24 de tieng anh on thi thpt quoc gia 24 de tieng anh on thi thpt quoc gia

PRACTICE TEST 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following quest

PRACTICE TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A lean B teammate C beacon D overhead

Question 2: A studied B kissed C hoped D laughed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A require B consist C achieve D system

Question 4: A intervention B necessary C intellectual D productivity

Question 5: A intensity B accurate C erosion D miraculous

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: Since the flood the number of homeless people dramatically

A are increasing B had increased C increase D has increased

Question 7: Can you make yourself in French?

A understood B understand C to understand D understanding

Question 8: Today many species of plant and animal are in of extinction

A danger B endangered C endanger D dangerous

Question 9: At first she was trained to be _scriptwriter, but later she worked as secretary

A the / a B a / a C the / the D a / the

Question 10: ― Don‘t look so worried! You should take the leader‘s comment with .‖

Question 11: Three pounds of butter in this recipe

Question 12: Our project was successful its practicality

A in terms of B with a view to C regardless D on behalf of

Question 13: Of the two new students, one is friendly and _

A the others are not B the other is not

C another is unfriendly D other lacks friendliness

Question 14: There is one person to I owe more than I can say

Question 15: Mary is sixteen years old She is _ young to get married

A too B so C such D enough

Question 16: is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which

make a balanced environment

A extinction B biodiversity C habitat D conservation

Question 17: - Kate: ― How lovely your cats are!‖ - David: ― ‖

A Really? They are B Thank you, it is nice of you to say so

Question 18: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _ in water sport game yesterday

Question 19: It‘s essential that every student all the lectures

A attends B attend C has attended D attended

Question 20: It‘s a secret You _ let anyone know about it

Question 21: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to their houses

Question 22: - Anne: ― Make yourself at home‖ - John: ― ‖

A Thanks! Same to you B That‘s very kind Thank you

C Not at all Don‘t mention it D Yes, Can I help you?

Question 23: He managed to keep his job _the manager had threatened to sack him

A therefore B although C unless D despite

Question 24: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver _in the crash

A are injured B was injured C were injured D have been injured

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the fo llowing questions

Question 25: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication

A using gesture B using speech C using verbs D using facial expressions

Question 26: You must answer the police‘s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble

A in a harmful way B as trustingly as you can

C with a negative attitude D exactly as you can

Question 27: It takes me 15 minutes to get ready

A to prepare B to wake up C to go D to get up

Question 28: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest

A hungry B rich C poor D full

Question 29: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 30: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to help

of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying

the (37) _ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper Everywhere fertile soil is (38)

_ built on or washed into the sea Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be

able to recover (39) _ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences As a (40) _ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (41) _ increasingly heavy demands on it

The Earth's (42) _ resources are there for us to use We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (43) _ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active If we are sensible in how

we use the resources, they will (44) _ indefinitely But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they

will soon run out and everyone will suffer

Question 36: A continues B repeats C follows D carries

Question 37: A individual B alone C very D solitary

Question 38: A neither B sooner C rather D either

Question 39: A utterly B completely C quite D greatly

Question 40: A result B reaction C development D product

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question s from 45 to 54

The Planets of Jupiter

The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth‘s, contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet

without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal

temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its own right Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets:

they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike

terrestrial planets Much of Jupiter‘s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet at

different speeds in different latitudes Jupiter‘s puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the

Southern Hemisphere Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years

Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat

generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet Another star like characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System

Question 45: The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _

Question 46: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _

A nuclear reactions B giant planets C terrestrial D substances

Question 47: According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is _

A extremely hot B combined with helium C similar atmospheres D metallic cores

Question 48: According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that they both

have _

A solid surfaces B similar masses C similar atmospheres D metallic cores

Question 49: The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is

caused by _

C the planet‘s fast rotation D Storms from the planet‘s Southern Hemisphere Question 51: The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is _

A the only spot of its kind B not well understood

C among the largest of such spots D a problem for the planet‘s continued existence Question 52: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?

A Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun

B Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets

C Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star

D Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter

Question 53: Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?

A To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun

B To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets

C To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has

D To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off

Question 54: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself

B If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions

C If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet

D if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question s from 55 to 64

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture The basic

function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as For example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit Coded to refer to speech, the potential for

communication is very great Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and

of themselves A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently Symbols are more

difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver‘s

cultural perceptions In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol

of approval Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few

Question 55: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

Question 56: What does the author say about speech?

A It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors

B It is the most advanced form of communication

C It is necessary for communication to occur

D It is the only true form of communication

Question 57: According to the passage, what is a signal?

A A form of communication that interrupts the environment

B The most difficult form of communication to describe

C A form of communication which may be used across long distances

D The form of communication most related to cultural perception

Question 58: The phrase “ impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _

A prohibit B intrude C vary D improve

Question 59: The word “it” in paragraph refers to _

Question 60: The word “ potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by

A advanced B possibility C organization D signal

Question 61: The word ―intricate‖ in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by

A inefficient B complicated C historical D uncertain

Question 62: Applauding was cited as an example of

Question 63: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?

A Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols

B Because people wanted to communicate across long distances

C Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete

D Because people wanted new forms of communication

Question 64: It may be concluded from this passage that _

A only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols

B signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication

C symbols are very easy to define and interrupt

D waving and handshaking are not related to culture

WRITING

Part I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it

Question 65: It started to rain as soon as I went out

No sooner……….………

Question 66: No one in our class is taller than Peter Peter……….………

Question 67: People think that he broke into the bank last night He……….………

Question 68: You are in trouble now because you didn‘t follow my advice Had ………

Question 69: ―I‘ll take you to the zoo next Sunday‖ his mother said His mother promised ………… ………

Part II In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe a person you admire

PRACTICE TEST 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

Question 1: A linked B declared C finished D developed

Question 2: A thereupon B thrill C threesome D throne

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress

Question 3: A attract B decide C reject D beauty

Question 4: A television B information C economic D engineer

Question 5: A achievement B argument C confinement D involvement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the

following questions

Question 6: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _ to be dead

A have been appearing B to be appearing C to appear D by appearing

Question 7: On _ he had won, he jumped for joy

A he was told B having told C being told D telling

Question 8: It has been raining I got up

A when B since C until D as

Question 9: Let‘s begin our discussion now, ?

A shall we B will we C don‘t we D won‘t we

Question 10: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one the most

A that influences farmers B farmers that is influences

C why farmers influence it D it influences farmers

Question 11: It gets _ to understand what the professor has explained

A the more difficult B difficult more and more

C more difficult than D more and more difficult

Question 12: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _ paintings were destroyed,

including two by Picasso

A worthless B priceless C valueless D worthy

Question 13: There‘s somebody walking behind us I think we are

A followed B being followed C following D being following

Question 14: _, we tried our best to complete it

A Thanks to the difficult homework B Despite the homework was difficult

C Difficult as the homework was D As though the homework was difficult

Question 15: Learning English isn't so difficult once you _

A get on it B get off it C get down to it D get down with it

Question 16: The Boeing 747 is twice the Boeing 707

A bigger than B more bigger than C as big as D as bigger as

Question 17: I will stand here and wait for you you come back

A because B though C so D until

Question 18: I was doing my homework the light went out

A after B before C while D when

Question 19: The song has been selected for the 22nd Sea Games,Vietnam

A officially B office C official D officer

Question 20: John: ―I‘ve passed my final exam.‖ Tom: ― ‖

A That‘s a good idea B Good luck

C It‘s nice of you to say so D Congratulations!

