diseases will disappear in many areas of the world and new drugs will be how to treat muscular aches and pains Futuristic organ transplants will be easier Finally, scientists think they are near to solving the mystery (39) to make people invisible Technological progress will give experts the chance to manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (40) the market before the end of the century
(16)Question 37: A lifts B rises C roars D raises
Question 38: A because B approving C in spite D regardless
Question 39: A necessary B accessible C available D essential
Question 40: A at B on C in D to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 41: My mother is on a business trip However, we have a cooked dinner every evening
A We have a cooked dinner every evening, so my mother is on a business trip
B Although my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening
C When we have a cooked dinner every evening, my mother is on a business trip
D Because my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening
Question 42: Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby I know a lot of people who this
A However collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who this
B Because collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who this
C Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby; therfore, I know a lot of people who this
D Despite collectimg decayed teeth being an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who this
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 43: Can you get everybody altogether for the meeting in ten minutes?
A B C D
Question 44: David was surprised by the amount of time necessary to fix the store house
A B C D
Question 45: They arrived to Paris sometime early in the summer
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 46 to 50
Today, I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up of the earth First, we’ll touch on the
relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer You probably remember that the ozone layer is the protective shield around the earth It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light from the sun Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper atmosphere It is also regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes
The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed Scientists suspect that certain chemicals, such as fluoro-carbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer And how we use fluoro-carbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems The chemical pollution from these fluoro-carbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported There are, however, new studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer We’ll go into that new study more next time
Question 46: Who is the most likely speaker?
A A mechanic B A professor C A chemist D A doctor
Question 47: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer?
A Protecting the earth B Shielding the sun
C Destroying chemicals D Providing fluorocarbons
Question 48: What is the ozone layer made of?
A Oxygen B Fluorocarbons C Ultraviolet light D Shields
Question 49: The speaker’s main topic is _
A fluoro-carbons and the ozone layer B the use of spray cans
C ultraviolet light D air-conditioning systems
Question 50: What will the speaker probably discuss next?
A How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons B Harmful effects of ultraviolet light
(17)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 05
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges, from to Question 1: - Laura: "What a lovely hat you have!" - Maria: " _"
A Thank you It’s a present from my father B No problem It’s a present from my father
C Of course not, it's not costly D I think so It’s costly
Question 2: - Kate: ! - Jackie: Thanks, I will write to you when I come to London
A Have a nice trip B Better luck next time C Let’s go ahead D Have a go
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions, from to
Question 3: A mathematics B engineering C scientific D laboratory
Question 4: A university B technology C entertainment D application
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions, from to
Question 5: A average B indicate C application D grade
Question 6: A each B achieve C chemistry D choice
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions, from to 20
Question 7: He _ to be offered the job
A was such inexperienced or was too inexperienced B was too inexperienced
C was such inexperienced D not experienced
Question 8: _ colleges and _ universities are the main institutions that provide tertiary education
A Ø / the B The / Ø C Ø / Ø D The / the
Question 9: In most _ developed countries, up to 50% of _ population enters higher
education at some time in their lives
A Ø / the B the / a C Ø / Ø D the / Ø
Question 10: How much money you manage to ?
A go in for B deal with C come into D live on
Question 11: We’ve got a very teacher, who doesn’t mind if we are a bit late
A open-minded B tolerated C easy-going D broad-minded
Question 12: Why exactly did war between the two countries ?
A break out B go off C set in D call off
Question 13: He graduated with doctorates of _ and surgery from Florence, gaining the highest honors that year
A medicine B medication C medical D medicate
Question 14: You shouldn't _ to your teacher like that It was very rude
A talked B talk C have talked D have be talked
Question 15: A university is an institution of higher education and research, which grants _ degrees
at all levels in a variety of subjects
A secondary B optional C academic D vocational
Question 16: They didn’t find in a foreign country
A it to live easy B easy to live C it easy to live D it easy live
Question 17: Many scientists have shown can be used for an ever-increasing number of tasks
A that lasers how B that what lasers C lasers how D how lasers
Question 18: We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no for them
(18)Question 19: It is important that _
A an exact record to be kept B to keep an exact record
C keeping an exact record D an exact record should be kept
Question 20: Hardly anyone knows about the incident, ?
A don’t they B doesn’t he C does he D do they
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions, from 21 to 23
Question 21: Peter said if he were me, he would stop smoking
A I wanted Peter to stop smoking and he promised to B Peter promised to stop smoking
C Peter said he would stop smoking as I wanted him to D Peter advised me to stop smoking
Question 22: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years
A Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently
B John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years
C Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently
D Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently
Question 23: If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam
A I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam
B I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam
C I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam
D I studied too hard to pass the final exam
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 24 to 28
America's foods began to affect the rest of the world American emphasis on convenient and rapid consumption is best represented in fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries and soft drinks By the 1960s and 1970s, fast foods became one of America's strongest exports as franchises for Mc Donalds and Burger King spread through Europe and other parts of the world, including Russia and China Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace gave way to quick lunches and dinners eaten on the run as other countries imitated American cultural patterns
By the late 20th century, Americans had become more conscious of their diets, eating more poultry, fish and vegetables, and fewer eggs and less beef Cooks began to rediscover many world cuisines in forms closer to their original In California, chefs combined fresh fruits and vegetables available with ingredients and spices borrowed from immigrant kitchens to create an innovative cooking style that was lighter than traditional French, but more interesting and varied than typical American cuisine Along with the states wines, California cuisine took its place among the acknowledged forms of fine dining
Question 24: Fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks
A became more popular than meals cooked at home in China
B are traditional meals of the US people
C became popular with other European and Asian countries
D are popular because of their nutritious values
Question 25: Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word "cuisine"?
A cook B cooking C cookery D style of cooking
Question 26: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A Fast foods became one of America's strongest exports
B Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace are not common in the US
C Mc Donalds and Burger King are American food suppliers successful in Europe
D America's cuisine used to have an influence on many countries
Question 27: Which of the following statements is true?
