10 Đề thi THPT Tiếng Anh kèm đáp án bộ mới

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 01 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A interviewer B variety C simplicity D triangular Question 2: A material B survival C pyramid D official Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A iron B restaurant C parents D celebrate Question 4: A compose B wholesale C opponent D colony Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness A B C D Question 6: Many people are afraid that in the future there will be no space leaving for human beings and A B C they express the idea of robots replacing human beings D Question 7: The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to 15 Fossils are the remains and traces (such as footprints or other marks) of ancient plant and animal life that are more than 10,000 years old They range in size from microscopic structures to dinosaur skeletons and complete bodies of enormous animals Skeletons of extinct species of human are also considered fossils An environment favorable to the growth and later preservation of organisms is required for the occurrence of fossils Two conditions are almost always present: The possession of hard parts, either internal or external, such as bones, teeth, scales, shells, and wood; these parts remain after the rest of the organism has decayed Organisms that lack hard parts, such as worms and jelly fish, have left a meager geologic record Quick burial of the dead organism, so that protection is afforded against weathering, bacterial action, and scavengers Nature provides many situations in which the remains of animals and plants are protected against destruction Of these, marine sediment is by far the most important environment for the preservation of fossils, owing to the incredible richness of marine life The beds of former lakes are also prolific sources of fossils The rapidly accumulating sediments in the channels, floodplains, and deltas of streams bury freshwater organisms, along with land plants and animals that fall into the water The beautifully preserved fossil fish from the Green River soil shale of Wyoming in the western United States lived in a vast shallow lake The frigid ground in the far north acts as a remarkable preservative for animal fossils The woolly mammoth, along-haired rhinoceros, and other mammals have been periodically exposed in the tundra of Siberia, the hair and red flesh still frozen in cold storage Volcanoes often provide environments favorable to fossil preservation Extensive falls of volcanic ash and coarser particles overwhelm and bury all forms of life, from flying insects to great trees Caves have preserved the bones of many animals that died in them and were subsequently buried under a blanket of clay or a cover of dripstone Predatory animals and early humans alike sought shelter in caves and brought food to them to the eater, leaving bones that paleontologists have discovered Question 8: The passage primarily discusses which of the following? A Types of fossils found in different climates B What is learned from studying fossils School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 1/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 C How fossils are discovered D Conditions favorable to the preservation of fossils Question 9: The word "traces" in line is closest in meaning to A skeletons B structures C imprints D importance Question 10: All of the following facts about fossils are refereed to by the author (paragraph 1) EXCEPT the fact that they can be A complete animal bodies B microscopically small C fragile D skeletons of human ancestors Question 11: The fossil fish from the Green River (paragraph 3) were probably preserved because they were A covered by sediment B buried slowly C protected by oil D in a deep lake Question 12: The word "exposed" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A located B photographed C uncovered D preserved Question 13: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found as a fossil, assuming that all are buried rapidly? A a worm B a dinosaur C a human ancestor D a woolly mammoth Question 14: It can be inferred that a condition that favors fossilization when volcanic ash falls to Earth is A high temperature B cold storage C quick burial D lack of water Question 15: Which of the following is true of the environments in which fossil are found? A There are few environments in which fossils are protected B Very different environments can favor fossilization C Environments that favor fossilization have similar climates D Environments that favor fossilization support large populations of animals Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 16 to 20 American Indians played a central role in the war known as the American Revolution To them, however, the dispute between the colonists and England was peripheral For American Indians the conflict was a war for American Indian independence, and whichever side they chose they lost it Mary Brant was a powerful influence among the Iroquois She was a Mohawk, the leader of the society of all Iroquois matrons, and the widow of Sir William Johnson, Superintendent of Indian Affairs Her brother, Joseph Brant, is the bestknown American Indian warrior of the Revolution, yet she may have exerted even more influenced in the Confederacy than he did She used her influence to keep the western tribes of Iroquois loyal to the English king, George III When the colonists won the war, she and her tribe had to abandon their lands and retreat to Canada On the other side, Nancy Ward held position of authority in the Cherokee ration She had fought as a warrior in the war against the Creeks and as a reward for her heroism was made "Beloved Woman" of the tribe This office made her chief of the women's council and a member of the council of chiefs She was friendly with the White settlers and supported the Patriots during the Revolution Yet the Cherokees too lost their land Question 16: What is the main point the author makes in the passage? A Siding with the English in the Revolution helped American Indians regain their land B Regardless of whom they supported in the Revolution, American Indians lost their land C The outcome of the Revolution was largely determined by American Indian women D At the time of the Revolution, the Superintendent of Indian Affairs had little power Question 17: According to the passage, Mary Brant's husband had been a A Mohawk chief B government official C Cherokee council member D revolutionary hero Question 18: To which tribe did Nancy Ward belong? A Mohawk B Iroquois C Creek D Cherokee Question 19: How did Nancy Ward gain her position of authority? A By being born into a powerful family B By joining the Confederacy C By bravery in battle D By marriage to a chief Question 20: According to the passage, what did Mary Brant and Nancy Ward have in, common? School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 2/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 A Each influenced her tribe’s role in the American Revolution B Each went to England after the American Revolution C Each lost a brother in the American Revolution D Each was called "Beloved Woman" by her tribe Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 21: Scientists know him well However, very few ordinary people have heard of him A He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public B Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists C Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public D Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name Question 22: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule A Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight B Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule C Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule D Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 23 to 27 Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting (23) _ fun And every year, more and more people start a stamp collection on their own and discover an interest which can last a (24) _ Starting your collection is easy because stamps can be found everywhere Holiday postcards from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (25) _ you with stamps from all over the world But once you have started collecting (26) _, you will probably want to join the Stamp Collectors’ Club (27) _ exists to provide collectors with new British stamps Question 23: A and B also C but D or Question 24: A life buoy B lifetime C life insurance D lifelong Question 25: A consider B give C provide D take Question 26: A attractively B seriously C competitively D greatly Question 27: A what B when C which D where Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 28: Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? - Salesgirl: _ A Can I help you? B Which one? This one? C It’s much cheaper D Sorry, it’s out of stock Question 29: - Mike: Good morning Could I speak to Mr Brown, please? - Carter: A Propably by Monday next week B I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first C Certainly Would two o’clock be OK? D He’s in a meeting Can I take a message? Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 30: In order to enjoy fine wine, one should drink it slowly, a little at a time A spill it B stir it C smell it D sip it Question 31: John boasting again I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in the County A speaking too much B pulling my leg C holding his tongue D blowing his own trumpet Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 32: He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head A lost touch B excited C took leave of his sense D kept calm School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 3/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Question 33: Perhaps the customer has overlooked his monthly statement and not paid the bill A perused B confused C received D neglected Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 34: bought that second-hand car and he then recognized that he shouldn’t have done that A Jack wished he did not buy that second-hand car B Jack wished he had not bought that second-hand car C Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car D Jack regretted not buying that second-hand car Question 35: “John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,” said Janet A Janet objected to John’s bad behavior B Janet was angry with John C Janet dislikes John D Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior Question 36: My goal was to train myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future A Self-training to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future is my desire B I aimed at training myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future C I train myself as much as possible with the aim of preparing for the future D I try to attain the goal of learning as much as possible to prepare for the future Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 37: The discovery of penicillin was a significant medical _ A innovation B revolution C breakthrough D novelty Question 38: Little _ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me A I know B I knew C I have known D did I know Question 39: Please don't _ it amiss if I make a few suggestions for improvement A judge B take C assume D think Question 40: I must confess I was myself with rage A outside B beside C beyond D above Question 41: Different cultures _ dreams in different ways A express B interpret C associate D interfere Question 42: Can I _ your brain for a moment? I can’t this crossword by myself A have B use C pick D mind Question 43: Our family is a _ from which we can go into the world with confidence A basis B basal C basic D base Question 44: Natural gas often occurs petroleum in the minute pores of rocks such as sandstone and limestone A both together with B both together C both with D with Question 45: It is the greatest happiness on earth A to love and to be loved B love and be loved C loving and to be loved D to love and being loved Question 46: The authorities recommend that the meeting next Wednesday A be held B is held C will be held D held Question 47: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is _, someone who refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society A abnormalities B abnormally C abnormal D abnormality Question 48: _, his television would not be so loud A Had Rafael being studied B Were Rafael studying C If Rafael studies D Unless Rafael was studying Question 49: If you need any support, you can rely on me to _ A set you down B back you up C face up to you D put you through Question 50: Life is a diary _ each line contains a story of experience A who B that C in which D which School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 4/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 02 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A behave B academic C examination D grade Question 2: A introduces B practices C wishes D leaves Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A technology B achievement C economics D dependent Question 4: A humidity B incredible C necessary D endangered Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering A B C Department were eligible for admission D Question 6: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what A B C stopped the flood from reaching his house D Question 7: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the A B C D hereditary nature of many diseases Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 8: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth A direct B facial C available D instant Question 9: With so many daily design resources, how you stay up-date with technology without spending too much time on it? A connect to the Internet all day B update new status C use social network daily D get latest information Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 10: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly A knowledgeable B ignorant C rude D uneducated Question 11: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas and the result is the growth of cities A transposition B maintenance C movement D variation Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 12 to 16 Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist Although a few well-known ones, like Harry Potter author J K Rowling, have become very (12) , most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book sales Novels take a long time to write and authors can get into financial (13) if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job But for those (14) to write novels, it is without doubt one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (15) , meaning they put all their time and effort into their work They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them For this, a good sense of humor often helps Or the thought that may be their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (16) ! Question 12: A worth B plenty C wealthy D valuable Question 13: A problem B trouble C worry D upset Question 14: A fixed B convinced C agreed D determined Question 15: A dedicated B delivered C deliberate D decided School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 5/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Question 16: A best-seller Friday, April 24, 2020 B attraction C blockbuster D victory Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 17 to 24 Did you know that humans aren't the only species that use language? Bees communicate by dancing Whales talk to each other by singing And some apes talk to humans by using American Sign Language Meet Koko, a female gorilla born at the San Francisco Zoo on July th, 1971 Koko learned sign language from her trainer, Dr Penny Patterson Patterson began teaching sign language to Koko in 1972, when Koko was one year old Koko must have been a good student, because two years later she moved onto the Stanford University campus with Dr Patterson Koko continued to learn on the campus until 1976 That's when she began living full-time with Patterson's group, the Gorilla Foundation Patterson and Koko's relationship has blossomed ever since Dr Patterson says that Koko has mastered sign language She says that Koko knows over 1,000 words, and that Koko makes up new words For example, Koko didn't know the sign for ring, so she signed the words finger and bracelet Dr Patterson thinks that this shows meaningful and constructive use of language Not everyone agrees with Dr Patterson Some argue that apes like Koko not understand the meaning of what they are doing Skeptics say that these apes are just performing complex tricks For example, if Koko points to an apple and signs red or apple, Dr Patterson will give her an apple They argue that Koko does not really know what the sign apple means She only knows that that if she makes the right motion, one which Dr Patterson has shown her, then she gets an apple The debate is unresolved, but one thing is for certain: Koko is an extraordinary ape Sign language isn't the only unusual thing about Koko She's also been a pet-owner In 1983, at the age of 12, researchers said that Koko asked for a cat for Christmas They gave Koko a stuffed cat Koko was not happy She did not play with it, and she continued to sign sad So for her birthday in 1984, they let her pick a cat out of an abandoned liter Koko picked a gray cat and named him "All Ball." Dr Patterson said that Koko loved and nurtured All Ball as though he were a baby gorilla Sadly, All Ball got out of Koko's cage and was hit by a car Patterson reported that Koko signed "Bad, sad, bad" and "Frown, cry, frown, sad" when she broke the news to her It seems like Patterson and Koko have a good relationship, but not everyone agrees with it Some critics believe that Patterson is humanizing the ape They believe that apes should be left in the most natural state possible Even Dr Patterson struggles with these feelings When asked if her findings could be duplicated by another group of scientists, she said, "We don't think that it would be ethical to again." She went on to argue that animals should not be kept in such unnatural circumstances Nonetheless, Koko lives in her foundation today As for the future, Dr Patterson and the Gorilla Foundation would love to get Koko to an ape preserve in Maui, but they are having trouble securing the land So unless you have a few million dollars to spare, Koko's going to be spending her time in Woodland, California with Dr Patterson Koko probably doesn't mind that If she moved to Hawaii, she'd have to give up her Facebook page and Twitter feed, and she's got like 50 thousand likes Some may deny that she knows sign language, but nobody says that she doesn't know social networking Question 17: Which best expresses the main idea of this article? A It is natural for gorillas and house cats to live together B If you want a lot of "likes" on Facebook, get a talking gorilla C Koko uses sign language but some people think it's just a trick D Bees, whales, and apes like Koko all use language to communicate Question 18: Which best expresses the author's purpose in writing the second paragraph? A The author is persuading readers that Koko should be freed B The author is telling readers about Koko and Dr Patterson's background C The author is informing readers how Dr Patterson developed her skills D The author is describing the environment in which Koko lives Question 19: Which happened LAST? A Dr Patterson began teaching Koko to sign B Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation C Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas D Koko lost All Ball Question 20: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with? A Koko doesn't really know sign language B Some people are troubled by how Koko was raised C Everybody likes how Dr Patterson has raised Koko D Koko has mastered sign language without a doubt Question 21: Which best defines the word "duplicated" as it is used in the sixth paragraph? A To copy or recreate something B To dispute a fact or disagree with someone School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 6/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 C To be disproven through debate D To lie to someone or to fool them Question 22: Which event happened FIRST? A Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation B Koko moved onto the Stanford University campus C Koko picked All Ball out for her birthday D Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas Question 23: Which best describes the main idea of the SIXTH paragraph? A Dr Patterson has treated Koko very cruelly B Some people