Question 21: Kitchen appliances called blenders became in the 1930s, when Stephen B Poplawski

developed a machine that excelled at making his favorite drink

A establish B established C which establish D establishing

Question 22: It is necessary that children of their old parents

A takes care B to take care C take care D took care

Question 23: ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat

A Had you arrived B If you arrived

C Were you arrived D If you hadn‘t arrived

Question 24: Chosen as the nation‘s capital at the end of the American Civil War, the city of over a

million people

A.Washington DC is now B for Washington DC,

C.Washington DC, D now in Washington DC,

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings

Question 25: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate

A taking off B setting up C growing well D closing down

Question 26: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water

A imagination B bone C leash D image

Question 27: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind

A sometimes B always C hardly D never

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that

is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings

Question 28: We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being

A revealed B frequented C accessible D lively

Question 29: They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners

A vicious B warmhearted C callous D coldblooded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 30: My father asked me where had I gone the night before

of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it Winds carry this (39) _ air to other countries and other continents

Poor farmers use the same land over and (40) The land needs a rest so it will be better next year However, the farmers must have food this year Poor people cut down forests (41) _ firewood In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (42) _ desert Poor people can‘t save the environment for the (43) _

This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world It is a problem for all- humans The people and the nations of the world must work together to (44) _ the world‘s resources

Question 35: A it B them C that D those

Question 36: A work B change C make D let

Question 37: A what B who C whom D which

Question 38: A out B for C at D into

Question 39: A pollute B polluting C polluted D pollution

Question 40: A over B again C repeatedly D repeating

Question 41: A of B for C with D at

Question 42: A gets B changes C turns D becomes

Question 43: A future B time being C times D period

Question 44: A recycle B preserve C keep D reuse

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the

tides No other force that affects the sea is so strong Compared with the tides, the waves created

by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface The

currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their

impressive sweep

The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant

Sun In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of

the universe In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the

control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun

Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time

of high tide is correspondingly later each day And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly

cycle, so the height of the tide varies The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a

sliver in the sky, and when it is full These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of

the lunar month and are called the spring tides At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are

nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on

the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors

Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes

of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal

movements called neap tides occur Then the difference between high and low water is less than

at any other time during the month

Question 45: What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A The waves created by ocean currents are very large

B Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water

C Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water

D The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water

Question 46: The word "felt" is closest in meaning to

A based B dropped C detected D explored

Question 47: The words "In reality" are closest in meaning to

A surprisingly B actually C characteristically D similarly

Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much

gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is

A size B distance C temperature D density

Question 49: The word "correspondingly" is closest in meaning to

A unpredictably B interestingly C similarly D unusually

Question 50: What is the cause of spring tides?

A Seasonal changes in the weather

B The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth

C The Earth's movement around the Sun

D The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon

Question 51: The word "configuration" is closest in meaning to

A unit B center C surface D arrangement

Question 52: Neap tides occur when _ A the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction

B the Moon is full C the Moon is farthest from the Sun

D waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction

Question 53: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT:

A The time of high tide is later each day

B Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do

C The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon

D Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides

Question 54: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those

caused by tides?

A Lines 2-4 B Lines 10-11 C Lines 12-13 D Lines 17-18

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55

Watching for wildlife in the forest, we rarely see past the surface of things Standing on the ground floor,

we scan the leafy rafters, entirely overlooking the living world in the soil beneath out feet

The forest‗s basement is a secret world As different from our own world as water is from air, the soil

seems quiet, even dead But life bustles down below: a cubic inch of topsoil may contain billions of

creatures

Predators and prey roam beneath as well as above the forest floor Furthermore, those upstairs and downstairs forest denizens live closely linked lives soil-dwelling bacteria and fungi break down deal organic matter into molecules that above ground plants use for food Those plants, as well as animals, mature and die, leaving more organic matter to fuel the folks downstairs

Like a well -insulated house, the soil protected its tenants from extreme temperatures, and from rain and

snow It also provides a bulwark against predators that roam the surface world But the dense, protecting soil

also limits mobility Soil creatures must be specially equipped in order to travel easily through their

dark, constricting realm

Earthworms and ants are the champion earth-movers, creating channels that allow air and water to enter the soil While

ants travel relatively far from their nests, earthworms work small areas, reprocessing vast amount of soil into

fertile ―waste‖ In a single year, as much as 36 tons of soil may pass through the alimentary tracts of all the earthworms living in an acre of soil

Question 55: The main topic of the passage is _

A life in the forest soil B the habitats of the forest animals

C the life cycle of ants and worms D a description of a forest scene

Question 56: The word ― bustles‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to

A is very active B threatens C continues D waits

Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the forest soil is _

A sparsely inhabited B devoid of life C unknown to man D densely inhabited

Question 58: According to the passage, what is the main function of bacteria and fungi?

A to build walls in the soil B to help aerate the soil

C to kill mature plants D to provide food for plant life

Question 59: The word ―bulwark‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to _

A tomb B radar C barrier D gateway

Question 60: According to the passage, the soil offers creatures who live underground protection from all of

the following EXCEPT

A bacteria and fungi B bad weather

C extreme heat and cold D enemies

Question 61: The word "constricting‖ can be replaced with _

A deep B heavy C damp D limiting

Question 62: According to the passage, it could be expected that ants

A are more mobile than earthworms B move more earth than earthworms

C perform similar functions to fungi D live only above ground

Question 63: The word "reprocessing" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A transporting B converting C eliminating D arranging

Question 64: The author uses which analogy to discuss the soil of the forest?

A A building B A vehicle C A laboratory D A tunnel

WRITING

Part I Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings

Question 65 Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier

-> Camry is the ……… ……….………

Question 66 This is the best film I‘ve ever seen -.> I‘ve ……… ………

Question 67 My school has over 2,000 students -> There are ……… ……….………

Question 68 People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains -> It is ……… …………

Question 69 He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job -> He tries to learn English well with ………

Part II In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the book you like most

PRACTICE TEST 3

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:

Question 1: A symbol B emergency C poverty D qualify

Question 2: A appalled B dedicated C designed D injured

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress in each of the following questions:

Question 3: A preferential B communicate C eliminate D accompany

Question 4: A community B businessman C development D environment

Mark the correct option A, B,C or D to fill each of the following blanks :

Question 6: This is his fifth day on the tour He four countries

A already visited B visited C has already visited D is visiting

Question 7: ―I think the teacher should give us more exercises – ― _ ‖

A That‘s rubbish B Yes, let‘s C Ok D That‘s just what I was

thinking

Question 8: There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, , has been delayed

A otherwise B or C therefore D so

Question 9: The man you saw yesterday _Mr Brown, because he went to London on business last week

A can‘t have been B mustn‘t be C can‘t be D mustn‘t have been

Question 10: , he would have been able to pass the exam

A Studying more B If he were studying to a greater degree

C If he studied more D Had he studied more

Question 11: ―Why don‘t you go to the zoo?‖ – ― ‖

A That‘s a good idea B Because we don‘t have enough money

C I couldn‘t agree more D Yes, I‘d love to

Question 12: the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time

A Despite B Though C However D Although

Question 13: The fact is, doctor, I just cannot this dreadful cough

A get down to B get rid of C get out of D get round to

Question 14: Jane is plain, but her sister is very

A complex B attractive C sympathetic D sophisticated

Question 15: , Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States

A He was born and raised in Missori B That he was born and raised in Missori

C Because he was born and raised in Missouri D Born and raised in Missouri

Question 16: I like that photo very much Could you make an _ for me?