A Americans used to eat more poultry, fish, and fresh fruits and vegetables than they now
B Cooking styles of other countries began to affect Americans by the late 20th century
C Fewer eggs and less beef in Americans' diet made them fitter
(19)Question 28: An innovative style of cooking was created in California _
A and made the states wines well-known
B by borrowing recipes from immigrant kitchens
C to attract more immigrants to the state
D by combining the local specialities with immigrants spices
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 29 to 36
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of reform Private schools existed, but only for the very rich There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not "waste" their time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated As Superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school districts around the country He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system
Question 29: The best title for the passage could be _
A Nineteenth - the Century of Reform
B American education in the beginning of the 19 th century
C a flight for change
D The beginnings of reform in American education
Question 30: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed _
A good grades B a strong educational background
C a high level of intelligence D a lot of money
Question 31: The word "desperately" in the passage mostly means " _"
A partly B urgently C obviously D completely
Question 32: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because
A all citizens should be educated in republic
B Massachusetts residents needed something to with their spare time
C people had nothing else to except go to school
D education at the time was so cheap
Question 33: The word "reformers" in the passage mostly means
A people who really enjoy teaching B people who work for the government
C people who try to change things for the better D people who believe that education is wasted Question 34: The word "citizen" in the passage mostly means _
A a person who works ,especially one who does a particular kind of work
B a person who works in a particular country
C a person who lives in a particular city
D a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country
Question 35: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann _
A worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts
B funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans
C managed education in the state of Massachusetts
D raised money for their educational development in Massachusetts
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann instituted?
A The matching of the other districts’ policies B Increased pay for students
(20)Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions, from 37 to 38
Question 37: Every opponent must take a drug test before the race
A friend B ally C partner D competitor
Question 38: The movie was so funny that we couldn’t help laughing
A chuckling B crying C weeping D moaning
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions, from 39 to 40
Question 39: The lawn needs mowing again
A bending B cutting C repairing D making
Question 40: My father is willing to contribute to household chores
A agreeable B reluctant C ready D responsive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions, from 41 to 43
Question 41: Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms A B C D
Question 42: As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States
A B comes from marketing the films abroad
C D
Question 43: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions, from 44 to 45
Question 44: She worked hard She wanted to become a good teacher of English
A She worked so hard that she could become a good teacher of English
B She worked hard so as become a good teacher of English
C She worked so hard as to become a good teacher of English
D She worked hard so that she could become a good teacher of English
Question 45: They asked him about the countries He visited them last month
A They asked him about the countries which he visited last month
B They asked him about the countries where he visited them last month
C They asked him about the countries which he visited them last month
D They asked him about the countries where he visited last month
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 46 to 50
It was Pasteur who (46) the process of immunization When he was experimenting with causes of chicken cholera, he began to inoculate healthy chickens with weak cholera bacteria after inoculation, the chickens became only slightly ill And later, when he inoculated the chickens with normal cholera bacteria, the chickens did not get the (47) Thus Pasteur discovered that the body builds (48) substances called antibodies in the blood These antibodies, which attack harmful bacteria, can be formed by injections of small amounts of the (49) themselves For thousands of years, men had known that certain diseases (50) people only once Now Pasteur had shown what this process of immunization was and how it could be used to control diseases
Question 46: A thought B discovered C controlled D invented
Question 47: A disease B illness C ease D sickness
Question 48: A preservative B productive C protective D active
Question 49: A drugs B medicine C bacteria D water
(21)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 06
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A fifteenth B mouth C southern D author
Question 2: A misses B goes C potatoes D leaves
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A occupation B miraculous C determine D diversity
Question 4: A contact B constant C concern D concert
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: The play lasted two hours with a(n) of 15 minutes between part one and part two
A interval B pause C stop D interruption
Question 6: The public are concerned the increasing crime rates in the city
A with B for C about D at
Question 7: Unless you all of my questions, I can’t anything to help you
A answered B don’t answer C are answering D answer
Question 8: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped _ a programme on TV
A reading to watch B to read to watch C to read for watching D reading for to watch
Question 9: Standing on top of the hill, _
A we can see a castle in the distance B lies a castle in the middle of the island
C people have seen a castle far away D a castle can be seen from the distance
Question 10: When he went to Egypt, he knew no Arabic, but within months he had become extremely fluent
A scarcely B virtually C entirely D barely
Question 11: Make sure you us a visit when you are in town again
A give B have C do D pay
Question 12: The dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face
A stylish B stylishly C stylistic D stylistically
Question 13: Students can _ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures
A absorb B provide C transmit D read
Question 14: are that stock price will go up in the coming months
A Conditions B Opportunities C Possibilities D Chances
Question 15: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _
A 1990’s B the 1990 C the 1990s D 1990s
Question 16: one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and
mime performed to music
A To consider B Considering C Considered D Being considering
Question 17: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; , we were lost
A so that B although C moreover D however
Question 18: He a terrible accident while he along Ben Luc Bridge
A have seen / were walking B see / am walking
C saw / was walking D was seeing / walked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 19: How on earth could they away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?
A keep B destroy C decrease D upgrade
Question 20: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older
workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary
(22)Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 21: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview I’ll just play it by ear
A plan well in advance B be careful about it
C listen to others saying D do not plan beforehand
Question 22: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems
A sympathize B please C satisfy D discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 23: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets
- Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house - Linda: _
A Nothing more to say B You can say that again C Yes, I hope so D No, dogs are good, too
Question 24: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.
- Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter My car has broken down on the way here - Peter: _
A Well, it’s worth a try B No, I wouldn’t mind at all
C Not on my account D That’s all right
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 25 to 29
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25) _ more harm than good In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers Presumably,
most parents (26) _ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to
track their whereabouts We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact In this context, the advantages are clear (27) , we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students There is also (28) evidence that texting has affected literacy skills
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations
Question 25: A done B made C played D brought
Question 26: A what B which C whom D who
Question 27: A Therefore B However C Moreover D So that
Question 28: A doubtless B unhesitating C indisputable D arguable
Question 29: A warning B term C time D notice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 30 to 34
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby In various African nations, they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays When children reach a certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes Some African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world They may have to carry out several tests
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation The first stage lasts about three months The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young warriors At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised At the second
stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting
(23)will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A Activities in a birth celebration B Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby
C Celebrations in Africa D Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa
Question 31: Where people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A near the thorn fence B on the cattle farm C at their house D at the village church
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother
B Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family
C Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world
D Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough
Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A experience B participate in C explore D commence
Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph refer to?
A the cattle owners B the Maasai herds C the young warriors D the wild animals
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 35 to 42
What picture you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment to technology First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared Instead, people will choose a program from a "menu" and a computer will send the program directly to the television Today, we can use the World Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away By 2050, music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems In many places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export This uses a lot of water Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages Some futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be any accidents Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are By 2050, the computer will control the car and drive it to your destination On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around the world in two hours Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories Many factories already use robots Big companies prefer robots - they not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases Today, there are electronic devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf people see and hear again Scientists have discovered how to control genes They have already produced clones of animals By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they behave and how much intelligence they have
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses _
A The effect of telecommunication on our future life B The changes in our future life compared with our life today
C The importance of cloning in the future D The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives
Question 36: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting
B TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business
C The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices
D Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today
Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _
A Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean
(24)C No one will be injured or die because of accidents
D Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport
Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph refers to _
A the cash crop planting B the serious shortage C the possible war D the demand for water
Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3?
A concerned B outraged C explanatory D emotional
Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5?
A To show the importance of robots in production B To compare the robots with the workers
C To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots D To encourage the workers to resign from work
Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A diagnosed B controlled C transmitted D caused
Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again
B Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times
C Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are
D Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 43: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing
A B C D
Question 44: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together
A B C D
Question 45: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen
A The living room is bigger than the kitchen B The kitchen is not bigger than the living room
C The kitchen is smaller than the living room D The kitchen is bigger than the living room
Question 47:“Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter
A Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company
B Peter suggested that John should complain to the company
C Peter advised John complaining to the company
D Peter suggested John to complain to the company
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now
A It mustn’t have been Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now
B It couldn’t be Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now
C It can’t have been Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now
D It mightn’t be Mr Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café She now regrets it
A Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café
B If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café
C Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café
D Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café
Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions
A Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions
B Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions
C The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis
(25)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 07
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A facilities B particular C inhabitant D governmental
Question 2: A measurement B information C engineer D economic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A thereupon B thrill C through D throne
Question 4: A advanced B orphaned C weighed D surprised
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from to
Very often, newborn babies are not beautiful They are wrinkled or bald, or they have an angry expression on their faces that seems to say, "Go away! I hate everybody" But (5) a parent, that bald, wrinkled, mean-faced baby is the most beautiful and perfect child in the world When that proud father or mother asks you, "Well, what you think isn't she beautiful?" What are you going to say? Is this the time for the truth? Of course not!
"You look that proud father in his eyes and say," Yes, she is! She's a (6) beauty She's one in a million She's going to be a movie star! I can tell! She's as pretty as a fairy
This is what we call in English a white lie White lies don't hurt people; they aren't cruel or angry words People use them to make a difficult situation (7) easier When people (8) dates, forget their homework, or taste something new that they don't particularly
Like while eating at a friend's house, they tell a white lie They are trying to be kind They don't want to hurt someone's feelings It is important to be honest But many people feel that being kind and (9) is sometimes more important
Question 5: A with B to C as for D for
Question 6: A true B genuine C real D exact
Question 7: A a little B little C far D more
Question 8: A disregard B reject C refuse D deny
Question 9: A considering B considerate C considered D considerable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 10 to 17
What's fiercer than a lion but smaller than a beagle? The honey badger, one of the toughest mammals in Africa and western Asia Honey badgers stand less than a foot high They are only a couple feet long They weigh just over 20 pounds Yet they have a reputation for toughness that is far greater than their size Some honey badgers will chase away lions and take their kills I guess that goes to show you that size isn't the only thing that matters in a fight
So what makes the honey badger so tough? They have speed, stamina, and agility, but so many animals They aren't stronger than lions, so how they stop them? The thing that sets the honey badger apart is their skin Their skin is thick and tough Arrows, spears, and bites from other animals can rarely pierce it Small bullets can't even penetrate it Not only is their skin thick and tough, it is also loose This allows them to twist and turn to attack while another animal is gripping them The only safe grip one can get on a honey badger is on the back of their necks
Honey badgers have long, sharp claws These claws are good for attacking and even better for digging Honey badgers are some of nature's most skilled diggers They can dig a nine-foot tunnel into hard ground in about 10 minutes They love to catch a meal by digging up the burrows of frogs, rodents, and cobras They also use their digging skills to create their homes They live in small chambers in the ground and defend them fiercely They will attack horses, cows, and even water buffalo if they are foolish enough to poke around a honey badger's den
You don't get a reputation like the honey badger by running from danger The honey badger is fearless and a tireless fighter They will attack any creature that threatens them, man included Because of the honey badger's reputation, most predators avoid them Some animals use the honey badger's rep to their advantage Adult cheetahs have spotted coats, but their kittens have silver manes and look like honey badgers Some scientists believe that their coloring tricks predators into avoiding them Wouldn't you walk the other way if you saw a honey badger?
(26)them So honey badgers love to raid beehives I can't blame them Who doesn't like free honey? Honey badgers chase after honey aggressively So much so that beekeepers in Africa have to use electric fencing to hold them back There's nothing sweet about that
Beekeepers aren't the only people who have grown to hate honey badgers Honey badgers may be fun to read about, but they are nasty neighbors They attack chickens, livestock, and some say children, though they usually leave people alone But if a honey badger moves in your backyard, there's not a whole lot that you can about it I mean, are you going to go and tangle with an animal that eats the bones of its prey? An animal with teeth strong enough to crunch through turtle shells? An animal that never tires, gives up, or backs down? Yeah, I wouldn't either
Question 10: Which best expresses the main idea of the third paragraph?