are working very hard to prove that Dr Patterson is wrong C Dr Patterson and Koko have a beautiful, pure, and unconflicted relationship D Some people think that Koko should not have been treated like a human Question 24: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with? A Some people think that Koko only signs to get food B Dr Patterson has no regrets about working with Koko C The Gorilla Foundation would like to move Koko to an ape preserve D Dr Patterson has worked hard to teach Koko sign language Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 25 to 29 The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World His initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish A second attempt ended in disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587 The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586, but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer Within a short time the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization Question 25: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? A British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World B Early Attempts at Colonizing North America C The Regulation of Trading Companies D Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century Question 26: The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in establishing colonies in North America? A They were acting on their own B They were members of large trading companies C They were immediately successful D They were requested to so by Queen Elizabeth Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true? A He fought the Spanish twice B His trading company was given a patent by the queen C He died in 1587 D He never settled in North America Question 28: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first Roanoke settlement? A Most were not experienced sailors B They named the area "Virginia" C Some did not survive D They explored the entire coastal region Question 29: According to the passage, which of; the following statements about the second settlement on Roanoke Island is true? A It was conquered by the Spanish B Its settlers all gave up and returned to England C The fate of its inhabitants is unknown D It lasted for several years Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 30: We are aware that, _, the situation will get worse A if dealt not carefully with B if not carefully dealing with C unless dealing with carefully D if not carefully dealt with Question 31: - "Can you read that sign?" - "Just a minute Let me my glasses." A put away B put off C put on D put with Question 32: Because the waiter didn’t what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of the chicken wings that I’d wanted A stay up B call on C check in D take down Question 33: It is thought that traditional marriage are important basis of limiting divorce rates A records B responses C appearances D values Question 34: She agreed that all the present paperwork for everyone to have more time to socialize A to stop B stopping C be stopped D stopped School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 7/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Question 35: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made _ accident A by B at C in D on Question 36: The world famous physicist and _ Stephen Hawking published an important paper before he died at the age of 76 A cosmonaut B cosmology C cosmologist D cosmologic Question 37: _ did not surprise us A That Peter failed his exam B Peter failed his exam that C Peter failed his exam, that D Peter failed his exam Question 38: Why don't you have the documents _? A to photocopy B photocopied C photocopying D photocopy Question 39: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers A touch B connection C contact D link Question 40: Italian TV has a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary A ordered B consulted C commissioned D appointed Question 41: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one the most A that influences B why farmers influence it C it influences farmers D farmers that is influences Question 42: It is not easy to _ our beauty when we get older and older A maintain B develop C gain D collect Question 43: The government was finally by a minor scandal A pulled down B taken down C put back D brought down Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 44: - Ann: Do you need any help? - Kate: _ A No, thanks I can manage B That’s fine by me C I haven’t got a clue D That’s all for now Question 45: - "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - " _." A I feel a little under the weather B I feel a little under the impression C I feel a little out of the blue D I feel a little out of order Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: Despite her inexperience in the field, Lynn applied for the job A Lynn applied for the job even though she had no experience in the field B Lynn was unable to the job because she was inexperienced C Lynn applied for the job because she had experience in the field D Lynn did not apply for the job because of her inexperience in the field Question 47: Without his help, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay A Had he helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay B If he hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay C He didn’t help me, so I hadn’t been able to complete my essay D He hadn’t helped me, but I could complete my essay Question 48: "Believe me It's no use buying that machine," Jimmy told his friend A Jimmy suggested to his friend that buying the machine was useful B Jimmy tried to convince his friend that the machine was not worth buying C Jimmy opposed his friend's idea that buying the machine was not useful D Jimmy managed to persuade his friend that buying the machine was worthwhile Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: Sheila worked on a project together with Keith She got married to him afterwards A Sheila worked on a project with Keith, whom she had married earlier B Sheila got married to Keith before they worked on a project together C Sheila and Keith were married, so they began to work on the project together D Sheila got married to Keith, with whom she had worked on a project together Question 50: What the teacher told me has given me food for thought A The teacher told me about the food that was good for me B The teacher told me something that was too difficult for me to C I didn't care much about what the teacher told me D I must think seriously of what the teachers told me School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 8/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 03 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A decoration B opportunity C expectation D temperature Question 2: A digest B describe C swallow D advice Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A necessity B economy C society D facility Question 4: A schedule B picture C match D children Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 5: He asked the salesman for his refund for the laptop he had bought A pay back B charge C repay D return Question 6: Despite all my anxiety, I got hired for the job I wanted A was offered B was offering C was dismissed from D took Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 7: Our new house is modern but there is not enough room to swing a cat A there's no space for children B there's no playground for cats C it's very small D there's no room to keep cats Question 8: We played my brother's school at football and beat them hollow A had a draw B lost the game C defeated easily D broke a nil score Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 9: - Trang: "I live in Vietnam." - Thomas: " _” A About where? B Whereabouts? C What is it about? D How about in Hanoi? Question 10: - Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter My car has broken down on the way here - Peter: _ A Well, it’s worth a try B No, I wouldn’t mind at all C That’s all right D Not on my account Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 11: Lake Superior, _, borders on the United States and Canada A in the world is the largest lake B is largest lake in the world C it is the largest lake in the world D which is the largest lake in the world Question 12: I must confess that I was myself with rage A outside B beside C above D beyond Question 13: I can't make the presentation myself, I've asked my assistant to be prepared to it for me A For B In the event that C Only if D On the other hand Question 14: - "What was the groom wearing?" - "He was dressed in a ." A light summer suit B suit summer light C summer suit light D light suit summer Question 15: Just put your coat in A the hall's closet B hall closet C the hall closet D the closet of the hall Question 16: Please go to to pick up your ID card A window third B the third window C the window three D third window Question 17: The dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face A stylistic B stylistically C stylish D stylishly Question 18: The thief managed to the police barricade A break on B break down C break in D break through School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 9/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Question 19: _ excellent art museums, Moscow has a world-famous ballet company A Because of B In spite of C In case of D In addition to Question 20: The teacher is going to _ the children according to height A group B collect C flock D gather Question 21: Lightning currents to the interior of an airplane A penetrate in rarity B penetrate seldom C seldom penetrate D rare penetrate Question 22: You your seats today if you want to go to the game A had better to reserve B had better reserve C had to better reserve D had to reserve better Question 23: Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among his most famous, the Nobel prize in 1982 A who won B having won C which won D won Question 24: When he went to Egypt, he knew _ no Arabic, but within months he had become extremely fluent A scarcely B virtually C entirely D barely Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 25: The bones of the elderly are more prone to fractures than of young people A B C D Question 26: Folklore consists of the beliefs, customs, traditions, and telling stories that people pass from A B