Question 17:I ― Chicken Soup for the Soul‖ but I haven‘t finished it yet

A am reading B was reading C have been reading D read

Question 18:You shouldn‘t live your means

Question 19: From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n) for music

Question 20: Despite playing under strength, the village team _ beat the rivals

Question 21: Living organisms contain more water _ substance

A than do any other B does than any other C other than do they any D than any other

Question 22: bacteria in foods are killed, as they are during baking or stewing, decay is slowed down

A What B The C If D So

Question 23: Industrialization has been responsible for most radical of the environmental changes caused

by humans

A a B the C some of which D which are the

Question 24: For the first time in 70 years, aspirin's potential beyond reducing pain, fever and

inflammation

A researchers began to understand B researchers begin understanding

C researcher's understanding of D researchers began their understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underline word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground

A changed his decision B refused to change his decision C felt sorry for us D wanted to continue Question 26: Between you and me, so don‘t tell anyone, I‘m sure he‘ll lose the election

A In conclusion B In fact C.In truth D In confidence

Question 27: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day

Question 28: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers

A concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B are selfish C are cruel D attack suddenly

Question 29: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!

A considerably B thoroughly C altogether D specificially

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs correction

Question 30:There will always be a job for Mike if he changehis mind

they once inhabited

Question 34: After writing it , the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the department

Question 36: A proportion B portion C amount D rate

Question 44: A melting B change C conversion D replacement

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from number

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial

problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare And since man‘s

inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend

that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop

Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its

desiccating effects No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there Few large animals are found The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest Its population is

largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth Yet they are not emaciated Having

adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word

The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes So most

of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only

by night The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the

temperature is only 60 degrees

Question 45: The title for this passage could be _

A ―Desert Plants‖ B ―Life Underground‖

C ―Animal Life in a Desert Environment‖ D ―Man‘s Life in a Desert Environment‖

Question 46: The word ―inexorable‖ in the passage mostly means _

A relentless B full C demanding D essential

Question 47: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _

A sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B water is an essential part of his existence

C water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D very few large animals are found in the desert

Question 48: The phrase ―those forms‖ in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _

A water-loving animals B the coyote and the bobcat

C moist-skinned animals D many large animals

Question 49: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _

A are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B live in an accommodating environment

C are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest

D are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world

Question 50: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT _

A they sleep during the day B they dig home underground

C they are noisy and aggressive D they are watchful and quiet

Question 51: The word ―emaciated‖ in the passage mostly means _

Question 52: the word ―Them‖ means

Question 53: The word ―burrows‖ in the passage mostly means _

A ―places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young‖

B ―holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in‖

C ―structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept‖

D ―places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found‖

Question 54: We can infer from the passage that _

A living things adjust to their environment B water is the basis of desert life

C desert life is colorful and diverse D healthy animals live longer lives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is

a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh It is the largest single structure in the world The four sides of the pyramid are

aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat The ancient

Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based

on astronomical observations

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past Others are prophesied

for future generations and are currently under investigation Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past

Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today? Question 55: What has research of the base revealed?

A there are cracks in the foundation B Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh‘s body

C The lines represent important events D A superior race of people built in

Question 56: Extraterrestrial beings are _

A very strong workers B astronomers in the ancient times

C researchers in Egyptology D living beings from other planets

Question 57: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages

A To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly B To permit the high priests to pray at night

B To enable the Pharaoh‘s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife

D To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh

Question 58: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to

A accomplishment B Appendage C festivity D structure

Question 59: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?

A Architects‘plan for the hidden passages B Pathways of the great solar bodies

C Astrological computations D Dates of important events taking place throughout time Question 60: In the second passage , the word ‗ prophesied‘ is closest in meaning to

A affiliated B precipitated C terminated D foretold

Question 61: What is the best title for the passage?

A Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid

C Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

Question 62: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A Observation of the celestial bodies B Advanced technology

C Advanced tools of measurement D knowledge of the earth‘s surface

Question 63: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?

A As a solar observatory B As a religious temple

C As a tomb for the Pharaoh D as an engineering feat

Question 64: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?

A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies

B It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C It was built by a super race D It is very old

Question 67:Hanoi city isn‘t as big as Ho Chi Minh city

Ho Chi Minh City

Question 68:No one has seen Linda since the day of the party

PRACTICE TEST 4 I PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: ( 8 điểm) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A drought B fought C brought D bought Question 2: A builds B destroys C occurs D prevents Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3: A include B achieve C replace D comment Question 4: A comfortable B attractive C secretive D necessary Question 5: A appearance B telephone C government D leadership Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 30 Question 6: At first she was trained to be _scriptwriter, but later she worked as secretary A the / a B a / a C the / the D a / the Question 7: ― Don‘t look so worried! You should take the leader‘s comment with .‖ A a teaspoon of salt B a cup of salt C a dose of salt D a pinch of salt Question 8: Three pounds of butter in this recipe A needs B need C are needed D is needed Question 9: Our project was successful its practicality A in terms of B with a view to C regardless D on behalf of Question 10: Of the two new students, one is friendly and _ A the others are not B the other is not C another is unfriendly D other lacks friendliness Question 11: There is one person to I owe more than I can say

A whom B who C that D whose Question 12: After a good night‘s sleep I woke up feeling as fresh as and eager to start a new day A a fruit B a daisy C a flower D a maiden Question 13: Mary is sixteen years old She is _ young to get married A too B so C such D enough

Question 14: is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment

A extinction B biodiversity C habitat D conservation Question 15: Since we to working so hard, can we rest for a while? A don‘t used B aren‘t used C don‘t use D not use Question 16: - Kate: ― How lovely your cats are!‖ - David: ― ‖ A Really? They are B Thank you, it is nice of you to say so

Question 17: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _ in water sport game yesterday

Question 18: Toxic chemicals in the air and land have driven many species to the _ of extinction

Question 19: She ran an interesting article about fashion while she was reading the newspaper

Question 20: It‘s essential that every student all the lectures

A attends B attend C has attended D attended

Question 21: It‘s a secret You _ let anyone know about it

Question 22: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to their houses

Question 23: - Anne: ― Make yourself at home‖ - John: ― ‖

A Thanks! Same to you B That‘s very kind Thank you

C Not at all Don‘t mention it D Yes, Can I help you?