A Honey badgers will defend their homes to the death against any animal
B Honey badgers have sharp claws that they use for fighting
C Honey badgers use their claws to defend their homes
D Honey badgers digging skills assist them in many ways
Question 11: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?
A Honey badgers got their name from the sweet taste of their meat
B Honey badgers are large in size and tireless in fighting spirit
C What makes honey badgers so tough is their thick, loose skin
D What makes the honey badger so tough is their speed and strength
Question 12: Which best defines the meaning of the word "burrows" as it is used in the third paragraph?
A Lily pads or other seaweeds in which animals hide B A water supply where small animals come to drink
C Holes or tunnels in which animals live D A nest or animal dwelling in a tree or bush
Question 13: Which best expresses the main idea of the last paragraph?
A Honey badgers are a nuisance to the neighborhood.B Beekeepers and honey badgers not get along well
C Honey badgers have very strong jaws and teeth D Honey badgers eat chicken and livestock
Question 14: Which best describes one of the author's main purposes in writing this text?
A To persuade readers to join the efforts to protect honey badgers
B To describe how honey badgers select their partners
C To compare and contrast honey badgers with beagles and lions
D To explain why honey badgers are so tough
Question 15: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?
A Honey badgers are not afraid to fight with humans
B Honey badgers like to raid beehives to eat honey
C Honey badgers disguise their young to look like cheetah kittens
D Honey badgers are not the biggest animals, but they may be the toughest
Question 16: Which animal is the honey badger afraid to attack?
A Water buffalo B Lion C Poisonous snake D None of these
Question 17: Which is NOT one of the honey badger's strengths?
A Powerful jaws and strong teeth B Thick skin
C Tireless fighting spirit D Poisonous claws
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 18: In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to
_ this in their treatment of the patients
A put up with B make up for C go in for D set in for
Question 19: It is necessary that he _ of his old parents
A takes care B to take care C take care D took care
Question 20: What a stupid thing to Can you imagine anyone _ so stupid?
A that B being C to be D who
Question 21: Learning English isn't so difficult once you
A get on it B get down to it C get off it D get
Question 22: People usually can get sufficient _ of the calcium their bodies need from the food they consume
A number B variety C source D amount
Question 23: He showed his _ for the TV program by switching it off
A discontent B boredom C distaste D annoyance
Question 24: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as _
A productive B unproductive C productivity D counterproductive
Question 25: You dropped it down the stairs? You're lucky it is still in one _!
(27)Question 26: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one the most
A that influences farmers B it influences farmers C farmers that is influences D why farmers influence it
Question 27: The fumes were so thick that he was for breath
A suffocating B inhaling C gasping D wheezing
Question 28: The chairman requested that _
A the problem was more carefully studied B with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C the members studied more carefully the problem D the members study the problem more carefully
Question 29: Prices of flats _ from a few thousand to millions of dollars
A vary B change C fluctuate D differ
Question 30: John _ knowledge from many of his life experiences to his work
A accomplished B applied C appreciated D approved
Question 31: Kelly wanted to have a live band at her wedding
A play B been playing C played D to be played
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 32: - John: How about giving me a hand? - Tom:
A You're welcome B Sure, I'd be glad to help C No, not yet D I promise
Question 33: - Liz: What you think about the new project? - Jennifer: _
A Alright Do you know how much it costs? B Actually speaking, I myself don't like it
C Welcome! It's very nice of you D Not at all Don't mention it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: In that organization, they put emphasis on mutual aid and cooperation
A reward B pressure C work D stress
Question 35: His new million-dollar luxury car is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth
A expensive B large C admirable D showy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 36: Nothing could efface the people's memory of their former leader's cruelty although any years had elapsed
A broaden B erase C maintain D prove
Question 37: The spy used a fictitious name while dealing with the enemy
A authentic B foreign C false D funny
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 38: For fear of waking up the family, Trung tiptoed upstairs
A Trung tiptoed upstairs so as not to wake up the family
B The family feared when Trung tiptoed upstairs
C Trung tiptoed upstairs because he didn’t want to wake up the family
D Trung tiptoed upstairs lest the family should be woken up
Question 39:The student next to me kept chewing gum That bothered me a lot
A The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot
B The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot
C The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot
D The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothered me a lot
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 40: A number of large insurance companies has their headquarters in the capital city
A B C D
Question 41: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressing and creating a
A B C D
good impression on your interviewer
Question 42: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to
A B C
alter their eating habits
(28)Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 43 to 47
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders The most abundant particles sand, silt and clay are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls To measure soil texture, the sand, silt and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination Although sieves work well for silt, sand and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed
Question 43: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph reflect _
A the way the soil is extracted B the results of squeezing the soil
C the difficulty of forming different shapes D the need to check more than one handful
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it
A does not have a classifiable texture B is not very heavy
C does not have a durable shape D may not hold its shape when molded
Question 45: The word “they” in the passage refers to _
A sieves B clay particles C larger particles D categories
Question 46: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they _
A stick to the sides of the water container B dissolve quickly
C separate into different sizes D take some time to sink to the bottom
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in
determining soil texture because _
A less training is required to use the sieve B using the sieve takes less time
C the sieve allows for a more exact measure D the sieve can measure clay
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 48: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack
A It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman
B It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman
C A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack
D The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman
Question 49: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills
A Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat
B Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free
C Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free
D Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it
Question 50: "I'm sorry I didn't the homework." said the boy
A The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t the homework
B The boy denied not doing the homework
C The boy refused to the homework
(29)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 08
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A express B exciting C expensive D exhibition
Question 2: A production B propaganda C proceed D promotion
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A comfortable B excellent C communicate D confident
Question 4: A geographical B compulsory C education D economics
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to
Southern Thailand was hit Thursday by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia, forcing all schools in a province to close and disrupting fights in a popular tourist area, officially said
The haze that has shrouded parts of Malaysia and Singapore for nearly two months reached hazardous levels in the southern Thai city of Songkhla, with the pollution index hitting a record-high reading of 365 A reading of 101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and above 300 is hazardous
"This is a crisis," said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office He said the pollution index in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before
Halem said his office has worked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send students home and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily Warnings have been issued to vulnerable people such as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their homes
"The wind speed is very low this year in the south, causing haze to stay in our skies longer," Halem said by telephone
An airport official in Hat Yai, a popular tourist area, said three flights bound for Bangkok were delayed Thursday morning because of the haze A flight from Bangkok to Hat Yai was diverted to Surat Thani on Wednesday evening The official declined to be identified because of working rules
Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in southern Thailand, which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia's Sumatra island
Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket, two of the seven provinces suffering from the haze
Question 5: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla
B The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300
C Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze
D The local authorities warned the citizens against going out
Question 6: The following actions are taken by the authorities in response to the haze EXCEPT
A sending students home B issuing warnings
C closing sports stadiums D disrupting flights
Question 7: What is the event reported in the news?