C generation to generation D Question 27: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 28 to 32 The final stage before adulthood is adolescence This is a period of transition for teenagers and there are many crucial milestones Socially and emotionally, teens worry that they may not be developing at the same rate (28) _ their peers They become extremely self-conscious and may be sensitive about their appearance Teens may rebel (29) _ their parents but are also more able to accept the consequences of their actions This is also a period of enormous physical changes and adolescents experience changes in their physical development at a rate unparalleled since infancy These changes include significant gains in height and weight Within a year, boys and girls can gain an (30) _ of 4.1 inches and 3.5 inches repectively This growth spurt typically years earlier for girls than for boys and can tend to make both sexes go through a clumsy phase (31) _ their cognitive development, adolescents have greater reasoning skills and have developed the ability to think logically and hypothetically They are also able to discuss more abstract concepts They should also have (32) _ strategies to help them study Question 28: A like B just C along D as Question 29: A against B to C for D with Question 30: A amount B addition C average D increase Question 31: A In terms of B In addition to C In spite of D Regardless of Question 32: A developed B grown C achieved D advanced Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 33 to 37 As viewed from space, the Earth's distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white clouds Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the only one in our solar system known to harbor life Circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million km (93 million miles) The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the solar system Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive magnetic field which, coupled with the atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars Most meteors burn up in the Earth's atmosphere before they can strike the surface The planet's active geological School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 10/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 them So honey badgers love to raid beehives I can't blame them Who doesn't like free honey? Honey badgers chase after honey aggressively So much so that beekeepers in Africa have to use electric fencing to hold them back There's nothing sweet about that Beekeepers aren't the only people who have grown to hate honey badgers Honey badgers may be fun to read about, but they are nasty neighbors They attack chickens, livestock, and some say children, though they usually leave people alone But if a honey badger moves in your backyard, there's not a whole lot that you can about it I mean, are you going to go and tangle with an animal that eats the bones of its prey? An animal with teeth strong enough to crunch through turtle shells? An animal that never tires, gives up, or backs down? Yeah, I wouldn't either Question 10: Which best expresses the main idea of the third paragraph? A Honey badgers will defend their homes to the death against any animal B Honey badgers have sharp claws that they use for fighting C Honey badgers use their claws to defend their homes D Honey badgers digging skills assist them in many ways Question 11: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with? A Honey badgers got their name from the sweet taste of their meat B Honey badgers are large in size and tireless in fighting spirit C What makes honey badgers so tough is their thick, loose skin D What makes the honey badger so tough is their speed and strength Question 12: Which best defines the meaning of the word "burrows" as it is used in the third paragraph? A Lily pads or other seaweeds in which animals hide B A water supply where small animals come to drink C Holes or tunnels in which animals live D A nest or animal dwelling in a tree or bush Question 13: Which best expresses the main idea of the last paragraph? A Honey badgers are a nuisance to the neighborhood.B Beekeepers and honey badgers not get along well C Honey badgers have very strong jaws and teeth D Honey badgers eat chicken and livestock Question 14: Which best describes one of the author's main purposes in writing this text? A To persuade readers to join the efforts to protect honey badgers B To describe how honey badgers select their partners C To compare and contrast honey badgers with beagles and lions D To explain why honey badgers are so tough Question 15: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with? A Honey badgers are not afraid to fight with humans B Honey badgers like to raid beehives to eat honey C Honey badgers disguise their young to look like cheetah kittens D Honey badgers are not the biggest animals, but they may be the toughest Question 16: Which animal is the honey badger afraid to attack? A Water buffalo B Lion C Poisonous snake D None of these Question 17: Which is NOT one of the honey badger's strengths? A Powerful jaws and strong teeth B Thick skin C Tireless fighting spirit D Poisonous claws Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 18: In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to _ this in their treatment of the patients A put up with B make up for C go in for D set in for Question 19: It is necessary that he _ of his old parents A takes care B to take care C take care D took care Question 20: What a stupid thing to Can you imagine anyone _ so stupid? A that B being C to be D who Question 21: Learning English isn't so difficult once you A get on it B get down to it C get off it D get Question 22: People usually can get sufficient _ of the calcium their bodies need from the food they consume A number B variety C source D amount Question 23: He showed his _ for the TV program by switching it off A discontent B boredom C distaste D annoyance Question 24: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as _ A productive B unproductive C productivity D counterproductive Question 25: You dropped it down the stairs? You're lucky it is still in one _! A whole B piece C entirely D unit School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 26/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Question 26: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one the most A that influences farmers B it influences farmers C farmers that is influences D why farmers influence it Question 27: The fumes were so thick that he was for breath A suffocating B inhaling C gasping D wheezing Question 28: The chairman requested that _ A the problem was more carefully studied B with more carefulness the problem could be studied C the members studied more carefully the problem D the members study the problem more carefully Question 29: Prices of flats _ from a few thousand to millions of dollars A vary B change C fluctuate D differ Question 30: John _ knowledge from many of his life experiences to his work A accomplished B applied C appreciated D approved Question 31: Kelly wanted to have a live band at her wedding A play B been playing C played D to be played Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 32: - John: How about giving me a hand? - Tom: A You're welcome B Sure, I'd be glad to help C No, not yet D I promise Question 33: - Liz: What you think about the new project? - Jennifer: _ A Alright Do you know how much it costs? B Actually speaking, I myself don't like it C Welcome! It's very nice of you D Not at all Don't mention it Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 34: In that organization, they put emphasis on mutual aid and cooperation A reward B pressure C work D stress Question 35: His new million-dollar luxury car is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth A expensive B large C admirable D showy Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 36: Nothing could efface the people's memory of their former leader's cruelty although any years had elapsed A broaden B erase C maintain D prove Question 37: The spy used a fictitious name while dealing with the enemy A authentic B foreign C false D funny Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 38: For fear of waking up the family, Trung tiptoed upstairs A Trung tiptoed upstairs so as not to wake up the family B The family feared when Trung tiptoed upstairs C Trung tiptoed upstairs because he didn’t want to wake up the family D Trung tiptoed upstairs lest the family should be woken up Question 39: The student next to me kept chewing gum That bothered me a lot A The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot B The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot C The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot D The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothered me a lot Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 40: A number of large insurance companies has their headquarters in the capital city A B C D Question 41: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressing and creating a A B C D good impression on your interviewer Question 42: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to A B C alter their eating habits D School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 27/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 43 to 47 The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders The most abundant particles sand, silt and clay are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls To measure soil texture, the sand, silt and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination Although sieves work well for silt, sand and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed Question 43: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph reflect _ A the way the soil is extracted B the results of squeezing the soil C the difficulty of forming different shapes D the need to check more than one handful Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it A does not have a classifiable texture B is not very heavy C does not have a durable shape D may not hold its shape when molded Question 45: The word “they” in the passage refers to _ A sieves B clay particles C larger particles D categories Question 46: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they _ A stick to the sides of the water container B dissolve quickly C separate into different sizes D take some time to sink to the bottom Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because _ A less training is required to use the sieve B using the sieve takes less time C the sieve allows for a more exact measure D the sieve can measure clay Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 48: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack A It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman B It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman C A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack D The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman Question 49: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills A Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat B Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free C Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free D Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it Question 50: "I'm sorry I didn't the homework." said the boy A The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t the homework B The boy denied not doing the homework C The boy refused to the homework D The boy admitted not doing the homework School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 28/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 08 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A express B exciting C expensive D exhibition Question 2: A production B propaganda C proceed D promotion Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A comfortable B excellent C communicate D confident Question 4: A geographical B compulsory C education D economics Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to Southern Thailand was hit Thursday by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia, forcing all schools in a province to close and disrupting fights in a popular tourist area, officially said The haze that has shrouded parts of Malaysia and Singapore for nearly two months reached hazardous levels in the southern Thai city of Songkhla, with the pollution index hitting a record-high reading of 365 A reading of 101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and above 300 is hazardous "This is a crisis," said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office He said the pollution index in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before Halem said his office has worked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send students home and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily Warnings have been issued to vulnerable people such as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their homes "The wind speed is very low this year in the south, causing haze to stay in our skies longer," Halem said by telephone An airport official in Hat Yai, a popular tourist area, said three flights bound for Bangkok were delayed Thursday morning because of the haze A flight from Bangkok to Hat Yai was diverted to Surat Thani on Wednesday evening The official declined to be identified because of working rules Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in southern Thailand, which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia's Sumatra island Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket, two of the seven provinces suffering from the haze Question 5: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage? A The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla B The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300 C Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze D The local authorities warned the citizens against going out Question 6: The following actions are taken by the authorities in response to the haze EXCEPT A sending students home B issuing warnings C closing sports stadiums D disrupting flights Question 7: What is the event reported in the news? A The haze from Indonesia was the worst ever last year B Southern Thailand was hit by the haze from Indonesia C People suffered because of the haze from Indonesia D The flights were disrupted by the haze on Thursday Question 8: The haze stayed longer in the southern Thailand because of A the tropical weather in the area B the high pollution index C the low speed of the wind D the fine particles of dust in the air Question 9: What is the main idea of paragraph 2? A Thailand's pollution index reads 201-300 B People living in Songkhla a lot of reading C Thailand is the most polluted country in Asia D The haze reached a dangerous level School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 29/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 10 to 17 Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water Hunters and nomads camped near natural sources of fresh water, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not a serious problem After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban centres, the problem of supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city, as well as for irrigation of the farms surrounding the city Irrigation works were known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt constructed systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling floods and providing irrigation water throughout the dry season Such irrigation canals also supplied water for domestic purposes The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the ancient Romans, who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the Apennine Mountains into the city and built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the water The construction of such extensive water-supply systems declined when the Roman Empire disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and wells formed the main source of domestic and industrial water.The invention of the force pump in England in the middle of the 16th century greatly extended the possibilities of development of water-supply systems In London, the first pumping waterworks was completed in 1562; it pumped river water to a reservoir about 37m above the level of the River Thames and from the reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings in the vicinity Increased per-capita demand has coincided with water shortages in many countries Southeast England, for example, receives only 14 percent of Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and has experienced declining winter rainfall since the 1980s In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh water to provide drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East Several different processes, including distillation, electrodialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have been developed for this purpose Some of these processes have been used in large facilities in the United States Although these processes are successful, the cost of treating seawater is much higher than that for treating fresh water Question 10: Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by A the ancient Romans B the Egyptians C the English people D the US people Question 11: The word "mains" in paragraph could best be replaced by A lands B pipes C rivers D areas Question 12: Which of the following is NOT true about London’s water supply in the middle of the 16th century? A Water was pumped from the River Thames B Water ran from the reservoir to buildings C Water was stored in a reservoir D Water was conducted through canals Question 13: Early peoples didn't need water supply engineering works because _ A they had good ways to irrigate their farms B their community life had already developed C there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times D natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available Question 14: One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is _ A increased demand B water-supply system decline C water pollution D water evaporation Question 15: For several centuries after the disintegration of the Roman Empire, the main source of water supply was from _ A springs and wells B water pipes C systems of aqueducts D dams and canals Question 16: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of conversing seawater to freshwater? A Water evaporation B Steaming and cooling C Dissolving chemicals D Purification method Question 17: The word "vicinity" in paragraph refers to _ A The region where industry developed B The neighborhood around a reservoir C The areas along the River Thames D The cities in South- East England Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 18: He was able to finish his book It was because his wife helped him A If only he had been able to finish his book B If it weren't for his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 30/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 C Without his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book D But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book Question 19: Mary wears high heels to look taller A So that to look taller, Mary wears high heels B Mary buys high heels to look taller C Mary wants high heels to make her taller D In order to look taller, Mary wears high heels Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 20: - Linda: What kinds of music you like, Mary? - Mary: _ A You really guess so B Well, I guess I’m really into jazz C Hmm, no, I don't really like Westerns D Concert Question 21: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan: A Where? Of course not B Certainly My job is to fill in the application C Sure Shall I check the oil as well? D Not at all I’ll fill the oil for you Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 22: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women A mandatory B benifical C superior D constructive Question 23: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water A bone B image C imagination D leash Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player A approximately B specifically C comparatively D nearly Question 25: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and fanners are having trouble A abundant B dominant C adequate D unsatisfactory Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 26: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region A B C D Question 27: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area A B C D