Question 24: He managed to keep his job _the manager had threatened to sack him

A therefore B although C unless D despite

Question 25: A: _ B: Oh, thank you I just got it yesterday

A When have you got this beautiful dress?

C You‘ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven‘t you?

B How a beautiful dress you‘re wearing!

D That‘s a beautiful dress you have on!

Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school _ had trouble talking with people when I

was traveling in the US

A Therefore, I B Otherwise, I C Although I D However, I

Question 27: _ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing

A Frost is produced

C What produces frost

B Frost produces

D What is frost produced

Question 28: All _ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life

A what is needed B for our needs C the thing needed D that is needed

Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I _ an hour earlier

A Must have arrived

C should have arrived

B had to arrive

D was supposed to arrive

Question 30: There seems to be a large _ between the number of people employed in service industries,

and those employed in the primary sectors

A discriminate B discretion C discrepancy D distinguish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 31 to 32

Question 31: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out

Question 32: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication

A using gesture B using speech C using verbs D using facial expressions

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 33 to 34

Question 33: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest

A hungry B rich C poor D full

Question 34: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment

A ease B attraction C consideration D speculation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs

In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness The researchers have come up a number

of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness

First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words, happiness (40) _ in families And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so

Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness In particular, friends are a great (41) of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (42) such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship Marriage and similar (43) relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness

Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (44) overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (45) both ways Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but (46) _ by social interactions with co-workers Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness

Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (47) than most other causes of happiness Activities (48) _ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy This is partly because of the (49) themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups

Question 42 A movements B signals C slogans D motions

Question 44 A consists of B applies to C counts on D contributes to

Question 49 A facilities B activities C exercises D amenities

Read the following passage and circle the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 50 to 59

American Online is one of the big names on the Internet, and unlike many other digital companies, it actually makes a profit But the company which its rivals call the ―Cyber –cockroach‖ was launched only in 1992 Before that, it was a small firm called control Video Corporation, and it made video games Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive arrived and took the company online, innovative, fast moving, and user-friendly, American online appeals to people who want to search the Internet, but who do not have a lot of experience For the same reason ―teachies‖, people who think they are more expert with computers, look down on American Online and its users Recently, American Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time Warn – a multi-million dollar movie and magazine company-to create a multi media giant

Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad In many European countries, including the United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL introductory offer The company also puts

advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like train stations As the Internet gets faster, AOL is changing With many homes getting high-speed connection through fiber optic cables, or the new ADSL technology, the ―Cyber-cockroach‖ will have to show that like real cockroaches, it can survive in almost any environment

Question 50 : What is the passage about?

.Question 51 : The word ―it‖ in line…… refers to:

C Control video corporation D digital company

Question 52 : Who does Steve Case work for?

C Control video Corporation D None of these

Question 53 : How do ―teachies‖ feel about American Online?

A They think it is a Cyber-cockroach B They think it is for experts

C They think it is a movie and a magazine company D They feel superior to its users

Question 54 : American Online has the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A innovative B experienced C user-friendly D fast moving

Question 55 : People who use American Online are probably:

Question 56 : American Online is an unusual digital company because:

A it used to make video games B it is innovative

Question 57 : Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?

A advertisements on the Internet B advertisements on TV

Question 58 : What does the article say about AOL‘s future?

C it will face challenges D The article doesn‘t say

Question 59 : What is this passage mainly concerned with?

Read the following passage and circle the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 60 to 64

The United Nations is a group of government from around the world that work together to solve the world‘s problems and prevent wars Sometimes the United Nations is successful, and sometimes it is not There used to be a group similar to the United Nations called the League of Nations U.S President Woodrow Wilson started the League of Nations after World War I because he didn‘t want the world to have another

huge, destructive war He knew that the world needed a way to solve its problems without fighting

Unfortunately, the League of Nations had little power Its members often broke its rules, and it did not stop the next big war, World War II After World War II, the world ended the League of Nations and began the United Nations

Question 60 : What is the purpose of the United Nations?

A To stop World War II

B To prevent wars

C To give more power to the League of Nations

D To make better governments around the world

Question 61 : When did the League of Nations start?

A After the United Nations was unsuccessful

B After World War II

C After World War I

D After Woodrow died

Question 62 : All of the following are true of the League of Nations EXCEPT

A Woodrow Wilson started it

B It was successful in preventing large wars

C It didn‘t have much power

D Its members didn‘t follow its rules

Question 63 : The word “destructive” in bold in the passage most closely means

Question 64 : Which of the following is true of the League of Nations?

A The League of Nations was always successful in preventing wars

B The members of League of Nations often obeyed its rules

C The United Nations is called the League of Nations

D The United Nations was established after the League of Nations ended

WRITING

Part I Finish each of the following sentences in s uch a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it

Question 65: This is the most interesting novel I‘ve ever read

I have never ………

Question 66: I can‘t cook as well as my mother can My mother ………

Question 67: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight It was not ………

Question 68: You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty Should ………

Question 69: He is very strong but he still can‘t lift that box Although ……… ……

II Write a composition of around 100 words in order to answer the following question: It is very important that children should study hard at school Time spent studying on the Internet is time wasted Do you agree or disagree? State the reasons for your answer

PRACTICE TEST 5

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A dissolved B blamed C misused D increased

Question 2: A amuses B purses C blouses D pleases

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A economics B material C delicious D unpopular

Question 4: A inference B reference C inferior D redundancy

Question 5: A mechanic B memorial C machine D mechanism

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: My cousin obviously didn't _ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting

her

Question 7: The tennis match was put off because of the heavy rain

Question 8: This ring is made of plastic so it‘s not valuable

Question 9: He denied _ there at the time

Question 10: Out _ from its tiny cage

A does the bird fly B flew the bird C did the bird fly D fly the bird

Question 11: Have you had much experience _ computers?

Question 12: It was very difficult to understand what he was saying about the noise of the traffic

Question 13 Begin _ the beginning of the story

Question 14: ―I‘m tired of the same old routine.‖ _ ―I know how you feel I get tired of doing the same

things day in _.‖

A and day off B and day on C and day of D and day out

Question 15: She _$ 20 out of the bank every Monday

Question 16: The book is written by a famous anthropologist It‘s about the people in Samoa _ for two

years

Question 17: Everyone in our class _ his suggestion

Question 18: It is true, then, that a great many people-and a great many people are _ in the use of

English

Question 19: The people at the party were worried about Jane because no one was aware _ she had

gone

A where that B the place C of where D of the place where

Question 20: What do you think of your new bookkeeper?‖

- ―He works _ his figures never need .‖

A such efficiently that / to check C so efficient that / checking

B so efficiently that / to be checked D such an efficient that / to be checked

Question 21: John pretended _ sick yesterday

Question 22: Mary was the last applicant _ by that interviewer

A to be interviewed B to interview C to be interviewing D to have interviewed

Question 23: Not until the Triassic Period _

A the first primitive mammals develop B did develop the first primitive mammals

C the first primitive mammals did develop D did the first primitive mammals develop