A The haze from Indonesia was the worst ever last year
B Southern Thailand was hit by the haze from Indonesia
C People suffered because of the haze from Indonesia
D The flights were disrupted by the haze on Thursday
Question 8: The haze stayed longer in the southern Thailand because of
A the tropical weather in the area B the high pollution index
C the low speed of the wind D the fine particles of dust in the air
Question 9: What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
A Thailand's pollution index reads 201-300 B People living in Songkhla a lot of reading
(30)Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 10 to 17
Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water Hunters and nomads camped near natural sources of fresh water, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not a serious problem After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban centres, the problem of supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city, as well as for irrigation of the farms surrounding the city Irrigation works were known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt constructed systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling floods and providing irrigation water throughout the dry season Such irrigation canals also supplied water for domestic purposes The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the ancient Romans, who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the Apennine Mountains into the city and built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the water The construction of such extensive water-supply systems declined when the Roman Empire disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and wells formed the main source of domestic and industrial water.The invention of the force pump in England in the
middle of the 16th century greatly extended the possibilities of development of water-supply systems In London,
the first pumping waterworks was completed in 1562; it pumped river water to a reservoir about 37m above the level of the River Thames and from the reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings in the vicinity
Increased per-capita demand has coincided with water shortages in many countries Southeast England, for example, receives only 14 percent of Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and has experienced declining winter rainfall since the 1980s
In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh water to provide drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East Several different processes, including distillation, electrodialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have been developed for this purpose Some of these processes have been used in large facilities in the United States Although these processes are successful, the cost of treating seawater is much higher than that for treating fresh water
Question 10: Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by
A the ancient Romans B the Egyptians C the English people D the US people
Question 11: The word "mains" in paragraph could best be replaced by
A lands B pipes C rivers D areas
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT true about London’s water supply in the middle of the 16th century?
A Water was pumped from the River Thames B Water ran from the reservoir to buildings
C Water was stored in a reservoir D Water was conducted through canals
Question 13: Early peoples didn't need water supply engineering works because _
A they had good ways to irrigate their farms
B their community life had already developed
C there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times
D natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available
Question 14: One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is _
A increased demand B water-supply system decline
C water pollution D water evaporation
Question 15: For several centuries after the disintegration of the Roman Empire, the main source of water
supply was from _
A springs and wells B water pipes C systems of aqueducts D dams and canals
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of conversing seawater to freshwater?
A Water evaporation B Steaming and cooling C Dissolving chemicals D Purification method
Question 17: The word "vicinity" in paragraph refers to _
A The region where industry developed B The neighborhood around a reservoir
C The areas along the River Thames D The cities in South- East England
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 18: He was able to finish his book It was because his wife helped him
A If only he had been able to finish his book
(31)C Without his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book
D But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book
Question 19: Mary wears high heels to look taller
A So that to look taller, Mary wears high heels B Mary buys high heels to look taller
C Mary wants high heels to make her taller D In order to look taller, Mary wears high heels
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 20: - Linda: What kinds of music you like, Mary? - Mary: _
A You really guess so B Well, I guess I’m really into jazz
C Hmm, no, I don't really like Westerns D Concert
Question 21: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan:
A Where? Of course not B Certainly My job is to fill in the application
C Sure Shall I check the oil as well? D Not at all I’ll fill the oil for you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women
A mandatory B benifical C superior D constructive
Question 23: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water
A bone B image C imagination D leash
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player
A approximately B specifically C comparatively D nearly
Question 25: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and fanners are having trouble
A abundant B dominant C adequate D unsatisfactory
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 26: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region
A B C D
Question 27: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area
A B C D
Question 28: Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth's interior
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 29 to 33
American folk music originated with (29) _ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (30) _ spread by radio, records, or music video It was (31) _ by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact The major source of early American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage Later settler from other countries also contributed songs In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (32) _ soon became part of the folk tradition Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well In the 1950s and 1960s, singer - composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban folk music Many of these songs deal (33) _ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam
Question 29: A popular B common C typical D ordinary
Question 30: A until B even C yet D still
Question 31: A transferred B transformed C transmitted D transited
Question 32: A that B who C which D this
(32)Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 34: People have used coal and oil to electricity for a long time
A bred B raise C cultivate D generate
Question 35: My sister is a woman of _ age
A marriage B married C marrying D marriageable
Question 36: This is the latest news from earthquake site Two- thirds of the city in a fire
A has been destroyed B were destroyed C was destroyed D have been destroyed
Question 37: - "Lovely weather, isn't it?" - "Yes, I hope tomorrow will be nice day."
A the other B some C another D some other
Question 38: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions in the northern parts of the
country
A. turned out B. rose up C. broke out D. came up
Question 39: That carcinogenic substances in many common household items is well-known
A are containing B are contained C contained D containing
Question 40: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _
A out of work B out of stock C out of practice D out of reach
Question 41: I've told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn't listen Just let him
face the music now!
A Many a time B Many the time C Quite a time D Or a time
Question 42: There are many _ in our library
A interesting American old history books B old American interesting history books
C interesting old American history books D American interesting old history books
Question 43: The festival has many attractions It will include contemporary orchestra music and an opera
, there will be poetry readings and theatrical presentations
A Furthermore B Otherwise C On the other hand D Nevertheless
Question 44: She looked _ to see who was going her
A up / off B for / with C at / to D round / after
Question 45: Elderly people, _ , require constant attention
A a large number's depending on government aid
B and many of them depend on the government to finance them
C who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government
D many of whom are financially dependent on the government
Question 46: The instructor blew his whistle and
A off the runners were running B off were running the runners
C the runners runs off D off ran the runners
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 48: In Nepal, literacy increased by approximately 40 percent from the early 1950s to the end of the
century
A 40 percent of the people of Nepal became literate during the latter half of the 20th century
B At the end of the 20th century, about 40 percent of the Nepalese were literate, much higher than in the early 1950s
C About 40 percent more of the Nepalese population became literate during the second half of the 20th century
D From the middle to the end of 20th century, only about 40 percent of Nepalese people could read and write
Question 49: "Yes, there's one left on the one that leaves in two hours."
A Are there any seats on the next flight to Paris? B Are you going to London for a holiday or on business?
C Why are you in such a rush to leave the country? D Will you hold that reservation for me?
Question 50: It is regretful that they destroyed the biggest buddhist statue
A They mustn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue
B They shouldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue
C They couldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue
(33)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 09
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A university B application C technology D entertainment
Question 2: A particular B significant C collaborate D satisfaction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A released B ceased C pleased D increased
Question 4: A machine B chute C chore D champagne
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region
A B C D
Question 6: The bus was plenty of people who had spent many a happy hour in the stores doing their Christmas shopping
A B C D
Question 7: When you talk to the old man, please remember to speak out as he's hard of hearing
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to 12
The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of time because it has little meaning for us We can, however, simplify an idea to make it more understandable We can compare the planet Earth to a person of forty-six years of age Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person's life Very little information exists about the middle period either It was only at the age of forty-two that the Earth began to flower Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago When the planet was forty-five, mammals only arrived eight months ago In the middle of last week, man-like apes became ape-like men and began to communicate with each other Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth Modern man has only been around for four hours During the last hour man discovered agriculture The Industrial revolution and the rise of large cities began just sixty seconds ago
During that short time, modern man has made a rubbish of the Earth In one minute, he has increased his numbers to terrible proportions and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals He has robbed and destroyed the planet in his search for fuels Now he stands, like a violent spoilt child delighted at the speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which exists in the solar's system
Question 8: It would appear that the main danger ahead is that
A there will be a population explosion B more species of animal may die out
C man will destroy everything on Earth D man will use up all the fuels
Question 9: The author is mainly interested in
A what has happened since the Industrial Revolution B the effects of farming
C the period before the last Ice Age D the time when man first evolved from apes
Question 10: The author's general view of man seems to be that
A he has learned a lot from past mistakes B he has no right to be so destructive
C he will be able to control the environment D he has been the most successful animal
Question 11: The passage tells us that _
A a great deal is known about how the Earth were created
B scientists are well-informed about the middle part of the Earth's life
C life on Earth began relatively recently
D more is known about the first part of the Earth's life than the middle part
(34)A there were more than forty-five kinds of great reptiles
B ape-like men appeared before the last Ice Age
C mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time
D the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 13: "Shall I make you a coffee?" the girl said to the lady
A The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady B The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady
C The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady D The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady
Question 14: He was so rude to them last night and now he feels regretful
A He wishes he wasn't so rude to them last night B He wishes he hadn't been so rude to them last night
C He regrets having so rude to them last night D He regrets being so rude to them last night
Question 15: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous
A David drove so fast, which was very dangerous B David drove so fast, then was very dangerous
C David drove so fast and was very dangerous D David drove so fast that was very dangerous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 16: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan:
A Where? Of course not B Not at all I’ll fill the oil for you
C Sure Shall I check the oil as well? D Certainly My job is to fill in the application
Question 17: Clement: _ - Dick: Is there something on your mind?
A I feel like going out for a while B I've been feeling a bit anxious lately
C I've been out strolling all day D Why don't you think more rationally?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 18: The discovery of oil brought wealth to the country
A uncalculated B untold C unannounced D unsaid
Question 19: John paid $2 for his meal, _ he had thought it would cost
A not as much B not so much as C less as D not so many as
Question 20: had booked in advance were allowed in
A Only who B Only those who C Only who were those D Only were those who
Question 21: I got impatient waiting for my turn to _
A set out B work out C go out D come out
Question 22: Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving Fortunately, I just in time
A managed to stop B could stop C must be able to stop D could have stopped
Question 23: The blue curtains began to _ after they had been hanging in the sun for two months
A fade B die C dissolve D melt
Question 24: Politicians often promise to solve all a country's problems _
A thick and fast B on the whole C of set purpose D at a stroke
Question 25: _ we refused to cooperate further
A Such was our annoyance that B Such our annoyance was that
C So much our annoyance was that D Our annoyance was so that
Question 26: He looked at her and his hand pulled out a _ of money from his pocket to give her some
A wad B pile C sheet D piece
Question 27: It's ridiculous for him in central Athens at his age
A to be driven B to be driving C to have driven D driving
Question 28: There's no point _ here The man you want to talk to won't be back at least two days
A hanging out B catching up with C counting on D relying on
Question 29: He's always trying me
A to avoid to meet B avoiding meeting C to avoid meeting D avoiding to meet
Question 30: This memorandum will have to be duplicated Could you possibly a hundred copies
(35)A run off B run over C run up D run along
Question 31: The house we have rented is So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc
A unrestored B undecorated C unrepaired D unfurnished
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 32 to 39
Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet of water released by melting glaciers For several periods of time, the first beginning around 60,000 BC and the last ending around 7,000 BC., this land bridge was open The first people travelled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted They brought with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical understanding, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth and song, which complemented their scientific and historical knowledge of the lives of animals and people All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral literatures of power and beauty
Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic forms, are easily disposed to
think of “literature” only as something written But on reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful
as well as the more frequently employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its mode of presentation Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language, culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant verbal achievement results from the struggle in words between tradition and talent Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public verbal form
Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not without consequences for an understanding of Native American literature The essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving
communication, an “emergent form”, the shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly
realized over the course of the performance In performing verbal art, the performer assumes responsibility for the manners as well as the content of the performance, while the audience assumes the responsibility for
evaluating the performer’s competence in both areas It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display
of skill and shapes the emerging performance Where written literature provides us with a tradition of texts, oral literature offers a tradition of performances
Question 32: According to the passage, why did the first people who came to North America leave their homeland?