Question 28: Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth's interior A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 29 to 33 American folk music originated with (29) _ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (30) _ spread by radio, records, or music video It was (31) _ by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact The major source of early American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage Later settler from other countries also contributed songs In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (32) _ soon became part of the folk tradition Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well In the 1950s and 1960s, singer - composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban folk music Many of these songs deal (33) _ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam Question 29: A popular B common C typical D ordinary Question 30: A until B even C yet D still Question 31: A transferred B transformed C transmitted D transited Question 32: A that B who C which D this Question 33: A at B in C with D by School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 31/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 34: People have used coal and oil to electricity for a long time A bred B raise C cultivate D generate Question 35: My sister is a woman of _ age A marriage B married C marrying D marriageable Question 36: This is the latest news from earthquake site Two- thirds of the city in a fire A has been destroyed B were destroyed C was destroyed D have been destroyed Question 37: - "Lovely weather, isn't it?" - "Yes, I hope tomorrow will be nice day." A the other B some C another D some other Question 38: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions in the northern parts of the country A turned out B rose up C broke out D came up Question 39: That carcinogenic substances in many common household items is well-known A are containing B are contained C contained D containing Question 40: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _ A out of work B out of stock C out of practice D out of reach Question 41: I've told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn't listen Just let him face the music now! A Many a time B Many the time C Quite a time D Or a time Question 42: There are many _ in our library A interesting American old history books B old American interesting history books C interesting old American history books D American interesting old history books Question 43: The festival has many attractions It will include contemporary orchestra music and an opera , there will be poetry readings and theatrical presentations A Furthermore B Otherwise C On the other hand D Nevertheless Question 44: She looked _ to see who was going her A up / off B for / with C at / to D round / after Question 45: Elderly people, _ , require constant attention A a large number's depending on government aid B and many of them depend on the government to finance them C who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government D many of whom are financially dependent on the government Question 46: The instructor blew his whistle and A off the runners were running B off were running the runners C the runners runs off D off ran the runners Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 48: In Nepal, literacy increased by approximately 40 percent from the early 1950s to the end of the century A 40 percent of the people of Nepal became literate during the latter half of the 20th century B At the end of the 20th century, about 40 percent of the Nepalese were literate, much higher than in the early 1950s C About 40 percent more of the Nepalese population became literate during the second half of the 20th century D From the middle to the end of 20th century, only about 40 percent of Nepalese people could read and write Question 49: "Yes, there's one left on the one that leaves in two hours." A Are there any seats on the next flight to Paris? B Are you going to London for a holiday or on business? C Why are you in such a rush to leave the country? D Will you hold that reservation for me? Question 50: It is regretful that they destroyed the biggest buddhist statue A They mustn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue B They shouldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue C They couldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue D They wouldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 32/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 09 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A university B application C technology D entertainment Question 2: A particular B significant C collaborate D satisfaction Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A released B ceased C pleased D increased Question 4: A machine B chute C chore D champagne Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region A B C D Question 6: The bus was plenty of people who had spent many a happy hour in the stores doing their Christmas shopping A B C D Question 7: When you talk to the old man, please remember to speak out as he's hard of hearing A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from to 12 The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of time because it has little meaning for us We can, however, simplify an idea to make it more understandable We can compare the planet Earth to a person of forty-six years of age Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person's life Very little information exists about the middle period either It was only at the age of forty-two that the Earth began to flower Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago When the planet was forty-five, mammals only arrived eight months ago In the middle of last week, man-like apes became apelike men and began to communicate with each other Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth Modern man has only been around for four hours During the last hour man discovered agriculture The Industrial revolution and the rise of large cities began just sixty seconds ago During that short time, modern man has made a rubbish of the Earth In one minute, he has increased his numbers to terrible proportions and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals He has robbed and destroyed the planet in his search for fuels Now he stands, like a violent spoilt child delighted at the speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which exists in the solar's system Question 8: It would appear that the main danger ahead is that A there will be a population explosion B more species of animal may die out C man will destroy everything on Earth D man will use up all the fuels Question 9: The author is mainly interested in A what has happened since the Industrial Revolution B the effects of farming C the period before the last Ice Age D the time when man first evolved from apes Question 10: The author's general view of man seems to be that A he has learned a lot from past mistakes B he has no right to be so destructive C he will be able to control the environment D he has been the most successful animal Question 11: The passage tells us that _ A a great deal is known about how the Earth were created B scientists are well-informed about the middle part of the Earth's life C life on Earth began relatively recently D more is known about the first part of the Earth's life than the middle part Question 12: We are informed by the author that _ School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 33/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 A there were more than forty-five kinds of great reptiles B ape-like men appeared before the last Ice Age C mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time D the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 13: "Shall I make you a coffee?" the girl said to the lady A The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady B The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady C The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady D The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady Question 14: He was so rude to them last night and now he feels regretful A He wishes he wasn't so rude to them last night B He wishes he hadn't been so rude to them last night C He regrets having so rude to them last night D He regrets being so rude to them last night Question 15: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous A David drove so fast, which was very dangerous B David drove so fast, then was very dangerous C David drove so fast and was very dangerous D David drove so fast that was very dangerous Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 16: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan: A Where? Of course not B Not at all I’ll fill the oil for you C Sure Shall I check the oil as well? D Certainly My job is to fill in the application Question 17: Clement: _ - Dick: Is there something on your mind? A I feel like going out for a while B I've been feeling a bit anxious lately C I've been out strolling all day D Why don't you think more rationally? Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 18: The discovery of oil brought wealth to the country A uncalculated B untold C unannounced D unsaid Question 19: John paid $2 for his meal, _ he had thought it would cost A not as much B not so much as C less as D not so many as Question 20: had booked in advance were allowed in A Only who B Only those who C Only who were those D Only were those who Question 21: I got impatient waiting for my turn to _ A set out B work out C go out D come out Question 22: Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving Fortunately, I just in time A managed to stop B could stop C must be able to stop D could have stopped Question 23: The blue curtains began to _ after they had been hanging in the sun for two months A fade B die C dissolve D melt Question 24: Politicians often promise to solve all a country's problems _ A thick and fast B on the whole C of set purpose D at a stroke Question 25: _ we refused to cooperate further A Such was our annoyance that B Such our annoyance was that C So much our annoyance was that D Our annoyance was so that Question 26: He looked at her and his hand pulled out a _ of money from his pocket to give her some A wad B pile C sheet D piece Question 27: It's ridiculous for him in central Athens at his age A to be driven B to be driving C to have driven D driving Question 28: There's no point _ here The man you want to talk to won't be back at least two days A hanging out B catching up with C counting on D relying on Question 29: He's always trying me A to avoid to meet B avoiding meeting C to avoid meeting D avoiding to meet Question 30: This memorandum will have to be duplicated Could you possibly a hundred copies for me, Miss Jones? School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 34/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 A run off B run over C run up D run along Question 31: The house we have rented is So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc A unrestored B undecorated C unrepaired D unfurnished Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 32 to 39 Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet of water released by melting glaciers For several periods of time, the first beginning around 60,000 BC and the last ending around 7,000 BC., this land bridge was open The first people travelled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted They brought with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical understanding, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth and song, which complemented their scientific and historical knowledge of the lives of animals and people All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral literatures of power and beauty Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic forms, are easily disposed to think of “literature” only as something written But on reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful as well as the more frequently employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its mode of presentation Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language, culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant verbal achievement results from the struggle in words between tradition and talent Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public verbal form Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not without consequences for an understanding of Native American literature The essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving communication, an “emergent form”, the shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly realized over the course of the performance In performing verbal art, the performer assumes responsibility for the manners as well as the content of the performance, while the audience assumes the responsibility for evaluating the performer’s competence in both areas It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display of skill and shapes the emerging performance Where written literature provides us with a tradition of texts, oral literature offers a tradition of performances Question 32: According to the passage, why did the first people who came to North America leave their homeland? A They were looking for food B They were seeking freedom C They were following instructions given in a dream D They were hoping to find a better climate Question 33: The phrase "are easily disposed" is closest in meaning to A often fail B readily encourage others C demonstrate reluctance D have a tendency Question 34: The word "Ultimately" is closet in meaning to _ A normally B whenever possible C frequently D in the end Question 35: The word "compelling" is closet in meaning to _ A competing B forceful C intricate D joyous Question 36: What is the main point of the second paragraph? A Native Americans have a strong oral tradition in art B Public performance is essential to verbal art C Oral narratives are a valid form of literature D The production of literature provides employment for many artists Question 37: According to the passage, what responsibility does the audience of a verbal art performance have? A They judge the quality of the content and presentation B They participate in the performance by chanting responses C They determine the length of the performance by requesting a continuation D They provide financial support for performances Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true of the Native American literature discussed in the passage? A It has a set form B It expresses an inner vision C It has ancient origins D It involves acting Question 39: What can be inferred from the passage about the difference between written and oral literature? A Written literature is not as highly respected as oral literature is School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 35/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 B Written literature reflects social values better than oral literature does C Written literature involves less interaction between audience and creator during the creative progress than oral literature does D Written literature usually is not based on historical events, whereas oral literature is Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 40 to 44 The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been blamed for broken relationships, job (40) _, financial ruin and even one suicide Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could cause serious problems and ruin many lives Special help groups have been (41) to offer sufferers help and support IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: (42) _ have dreams about Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they lie to their partners about how much time they spend online; they wish they could cut down, but are unable to so A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (43) _ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were made to stop using it Almost anyone can be at risk Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games and who (44) _ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet Surprisingly, however, psychologists say that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before Question 40: A promotions B employments C opportunities D losses Question 41: A stand up B set up C take up D put up Question 42: A smokers B drinkers C gamblers D addicts Question 43: A despite B unless C although D without Question 44: A find B have C feel D say Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 45: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising They want to increase their sales A In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on advertising B Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sales C Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sales D Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales Question 46: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards The police have investigated him for days A Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days B Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days C Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days D He has been investigated by the police for days, suspected to steal credit cards Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 47: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her A pay all your attention to what you are doing B make her comply with your order C upset her in what she is doing D get involved in what she is doing Question 48: How on earth could they away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead? A decrease B destroy C keep D upgrade Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 49: He is extremely smart He's head and shoulders above anyone else in the class A better than B inferior to C more clever than D superior to Question 50: Children from affluent families find it too difficult to adapt to university dormitory life A wealthy B well-off C privileged D impoverished School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 36/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 10 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A prune B brunette C fortune D tune Question 2: A trout B fought C found D scout Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A fought B fundamental C cauliflower D fluorescence Question 4: A medieval B mechanic C melancholy D metallic Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 5: We should participate in the movements the natural environment A organizing to conserve B organized to conserve C organized conserving D which organized to conserve Question 6: Since he failed his exam, he had to _ for it again A pass B take C sit D make Question 7: warfare duties primarily to males' was imperative when combat was hand-to-hand A Assigned B They who assigned C That they were assigning D Assigning Question 8: Are you taking _ this semester? A house economics B home economic C house economic D home economics Question 9: It's important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems and some solutions to those in Vietnam A propose B advise C think D expect Question 10: Unless you well-trained, you to the company A aren't / will never admit B are / will never admit C aren't / will never be admitted D are / will never be admitted Question 11: Failing to submit the proposal on time was _ for Tom A a real kick in the pants B a nail in the coffin C an open and shut case D a shot in the dark Question 12: He does not his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them A get on with B put up with C go on with D take to Question 13: Many applicants find a job interview if they are not well-prepared for it A impressive B stressful C threatening D time-consuming Question 14: The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _ it was made in the 1990s A or B because C although D however Question 15: Jane only makes cakes with the butter A Danish best unsalted B best unsalted Danish C unsalted best Danish D best Danish unsalted Question 16: Tim's encouraging words gave me _ to undertake the task once again A a target B a point C a resolution D an incentive Question 17: Everyone is hoping and praying that _ peace will eventually come to the area A durable B irrevocable C lasting D ongoing Question 18: The are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal A prospects B odds C chances D bets Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 19: - A: Thank you I couldn't have finished my presentation without your help - B: A Forget