Question 24: _ of bananas are cheap today

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: S Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr

Mayo‘s outstanding humanitarianism

A exhaustive B charitable C remarkable D widespread

Question 26: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly

which 4 comics she was going to buy

Question 27: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play

A skillful B famous C perfect D modest

Question 28: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller

finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader

Question 29: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours

A uninterested B unsure C open D slow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 30: She is no longer young to enter a beautiful contest

This is because newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (38) placed in libraries and other (39) _ places Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies About a third of all newspapers are

published in North America, (40) third in Europe, and the (41) third in the rest of the world Countries with the highest newspaper (42) are Britain, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the United

States Europe has nearly half of the world's total newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter, and

the rest of the world another quarter Taking the world (43) , the average circulation of dailies per 1,000 persons is about 100, but there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (44) ever seen

Question 35: A exact B correct C precise D right

Question 36: A mixed B combined C connected D linked

Question 38: A another B the others C others D the rest

Question 40: A the other B the next C another D the last

Question 42: A readers B buyers C readership D subscribers

Question 43: A as a whole B generally C on general D in all

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54

The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt Rain is relatively scarce, and the summers are scorching hot Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the Nile

is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world Its rich black soil is the result of accumulation of

silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago From June to October, the river overflowed its banks Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding The floodwaters left behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops As long as the soil was well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley more than 5000 years ago The earliest Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks, drawing along the Nile became wealthy, and they embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods In about 3100

BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes He and his descendants made up Egypt's first ruling family, or dynasty His rule led to the great development of the arts like writing, painting, architecture, and crafts Egyptian power and influence were to last for the next 2000 years The Egyptian kings had absolute powers The king possesses all the land and the peasants had to surrender part of their crops to the king An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact amount of due from the individual farmers Crops and livestock were often seen at the storehouses surrounding the royal palaces In return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects Egypt's

trade with the outside world stretches far and wide In return for gold, copper, gemstones, and building

stones, it purchases the goods that it did not have Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came from Lebanon From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported from Mesopotamia Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes Egypt held Nubia in the south for almost 800 years It served as Egypt's most vital source of gold and slaves

Question 45: The civilization of the ancient Egyptians was brought about by _

A Egypt's first ruling family

0B the rich soil of the Nile

C Egypt's trade with the outside world

D the highly-developed writing, painting, architecture and crafts

Question 46: Egyptian slaves came from _

A Syria and Anatolia B Palestine C Mesopotamia D Lebanon

Question 47: The king was wealthy because _

A he possessed all the land B huge irrigation projects were set up

C he was in absolute power D farmers paid him their tribute

Question 48: The writer said that the annual flooding of the Nile _

A needed to be controlled B led to the discovery of new mines

C caused an influx of foreign traders D helped to develop the arts

Question 49: According to the passage, the king was wise _

A to own slaves and gold B to pay for huge irrigation projects

C to control the land D to import the things that Egypt did not have

Question 50: In return for, in the first line, last paragraph, refers to _

C the respect Egypt received D the protection the Egyptian army provided

Question 51: A suitable title for this passage is _

A The Farming Methods of the Egyptians B The Landscape of the Egypt

C The Might of the Egyptian Army D The Civilization of the Ancient Egyptians

Question 52: We know the Egyptian Empire was powerful from the _

A long period it extended its power and influence B way its army fought with other invaders

C number of crops grown in one season D trade and business done with other nations

Question 53: Farm crops would be _ if there was no water for irrigation

Question 54: From June to October, the flood plains would be _

A open to the building of new B left to the sowing of new crops dams

C raised to a higher level D inundated with floodwaters from the Nile

Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides,

are found in nature As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various

chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output

of these compounds dwarfs those resulting form human activities However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city

In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural

purification scheme of the cycle The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air The

concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to

be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area For example, sulfur dioxide has

detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level Carbon

monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about

15 ppm

Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The economic impact of air pollution B What constitutes an air pollutant?

C How much harm air pollutants can cause D The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere

Question 56: The word "adversely" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

A water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled

C the definition of air pollution will continue to change

D a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities

Question 58: The word "altered" in line 10 is closest in meaning to _

Question 59: Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the

following reasons?

A They function as part of a purification process

B They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants

C They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants

D They have existed since the Earth developed

Question 60: According to the passage, which of the following is true about human-generated air pollution

in localized regions?

A It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region

B It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants

C It will damage areas outside of the localized regions

D It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants

Question 61: The word "noxious' in line 16 is closest in meaning to _

Question 62: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only

useful if

A the other substances in the area are known B it is in a localized area

C the naturally occurring level is also known D it can be calculated quickly

Question 63: The word "detectable" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

A beneficial B special C measurable D separable

Question 64: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?

A To effectively control pollution local government should regularly review their air pollution laws

B One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws

C Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants

D Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution

PRACTICE TEST 6

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 2: A teacher B children C chore D school

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A disappearance B vulnerable C conservation D generation

Question 4: A attract B person C signal D instance

Question 5: A situation B appropriate C informality D entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: Nancy: ― ‖ - Sue: ―Great Thanks.‖

A Be careful! B Excuse me! C How are you doing? D What are you doing?

Question 7: _the film‘s director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off of the 85th Oscar‘s Best Director list of nominees surprised everyone

Question 8: Sales of the Chinese toys dropped sharply when the TV news reported that high levels

of toxic lead had been found in painted toys

Question 9: Would you mind me a favor and posting this letter for me?

Question 10: It is imperative that your face book password confidential

Question 11: You should look up the meaning of the new word in the dictionary misuse it

Question 12: I would be very rich now working long ago

A if I gave up B if I wouldn‘t give up C were I to give up D had I not given up

Question 13: The noise of the airplanes _from the airport over my house was unbearable at times

A which taking off B taking off C which was taking off D to take off

Question 14: I know you have been working very hard today Let's and go home

A pull my leg B call it a day C put your back up D pros and cons

Question 15: Many habitats change the types of plants and animals that live there

A with respect to B in respect for C as for D as against

Question 16: In this company, there has been little for the needs of part - time workers

Question 17: Ms Jane gave her short speech to express her for the retirement gift

A appeasement B applause C apportionment D appreciation

Question 18: Tom: ―Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.‖ -Mary: ― ‖

A I have nothing to tell you C Never mind!

Question 19: Children should be by their parents on the first day of school

Question 20: People have used coal and oil to electricity for a long time

Question 21: We are considering having for the coming New Year

C our flat to be redecorated D our flat redecorated

Question 22: About 20 percent of U.S electricity currently _ nuclear power plants

A come from B coming to C comes from D came from

Question 23: The salary of a computer programmer is a teacher

A as twice much as C twice as higher as that

B as much as twice of D twice as high as that of

Question 24: Tony didn‘t study hard for the test His answers from someone else

A should have copied B must have been copied

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied

Question 26: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play

A skillful B famous C perfect D modest

Question 27: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller

finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader

A requesting B trying C offering D deciding

Question 28: Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for

angriculture

A destruction B contamination C fertilizer D variety

Question 29: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking

you

A be related to B express interest in C be interested in D pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 30: It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men

Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region's human capital This claim is made on the (39) _ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate people, generally have a higher socio-economic (40) _ and enjoy better health and employment prospects Policy makers also argue that literacy increases job opportunities and access to higher education In Kerala, India, for example, female and child mortality rates declined (41) _ in the 1960s, when girls who were educated in the education reforms after 1948 began to raise families Recent researchers, (42) _, argue that

correlations such as, the one listed above may have more to do with the effects of schooling rather than literacy in general Regardless, the (43) of educational systems worldwide includes a basic (44) around communication through test and print, which is the foundation of most definitions of literacy

Question 35: A adaptable B suitable C adequate D important

Question 37: A associated B worked C appropriated D related

Question 38: A ability B knowledge C performance D behavior

Question 39: A foundations B ways C grounds D basics

Question 49: A condition B request C state D status

Question 41: A dramatically B extremely C actually D accurately

Question 42: A additionally B however C therefore D consequently

Question 44: A content B concept C contact D context

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54

The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information For all

of the Internet‘s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative solutions Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed

First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet In 1996, over 50 million people used it Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles The rapid growth has been a problem The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep up with the demand Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass

through many routing computers before the information can be obtained A request for information made

in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the required information Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable Service also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also when companies need its service the most

Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this

problem In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known

as Internet II Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use Since it is more specialized, fewer users are allowed access Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased

Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II Many businesses are

creating their own ―Intranets‖ These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose branches need to share information Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of security Since only company employees have access to the information

on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors While there is little doubt that the Internet

will eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks

Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is not true of the Internet?

A It tends to be unreliable B It has created a sense of financial security

C It is too expensive to access D It has become increasingly less popular

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?

A the Internet was a secure means to gain information

B the Internet experienced enormous growth rates

C Internet data proved to be impractical

D Few people were using the Internet

Question 47: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?

A Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic

B Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet

C Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination

D Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else

Question 48: The word ―obtained‖ in line 10 is closest in meaning to

Question 49: The word ―harness‖ in line 15 is closest in meaning to

Question 50: According to the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?

A There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II

B Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet

C Internet II contains more information than the Internet

D Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access

Question 51: The word ―analogue‖ in line 20 most nearly means

Question 52: The word ―their‖ in line 25 refers to

A competitors B company employees C Intranets D companies

Question 53: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?

A Fewer academic communities need to create their own Internet systems

B Companies who develop their own Intranets are limiting their information data base

C The technology used by Internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand

D An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker

Question 54: All of the following are advantages of business ―Intranets‖ mentioned in the passage

EXCEPT _

A they provide a higher level of security

B they share information with other company branches

C they are cheaper than other alternatives

D they move data faster

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64

American and British people both speak English, of course, but sometimes it does not seem like the same language In fact, there are some important differences between British and American English

First of all, they sound very different Often, Americans don‘t say all the letters in each word, especially consonants like ―t‖ and ―d‖ For example, Americans may say ―I dunno‖ instead of ―I don‘t know, or they may say ―Whaddya say‖ instead of ―What do you say?‖ However, the British usually pronounce their consonatnts carefully

Also, some letters have different sounds For example, Americans say the ―a‖ in ―class‖ like ―a‖ in ―cat‖, but the British say the ―a‖ in ―class‖ like the ―a‖ in ―half‖ The ―r‖ is sometimes said differently, too When an American says ―farmer‖, you can usually hear ―r‖ But you can‘t hear ―r‖ in British English The British say

―fahmah‖

Sound is not the only difference between British English and American English The two languages have differnt words for somethings For example, the words for clothing atre different Americans use the word

―sweater‖, but the English say ―jumper‖ American wear ―vests‖ under their shirts An American man wears

a ―tuxedo‖ to a very fancy party, but an English man wears a ―dinner jacket‖ Americans talk about ―pants‖

or ―slacks‖ but the British talk about ―trousers‖

Many expressions are also different in the two countries In England, if you are going to telephone friends, you ‗ring them up‖ In America, ―you give them a call‖ The Brtish use the word ―lovely‖ to describe something they like Americans use the word ―nice‖ or ―great‖

There are also some differences in grammar For example, Americans almost always use the helping verb

―do‖ with the verb ―have‖ They might say, ―Do you have an extra pen?‖ The British often ask the question a different way They might say, ―Have you got an extra pen?‖

These diffences can be confusing if you are learning English But there is a reason for the differences Language change over time When the same language is used in different places, it changes differently in each place This is what happened to English It also happened to other languages, such as French Many people in Canada speak Frence, but their French is different from the French spoken in France

(Sourse: ―Reading Power‖- Beatrice S Mikulecky & Linda Jeferies Longman, New York)

Question 55: This article is about _

A English vocabulary

B the way the British say words

C how American sounds are different from British sounds

D how American English is different from British English

Question 56: Compared the British, Americans are usually _

A more careful about saying consonant B less careful about saying consonants

Question 57: Some letters in English _

A always sound the same in the United States and England

B don‘t change whether they are spoken in the United States or England

C have different sounds in the United States and England

D have an unusual sound in the United States and England

Question 58: The words for clothing are _

A an example of British English B different in the United States and England

C an example of modern technology D the same in the United States and England

Question 59: The word ―slacks‖ in American English means _ in British English

A vests B jumpers C trousers D jackets

Question 60: People in the United States and in England _

A always use the same expressions B often say goodbye

C don‘t use expressions often D sometimes use different expressions

Question 61: When Americans ask questions, they almost always _

A use the helping verb ―do‖ B don‘t use the helping verb

C don‘t use any grammar D cause confusion

Question 62: Learners of English can get confused because _

A English never changes

B English is different in different places

C British English is more difficult than other languages

D British English is the only kind of English

Question 63: According to the passage, languages _

Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following statements in NOT true?

A Americans do not pronounce ―farmer‖ the same as the British

B French spoken in Canada is different from French spoken in France

C People in the United States call some things different from people in England

D There is no difference in grammar between British English and American English

PRACTICE TEST 7

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A resort B present C consume D result

Question 2: A reserved B locked C forced D touched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A partnership B romantic C actually D attitude

Question 4: A environment B establish C emergency D organization

Question 5: A initiate B medical C rapidly D possible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: This old businessman is said _ school at the age of thirteen

A that left B to leave C to have left D that having left

Question 7: I still like Betty _ she is sometimes annoying

A because B despite C since D even though

Question 8: What was that notice _ ?

A at that you were looking B you were looking at

C you were looking at it D which you were looking

Question 9: If anything urgent comes _, you can contact me at this number

Question 10: She was wearing a pair of _

A white German leather running shoes B German leather white running shoes

C running white German leather shoes D leather white German running shoes

Question 11: It is often considered to be impolite to _at someone

A point B smile C look D raise

Question 12: I will have this letter _ tomorrow

A type B typed C to type D typing

Question 13: – ―What an attractive hair style you have got!‖

- ― _‖

A Thank you very much I am afraid B You are telling a lie

C Thank you for your compliment D I don‘t like your sayings

Question 14: I think we need a break We _ hard for the last three hours

A worked B have been working

C had been working D were working

Question 15: Florida, _ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year

A is B known as C is known as D that is known as

Question 16: They suggested that animals should be kept in their natural

A habitat B habit C inhabitant D Habitation

Question 17: The computer needs It's broken

A to repair B repaired C repairing D be repaired

Question 18: Jack: ―I‘m going to take a five-day trip to Rome.‖

Jill: ― ‖

A The same to you B No, of course not

C Yes, let‘s D Have a good time

Question 19: It was a mistake of you to lose your passport

A You shouldn't have lost your passport

B There must be a mistake in your passport

C You needn't have brought your passport

D Your passport must be lost

Question 20: His wife has excellent _ in clothes

A taste B flavour C choice D habit

Question 21: This conversation project looks promising, but it‘s still _

A in the early stages B in advance

C understress D at first sight

Question 22: He found _to answer all the questions within the time given

A that impossible B it impossible C it impossibly D that impossibly

Question 23: Not until 1856 _ across the Mississippi River

A the first bridge was built B was the first bridge built

C the first building a brdge D the bridge building was

Question 24: She had changed so much that _ anyone recognised her

A almost B not C hardly D nearly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of

Red Cross Societies in 1991

Question 26: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime

A complain B exchange C explain D arrange

Question 27: Variations in the color of sea water from blue to green seem to be caused by high or low

concentrations of salt

A Changes B Descriptions C.Measures D Clarity

Question 28: The landscape can change abruptly after a rainstorm in the desert Southwest

A quickly B sharply C favorably D slightly

Question 29: The new suit he has bought is unfortunately made of synthetic material

A blended B silken C artificial D natural

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 30: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you

areas, or in very poor family

Question 32: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before

infested with termites

Question 34: They are going to have to leave soon and so do we

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

In the western customs (35) _ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the

head or (36) _ bow is sufficient Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon Business cards are often (37) _ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift or -any other article using (38) _ hands The Chinese are (39) _ applauders You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children When a person is applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When walking in public places, direct eye (40) _ and staring is uncommon in the larger cities, especially in those areas accustomed to foreign visitors (41) _, in smaller communities, visitors may be the subject of much curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares (42) _ speaking, the Chinese are not a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors So, avoid (43) _ or any prolonged form of body contact Public displays of affection are very rare On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship Do not worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or trains In this case, (44) _ are neither offered or expected The Chinese will stand much closer than Westerners

Question 35: A taking B shaking C grasping D hugging

Question 36: A small B bit C slight D light

Question 37:A exchanged B changed C transferred D converted

Question 38: A pair B couple C double D both

Question 39: A enthusiast B enthusiastic C enthusiasm D enthusiastically

Question 40: A contact B look C stare D watch

Question 41: A Moreover B Furthermore C However D Whatever

Question 42: A Generally B Successfully C Fortunately D Expectedly

Question 43: A touch B to touch C touched D touching

Question 44: A Contacts B Apologies C Gestures D Saying goodbye

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides No other force that affects the sea is so strong Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep

The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun

Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide

is correspondingly later each day And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides

At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie

at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month

Question 45: What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A The waves created by ocean currents are very large

B Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water

C Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water

D The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water

Question 46: The word "felt" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

A based B dropped C detected D explored

Question 47: The words "In reality" in line 8 are closest in meaning to

A surprisingly B actually C characteristically D similarly

Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much

gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is

A size B distance C temperature D density

Question 49: The word "correspondingly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A unpredictably B interestingly C similarly D unusually

Question 50: What is the cause of spring tides?

A Seasonal changes in the weather

B The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth

C The Earth's movement around the Sun

D The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon

Question 51: The word "configuration" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A unit B center C surface D arrangement

Question 52:Neap tides occur when

A the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction

B the Moon is full

C the Moon is farthest from the Sun

D waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction

Question 53: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT:

A The time of high tide is later each day

B Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do

C The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon

D Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides

Question 54: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those

caused by tides?

A Lines 2-5 B Lines 10-11 C Lines 12-13 D Lines 17-20

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States are most foods only in season Drying,

smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh

milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas

Appert developed the cooking – and sealing process of canning And in the 1850‘s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860‘s but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year

Other trends and invention had also helped it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to

preserve them for longer periods Thus, by the 1890‘s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and

western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870‘s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two

thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries The icebox became a fixture in most

homes and remained so until mechanized refrigerator replaced it in 1920‘s and 1930‘s

Almost everyone had a more diversified diet Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy

in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat Nevertheless, many families could take

advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare

Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A Causes of food spoilage

B Commercial production of ice

C Inventions that led to changes in the American diet

D Population movements in the nineteenth century

Question 56:The phrase ― in season‖ in paragraph 1 refers to

A a kind of weather B a particular time of year

C an official schedule D a method of flavoring food

Question 57: The word ―prevent‖ is closest in meaning to

A estimate B avoid C correct D confine

Question 58: During the 1860‘s, canned food products were

A unavailable in rural areas B shipped in refrigerator cars

C available in limited quantities D a staple part of the American diet

Question 59: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use

A before 1860 B before 1890 C after 1900 D after 1920

Question 60: The word ―them‖ in paragraph 2 refers to

A refrigerator cars B perishables C growers D distances

Question 61: The word ―fixture‖ is closest in meaning to

A luxury item B substance

C commonplace object D mechanical device

Question 62: The author implies that in 1920‘s and 1930‘s home deliveries of ice

A decreased in number B were on an irregular schedule

C increased in cost D occurred only in the summer

Question 63:The word ―Nevertheless‖ is closest in meaning to

A therefore B because C occasionally D however

Question 64: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?

A Drying B Canning C Cold storage D Chemical additive

Question 66: I haven‘t been to the cinema for two years

The last time………

Question 67: People say that he has been all over the world

He is

Question 68: Although Mary was exhausted, she agreed to join in the activity

Exhausted ………

Question 69: ―You mustn‘t come out of this shop now.‖

The policeman stopped the customer ………

Part II In about 140 words, write a paragraph about measures to protect endangered species

PRACTICE TEST 8

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunctiation in each of the following questions

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A communicate B impatient C interesting D apologize

Question 4: A activity B psychology C information D development

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 6: When I _ up this morning, my roommate _ already

A am waking / leaves B wake / has left C woke / had left D was waking / left

Question 7: Something about global warming or else some types of penguins will perish from the

earth

A should do B should be done C should be doing D should have done

Question 8: Had you told me that this was going to happen, I it

A would never have believed B don't believe C hadn't believed D can't believe

Question 9:Technology is advancing so rapidly nowadays that computers and other machines seem to be

after a very short time

Question 10: Thanks to the of paper, many books have been kept for a very long time

Question 11: , dolphins have no sense of smell

A As known as far B It is known as far C Known thus far as D As far as is known Question 12: _ at home, I would enjoy my favourite show

Question 13: Mary eats she used to

A fewer meat and bananas than

C less meat and fewer bananas than

B less and less meat and bananas than

D the least meat and fewest bananas than

Question 14: Don‘t waste your time telling Janet a joke She totally of a sense of humour

Question 15: Mary has just had her hair cut Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the

following exchange

- Anne: "What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!"

- Mary: " _"

A Thank you very much I am afraid B You are telling a lie

C Thank you for your compliment D I don't like your sayings

Question 16: Many wildlife parks have been installed security cameras to guard against _ who

regularly hunt wild animals illegally

A poachers B conservationists C environmentalists D authority

Question 17: It is that changes women's lives and the perception of women's roles

A educate B education C educational D educated

Question 18: The early railroads were the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes,

canals, and other waterways

A those short line connected B short lines that connected

C connected by short lines D short connecting lines

Question 19: I tried to be diplomatic, but I couldn‘t help losing my temper

Question 20: The player gave a hard shot straight into the opposing goal

A beauty B beautiful C beautify D beautifully

Question 21: In economics, a country's _ is the total value of goods and services produced within a

country in a year, not including its income from investments in other countries

Question 22: My husband and I take turns cleaning the kitchen depending who gets

home from work earlier

Question 23: What does "www" for? Is it short for ―world wide web?‖

Question 24: Someone who is _ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools

Question 26: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual

meeting in May

Question 27: Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise

Question 28: In synchronized swimming, the players perform beautiful maneuvers to music and diving

A swimming suits

C scuba sets

B tools for swimming

D movements that need skill and care

Question 29: Women bear more than half of all work done

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 30: One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide

study options in the world

Question 32: In several parts of Asia, there is still a strong market for traditional

of children are universal development UNICEF mobilizes political will and material (39) _ to help countries, particularly developing countries, ensure a "first call for children" and to, build their capacity to form appropriate policies and (40) _ services for children and their families UNICEF is committed to ensuring special protection for (41) _ most disadvantaged children - victims of war, disasters, extreme poverty, all forms of violence and (42) _ and those with disabilities UNICEF responds in emergencies

to protect the rights of children In coordination with United Nations partners and humanitarian agencies, UNICEF makes its unique facilities for rapid response available to its partners to (43) _ the suffering of children and those who provide their care UNICEF is non-partisan and its cooperation is free from discrimination In everything it does, the most disadvantaged children and the countries in greatest need have priority UNICEF (44) _, through its country programs, to promote the equal rights of women and girls and to support their full participation in the political, social, and economic development of their communities

Question 35: A protest B destruction C protection D achievement

Question 36: A admits B suggests C adopts D tries

Question 37: A poverty B behavior C medicine D injure

Question 40: A care B appeal C supply D react

Question 42: A exploit B exploited C exploiter D exploitation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54

Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather-torrential rains, severe thunderstorms, and tornadoes-begin quickly, strike suddenly, and dissipate rapidly, devastating small regions while leaving neighboring areas untouched One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton,

Total damages from the tornado exceeded $ 250 million, the highest ever for any Canadian storm Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited value in predicting short-live local storms like the Edmonton tornado, because the available weather data are generally not detailed enough to allow

computers to discern the subtle atmospheric changes that precede these storms In most nations, for example,

weatherballoon observations are taken just once every twelve hours at locations typically separated by hundreds of miles With such limited data, conventional forecasting models do a much better job predicting general weather conditions over large regions than they do forecasting specific local events Until recently, the observation-intensive approach needed for accurate, very shortrange forecasts, or

"Nowcasts", was not feasible The cost of equipping and operating many thousands of conventional weather stations was prohibitively high, and the difficulties involved in rapidly collecting and processing the raw weather data from such a network were insurmountable Fortunately, scientific and technological advances have overcome most of these problems Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all capable of making detailed, nearly continuous observation over large regions at a relatively low cost Communications satellites can transmit data around the world cheaply and instantaneously, and modern

computers can quickly compile and analyzing this large volume of weather information Meteorologists and

computer scientists now work together to design computer programs and video equipment capable of

transforming raw weather data into words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that forecasters can interpret

easily and quickly As meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather forecasting offices, Nowcasting is becoming a reality

Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A Computers and weather B Dangerous storms

C Weather forecasting D Satellites

Question 46: Why does the author mention the tornado in Edmonton, Canada?

A To indicate that tornadoes are common in the summer

B To give an example of a damaging storm

C To explain different types of weather

D To show that tornadoes occur frequently in Canada

Question 47: The word 'subtle' in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A complex B regular C imagined D slight

Question 48: Why does the author state in line 10 that observations are taken 'just once every twelve hours'?

A To indicate that the observations are timely

B To show why the observations are of limited value

C To compare data from balloons and computers

D To give an example of international cooperation

Question 49: The word 'they' in line 13 refers to

A models B conditions C regions D events

Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an advance in short-range weather forecasting?

A Weather balloons B Radar systems

C Automated instruments D Satellites

Question 51: The word 'compile' in line 23 is closest in meaning to

Question 52: With Nowcasting, it first became possible to provide information about

A short-lived local storms B radar networks

C long-range weather forecasts D general weather conditions

Question 53: The word 'raw' in line 25 is closest in meaning to

Question 54: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?

A Communications satellites can predict severe weather

B Meteorologists should standardize computer programs

C The observation-intensive approach is no longer useful

D Weather predictions are becoming more accurate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct What causes

extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may perish The exact causes of

a species‘ death vary from situation to situation Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile

to a species For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be adapt Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources

Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the

death of a species

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass extinction

One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of

dinosaurs and many other forms of life Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many

species If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the

oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have

tended to be more intense every 26 million years The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the earth‘s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative Some researchers have also

speculated that extinction may often be random That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason A species‘ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events

Question 55: The underlined word ―ultimately― is closest in meaning to

A exceptionally B unfortunately C eventually D dramatically

Question 56: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth‘s history?

A They have been able to adapt to ecological changes

B They have caused rapid change in the environment

C They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms

D They are no longer in existence

Question 57: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological

change?

A Availability of food resources B Introduction of new species

C Temperature changes D Competition among species

Question 58: The word ―demise‖ is closest in meaning to

Question 59: Why is ― plankton‖ mentioned in the second paragraph?

A To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction

B To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean

C To point out that certain species could never become extinct

D To demonstrate the interdependence of different species

Question 60: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that

A There has been only one mass extinction in Earth‘s history

B Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth‘s history

C Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive

D Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed

Question 61: The underlined word ― finding‖ is closest in meaning to

A published information B research method

C scientific discovery D ongoing experiment

Question 62: Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in

paragraph 3?

A The theory is no longer seriously considered

B Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate

C Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it

D Evidence to support the theory has recently been found

Question 63: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species‘ survival?

A It is associated with astronomical condition B It may depend on chance events

C It does not vary greatly from species to species D It reflects the interrelationship of may species Question 64: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred

A 65 million years ago B 250 million years ago

C 225 million years ago D 26 million years ago

Question 2: A ranged B bathed C borrowed D stayed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3 : A psychology B entertainment C mathematics D economics

Question 4: A material B completely C economy D tropical