A They were looking for food B They were seeking freedom
C They were following instructions given in a dream D They were hoping to find a better climate
Question 33: The phrase "are easily disposed" is closest in meaning to
A often fail B readily encourage others C demonstrate reluctance D have a tendency
Question 34: The word "Ultimately" is closet in meaning to _
A normally B whenever possible C frequently D in the end
Question 35: The word "compelling" is closet in meaning to _
A competing B forceful C intricate D joyous
Question 36: What is the main point of the second paragraph?
A Native Americans have a strong oral tradition in art
B Public performance is essential to verbal art
C Oral narratives are a valid form of literature
D The production of literature provides employment for many artists
Question 37: According to the passage, what responsibility does the audience of a verbal art performance have?
A They judge the quality of the content and presentation
B They participate in the performance by chanting responses
C They determine the length of the performance by requesting a continuation
D They provide financial support for performances
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true of the Native American literature discussed in the passage?
A It has a set form B It expresses an inner vision
C It has ancient origins D It involves acting
Question 39: What can be inferred from the passage about the difference between written and oral literature?
(36)B Written literature reflects social values better than oral literature does
C Written literature involves less interaction between audience and creator during the creative progress than
oral literature does
D Written literature usually is not based on historical events, whereas oral literature is
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 40 to 44
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been blamed for broken relationships, job (40) _, financial ruin and even one suicide Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could cause serious problems and ruin many lives Special help groups have been (41) to offer sufferers help and support
IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: (42) _ have dreams about Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they lie to their partners about how much time they spend online; they wish they could cut down, but are unable to so A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (43) _ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were made to stop using it
Almost anyone can be at risk Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games and who (44) _ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet Surprisingly, however, psychologists say that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before
Question 40: A promotions B employments C opportunities D losses
Question 41: A stand up B set up C take up D put up
Question 42: A smokers B drinkers C gamblers D addicts
Question 43: A despite B unless C although D without
Question 44: A find B have C feel D say
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 45: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising They want to increase their sales
A In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on advertising
B Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sales
C Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sales
D Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales
Question 46: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards The police have investigated him for days
A Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days
B Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days
C Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days
D He has been investigated by the police for days, suspected to steal credit cards
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 47: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her
A pay all your attention to what you are doing B make her comply with your order
C upset her in what she is doing D get involved in what she is doing
Question 48: How on earth could they away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?
A decrease B destroy C keep D upgrade
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 49: He is extremely smart He's head and shoulders above anyone else in the class
A better than B inferior to C more clever than D superior to
Question 50: Children from affluent families find it too difficult to adapt to university dormitory life
(37)TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A -
ĐỀ SỐ 10
ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A prune B brunette C fortune D tune
Question 2: A trout B fought C found D scout
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A fought B fundamental C cauliflower D fluorescence
Question 4: A medieval B mechanic C melancholy D metallic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: We should participate in the movements the natural environment
A organizing to conserve B organized to conserve C organized conserving D which organized to conserve
Question 6: Since he failed his exam, he had to _ for it again
A pass B take C sit D make
Question 7: warfare duties primarily to males' was imperative when combat was hand-to-hand
A Assigned B They who assigned C That they were assigning D Assigning
Question 8: Are you taking _ this semester?
A house economics B home economic C house economic D home economics
Question 9: It's important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems and
some solutions to those in Vietnam
A propose B advise C think D expect
Question 10: Unless you well-trained, you to the company
A aren't / will never admit B are / will never admit
C aren't / will never be admitted D are / will never be admitted
Question 11: Failing to submit the proposal on time was _ for Tom
A a real kick in the pants B a nail in the coffin C an open and shut case D a shot in the dark
Question 12: He does not his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them
A get on with B put up with C go on with D take to
Question 13: Many applicants find a job interview if they are not well-prepared for it
A impressive B stressful C threatening D time-consuming
Question 14: The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _ it was made in the 1990s
A or B because C although D however
Question 15: Jane only makes cakes with the butter
A Danish best unsalted B best unsalted Danish C unsalted best Danish D best Danish unsalted
Question 16: Tim's encouraging words gave me _ to undertake the task once again
A a target B a point C a resolution D an incentive
Question 17: Everyone is hoping and praying that _ peace will eventually come to the area
A durable B irrevocable C lasting D ongoing
Question 18: The are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal
A prospects B odds C chances D bets
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 19: - A: Thank you I couldn't have finished my presentation without your help - B:
A Forget about it I didn't mean so B I highly appreciate what you did
C It doesn't matter anyway D Never mind
Question 20: - Laura: I have got a couple of questions I would like to ask you - Maria: _
A Right, fine away B Of course not, it's not costly
(38)Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 21: Some bacteria are extremely harmful, but others are regular used in producing foods
A B C D
Question 22: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics
A B C D
Question 23: When GCSEs are taken in secondary school, they can often combined with other qualifications or diplomas
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 24 to 28
LIVING A BALANCED LIFESTYLE
When we talk about living a healthy life, there is a famous old saying, "You are what you eat" In fact, it is not just what people eat, but their whole lifestyle, which is important The best way to stay healthy is to live a balanced lifestyle Are you living a balanced lifestyle both physically and mentally?
Physical Balance
The human body needs physical exercise at least once a day In today's world, many working people spend most of their day sitting at a desk To add more exercise to your daily life, try to stop what you are doing about once an hour and stretch or take a short walk After work, take a brisk walk or go to the gym Your body will thank you for it
For good health, nutritionists say we should eat at least four servings of raw food a day By eating many colorful fruits and vegetables, you can be sure you are getting the correct nutrients Have a red apple with your breakfast, a green salad at lunch, some carrots for your afternoon snack, and grapes for dessert instead of cake or cookies Of course, for a healthy balance, your body also needs other foods
Mental Balance
Mentally balanced people are usually emotionally balanced They are generally happy with the things they have They not need to have more and more things A mentally balanced person also feels good about who they are They don't worry about the past, and generally have good relationships with the people around them That doesn't mean that mentally healthy people never have negative feelings, but they don't let these types of feelings control them or their behavior It's normal for people to feel their emotions, life always has its challenges and tragedies But mentally healthy people face those challenges and resolve them quickly instead of allowing them to take control of their lives By taking a little time each day to eat well, exercise, and clear your mind, anyone can live a more balanced and healthier lifestyle
Question 24: According to the article, people need to exercise _
A once a day B in the evenings after work
C for one hour at a time D once an hour
Question 25: The following statements are recommended as ways to get physical exercise EXCEPT _
A going to a gym B playing sports C taking a walk D stretching
Question 26: According to the article, to have a balanced lifestyle, people need to
A let their feelings control their behavior B work less and exercise more
C eat cookies and cake only once a week D take care of both their physical and mental health
Question 27: Which statement is true, according to the article?
A Mentally healthy people also face challenges and tragedies
B A healthy, balanced lifestyle is difficult for most people
C Fruits and vegetables should only be eaten raw
D People should exercise at least four times a day
Question 28: The author wrote this article mostly to _
A show that mental health is more important than physical health
B tell people which foods are and are not healthy
C tell people about the key parts of a balanced lifestyle
D make sure everyone gets enough exercise in their lives
(39)What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin The Great Basin is surrounded on the west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors It is, therefore, an environment in which organism battle for survival Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own
But the Great Basin has not always been so arid Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Britain were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former
There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid-latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture
Question 29: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?
A The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province
B The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province
C The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province
D The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert
Question 30: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?
A Dry air B Access to the ocean C Snow D Winds from the west
Question 31: The word "prevailing" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A most frequent B most dangerous C occasional D gentle
Question 32: It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because _
A the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture B the weather patterns are so turbulent
C the altitude prevents precipitation D precipitation falls in the nearby mountains
Question 33: Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph?
A To give examples of depressions that once contained water
B To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes
C To explain what the Great Britain is like today
D To explain their geographical formation
Question 34: The word "the former" in paragraph refer to _
A Lake Bonneville B The Great Salt Lake C Pyramid Lake D Lake Lahontan
Question 35: The word "accumulated" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _
A collected B evaporated C dried D flooded
Question 36: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about _
A broken valley B warmer climates C desert formation D wetter weather
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 37 to 41
AFTERNOON TEA
In far too many places in England today, the agreeable habit of taking afternoon tea has vanished "Such a shocking waste of time," says one "Quite unnecessary, if one has had lunch or (37) to eat in the evening," says another
(40)Taking tea is a highly civilized pastime, and fortunately is still in favour in Thrush Green, where the inhabitants have got it down to a (40) art It is common (41) in that pleasant village to invite friends to tea rather than lunch or dinner
Question 37: A minds B proposes C views D designs
Question 38: A no matter B no way C no doubt D no wonder
Question 39: A come B lead C draw D run
Question 40: A rare B pure C fine D sheer
Question 41: A practice B procedure C habit D custom
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 42: She could dress herself when she was three She remembers this
A She remembers having dressed herself when she was three
B She remembers having herself dressed when she was three
C She remembers being able to dress herself when she was three
D She remembers to dress for herself at three
Question 43: We had prepared everything carefully for the party Few guests came
A However few guests came, we had prepared everything for the party carefully
B Despite our careful preparation for the party, few guests came
C Although everything for party prepared carefully, few guests came
D In spite of having prepared everything for the party carefully, few guests came
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 44: Don't disturb me unless it is something urgent
A I will only bother you if there is some sort of emergency
B Unless something terrible happens, please leave me alone
C You can only interrupt me if it is some sort of emergency
D When you need something fast, you can call on me
Question 45: Much to our astonishment, he soon proved himself to be a very talented organiser
A The speed with which he developed his administrative potential didn't surprise us all
B His organising abilities were surprisingly enough not recognised until too late
C It wasn't long before his administrative gifts became apparent, which surprised us greatly
D The astonishing thing was that such a talented man should take on the organisation
Question 46: Everyone at the factory was worried about the possibility of losing their job
A The chance that they might lose their jobs troubled all those at the factory
B All those at the factory wondered how they might be able to keep their jobs
C All of the factory employees realized that they would soon lose their jobs
D Few of those working at the factory felt that their jobs were secure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 47: Smoking is a causative factor in the development of several serious diseases, including lung cancer
A source B reason C origin D cause
Question 48: The issue of pay rise will loom large at the year-end conference
A be discussed B become important C be raised suddenly D cause worry
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 49: Even though they don't agree with what's happening, they're too apathetic to protest
A half-hearted B uninterested C moved D unconcerned
Question 50: Public opinion is currently running against the banking industry