about it I didn't mean so B I highly appreciate what you did C It doesn't matter anyway D Never mind Question 20: - Laura: I have got a couple of questions I would like to ask you - Maria: _ A Right, fine away B Of course not, it's not costly C What's up? D Not at all School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 37/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 21: Some bacteria are extremely harmful, but others are regular used in producing foods A B C D Question 22: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics A B C D Question 23: When GCSEs are taken in secondary school, they can often combined with other qualifications or diplomas A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 24 to 28 LIVING A BALANCED LIFESTYLE When we talk about living a healthy life, there is a famous old saying, "You are what you eat" In fact, it is not just what people eat, but their whole lifestyle, which is important The best way to stay healthy is to live a balanced lifestyle Are you living a balanced lifestyle both physically and mentally? Physical Balance The human body needs physical exercise at least once a day In today's world, many working people spend most of their day sitting at a desk To add more exercise to your daily life, try to stop what you are doing about once an hour and stretch or take a short walk After work, take a brisk walk or go to the gym Your body will thank you for it For good health, nutritionists say we should eat at least four servings of raw food a day By eating many colorful fruits and vegetables, you can be sure you are getting the correct nutrients Have a red apple with your breakfast, a green salad at lunch, some carrots for your afternoon snack, and grapes for dessert instead of cake or cookies Of course, for a healthy balance, your body also needs other foods Mental Balance Mentally balanced people are usually emotionally balanced They are generally happy with the things they have They not need to have more and more things A mentally balanced person also feels good about who they are They don't worry about the past, and generally have good relationships with the people around them That doesn't mean that mentally healthy people never have negative feelings, but they don't let these types of feelings control them or their behavior It's normal for people to feel their emotions, life always has its challenges and tragedies But mentally healthy people face those challenges and resolve them quickly instead of allowing them to take control of their lives By taking a little time each day to eat well, exercise, and clear your mind, anyone can live a more balanced and healthier lifestyle Question 24: According to the article, people need to exercise _ A once a day B in the evenings after work C for one hour at a time D once an hour Question 25: The following statements are recommended as ways to get physical exercise EXCEPT _ A going to a gym B playing sports C taking a walk D stretching Question 26: According to the article, to have a balanced lifestyle, people need to A let their feelings control their behavior B work less and exercise more C eat cookies and cake only once a week D take care of both their physical and mental health Question 27: Which statement is true, according to the article? A Mentally healthy people also face challenges and tragedies B A healthy, balanced lifestyle is difficult for most people C Fruits and vegetables should only be eaten raw D People should exercise at least four times a day Question 28: The author wrote this article mostly to _ A show that mental health is more important than physical health B tell people which foods are and are not healthy C tell people about the key parts of a balanced lifestyle D make sure everyone gets enough exercise in their lives Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 29 to 36 School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 38/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin The Great Basin is surrounded on the west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors It is, therefore, an environment in which organism battle for survival Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own But the Great Basin has not always been so arid Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Britain were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid-latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture Question 29: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin? A The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province B The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province C The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province D The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert Question 30: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack? A Dry air B Access to the ocean C Snow D Winds from the west Question 31: The word "prevailing" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A most frequent B most dangerous C occasional D gentle Question 32: It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because _ A the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture B the weather patterns are so turbulent C the altitude prevents precipitation D precipitation falls in the nearby mountains Question 33: Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph? A To give examples of depressions that once contained water B To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes C To explain what the Great Britain is like today D To explain their geographical formation Question 34: The word "the former" in paragraph refer to _ A Lake Bonneville B The Great Salt Lake C Pyramid Lake D Lake Lahontan Question 35: The word "accumulated" in paragraph is closest in meaning to _ A collected B evaporated C dried D flooded Question 36: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about _ A broken valley B warmer climates C desert formation D wetter weather Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 37 to 41 AFTERNOON TEA In far too many places in England today, the agreeable habit of taking afternoon tea has vanished "Such a shocking waste of time," says one "Quite unnecessary, if one has had lunch or (37) to eat in the evening," says another All very true, (38) but what a lot of innocent pleasure these strong-minded people are missing! The very ritual of tea-making, warming the pot, making sure that the water is just boiling, inhaling the fragrant steam, arranging the tea-cosy to fit snugly around the container, all the preliminaries (39) up to the exquisite pleasure of sipping the brew from thin porcelain, and helping oneself to hot buttered scones and strawberry jam, a slice of feather-light sponge cake or home-made shortbread School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 39/40 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020 Taking tea is a highly civilized pastime, and fortunately is still in favour in Thrush Green, where the inhabitants have got it down to a (40) art It is common (41) in that pleasant village to invite friends to tea rather than lunch or dinner Question 37: A minds B proposes C views D designs Question 38: A no matter B no way C no doubt D no wonder Question 39: A come B lead C draw D run Question 40: A rare B pure C fine D sheer Question 41: A practice B procedure C habit D custom Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 42: She could dress herself when she was three She remembers this A She remembers having dressed herself when she was three B She remembers having herself dressed when she was three C She remembers being able to dress herself when she was three D She remembers to dress for herself at three Question 43: We had prepared everything carefully for the party Few guests came A However few guests came, we had prepared everything for the party carefully B Despite our careful preparation for the party, few guests came C Although everything for party prepared carefully, few guests came D In spite of having prepared everything for the party carefully, few guests came Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 44: Don't disturb me unless it is something urgent A I will only bother you if there is some sort of emergency B Unless something terrible happens, please leave me alone C You can only interrupt me if it is some sort of emergency D When you need something fast, you can call on me Question 45: Much to our astonishment, he soon proved himself to be a very talented organiser A The speed with which he developed his administrative potential didn't surprise us all B His organising abilities were surprisingly enough not recognised until too late C It wasn't long before his administrative gifts became apparent, which surprised us greatly D The astonishing thing was that such a talented man should take on the organisation Question 46: Everyone at the factory was worried about the possibility of losing their job A The chance that they might lose their jobs troubled all those at the factory B All those at the factory wondered how they might be able to keep their jobs C All of the factory employees realized that they would soon lose their jobs D Few of those working at the factory felt that their jobs were secure Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 47: Smoking is a causative factor in the development of several serious diseases, including lung cancer A source B reason C origin D cause Question 48: The issue of pay rise will loom large at the year-end conference A be discussed B become important C be raised suddenly D cause worry Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 49: Even though they don't agree with what's happening, they're too apathetic to protest A half-hearted B uninterested C moved D unconcerned Question 50: Public opinion is currently running against the banking industry A standing up for B kicking out C poking fun at D looking up to School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 40/40 ... Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 02 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc... Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 03 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc... Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A ĐỀ SỐ 04 Friday, April 24, 2020 ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc