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Trang 1
GENERAL TRAINING Wi vise WaPo WITH ANSWERS
AUTHENTIC PRACTICE TESTS Produced by Cambridge Exams Publishing
Trang 2Ps aK Extra explanations and sample answers in Resource bank
Resources can be found at back of book
~> @ Answer key Audioscript
ẹ Sample Writing answer
RESOURCE BANK
You can access the Listening test audio files, example Speaking test video, answer keys with extra explanations, additional sample Writing answers by scanning the QR code
Trang 3
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GENERAL TRAINING 1c
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WITH ANSWERS
AUTHENTIC PRACTICE TESTS
Produced by Cambridge Exams Publishing
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This is a reprint of the following title published by Cambridge University Press: Cambridge IELTS 15 (General Training) (ISBN: 9781108781626)
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Trang 5Contents Introduction Test 1 Test 2 Test 3 Test 4 Audioscripts
Listening and Reading answer keys
Sample Writing answers
Sample answer sheets
Trang 6Prepare for the exam with practice tests from Cambridge
Inside you'll find four authentic examination papers from Cambridge Assessment English They are the perfect way to practise - EXACTLY like the real exam
Why are they unique?
All our authentic practice tests go through the same design process as the IELTS test We check every single part of our practice tests with real students under exam conditions, to make sure we give you the most authentic experience possible
Students can practise these tests on their own or with the help of a teacher to familiarise themselves with the exam format, understand the scoring system and practise exam technique
Further information
IELTS is jointly managed by the British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and Cambridge Assessment English Further information can be found on the IELTS official website at: ielts.org
WHAT IS THE TEST FORMAT?
IELTS consists of four components All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking tests There is a choice of Reading and Writing tests according to whether a candidate is taking the Academic or General Training module
Academic General Training
For candidates wishing to study at :| For candidates wishing to migrate to an
Trang 7
Introduction The test components are taken in the following order:
Listening
4 parts, 40 items, approximately 30 minutes
Academic Reading General:-Training Reading 3 sections, 40 items or 3 sections, 40 items
60 minutes So thụng See 60 minutes
‘Academic Writing General Training Writing
2 tasks or 2 tasks
60 minutes 60 minutes
Speaking 11 to 14 minutes
Total Test Time
2 hours 44 minutes
GENERAL TRAINING TEST FORMAT
Listening
This test consists of four parts, each with ten questions The first two parts are concerned with social needs The first part is a conversation between two speakers and the second part is a monologue The final two parts are concerned with situations related to educational or training contexts The third part is a conversation between up to four people and the fourth part is a monologue
A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, matching, plan/map/
diagram labelling, form completion, note completion, table completion, flow-chart completion, summary completion, sentence completion and short-answer questions
Candidates hear the recording once only and answer the questions as they listen Ten minutes are allowed at the end for candidates to transfer their answers to the answer sheet
Reading
This test consists of three sections with 40 questions The texts are taken from notices, advertisements, leaflets, newspapers, instruction manuals, books and magazines The first section contains texts relevant to basic linguistic survival in English, with tasks mainly concerned with providing factual information The second section focuses on the work context and involves texts of more complex language The third section involves reading more extended texts, with a more complex structure, but with the emphasis on descriptive and instructive rather than argumentative texts
Trang 8completion, summary completion, note completion, tabie completion, flow-chart completion, diagram-label completion and short-answer questions
Writing
This test consists of two tasks It is suggested that candidates spend about 20 minutes on Task 1, which requires them to write at least 150 words, and 40 minutes on Task 2, which requires them to write at least 250 words Task 2 contributes twice as much as Task 1 to the Writing score
In Task 1, candidates are asked to respond to a given situation with a letter requesting information or explaining the situation They are assessed on their ability to engage in personal correspondence, elicit and provide general factual information, express needs, wants, likes and dislikes, express opinions, complaints, etc
in Task 2, candidates are presented with a point of view, argument or problem They are assessed on their ability to provide general factual information, outline a problem and present a solution, present and justify an opinion, and to evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or argumenis
Candidates are also assessed on their ability to write in an appropriate style More information on assessing the Writing test, including Writing assessment criteria (public version), is available at ielts.org
Speaking
This test takes between 11 and 14 minutes and is conducted by a trained examiner There are three parts:
Part 7
The candidate and the examiner introduce themselves Candidates then answer general questions about themselves, their home/family, their job/studies, their interests and a wide range of similar familiar topic areas This part lasts between four and five minutes
Part 2
The candidate is given a task card with prompts and is asked to talk on a particular topic The candidate has one minute to prepare and they can make some notes if they wish, before speaking for between one and two minutes The examiner then asks one or two questions on the same topic
Part 3
Trang 9
Introduction
HOW IS IELTS SCORED?
IELTS results are reported on a nine-band scale In addition to the score for overall language ability, IELTS provides a score in the form of a profile for each of the four skills (Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking) These scores are also reported on a nine-band scale All scores are recorded on the Test Report Form along with details of the candidate’s nationality, first language and date of birth Each Overall Band Score corresponds to a descriptive statement which gives a summary of the English-language ability of a candidate classified at that level The nine bands and their descriptive statements are as follows:
9 Expert User — Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding
8 Very Good User — Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations Handles complex detailed argumentation well
7 Good User — Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning
6 Competent User — Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations
5 Modest User — Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes Should be able to handle basic communication in own field
4 Limited User — Basic competence is limited to familiar situations Has frequent problems in understanding and expression Is not able to use complex language
3 Extremely Limited User — Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations Frequent breakdowns in communication occur
2 Intermittent User — No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English 41 Non User — Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few
isolated words
Trang 10MARKING THE PRACTICE TESTS
Listening and Reading
The answer keys are on pages 121-128
Each question in the Listening and Reading tests is worth one mark Questions which require letter / Roman numeral answers
* For questions where the answers are letters or Roman numerals, you should write only the number of answers required For example, if the answer is a single letter or numeral you should write only one answer If you have written more letters or numerals than are required, the answer must be marked wrong
Questions which require answers in the form of words or numbers
e Answers may be written in upper or lower case
e Words in brackets are optional — they are correct, but not necessary e Alternative answers are separated by a slash (/)
e lf you are asked to write an answer using a certain number of words and/or (a) number(s), you will be penalised if you exceed this For example, if a question specifies an answer using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and the correct answer is ‘black leather coat’, the answer ‘coat of black leather’ is incorrect
e In questions where you are expected to complete a gap, you should only transfer the necessary missing word(s) onto the answer sheet For example, to complete ‘in the .’, where the correct answer is ‘morning’, the answer ‘in the morning’ would be incorrect
All answers require correct spelling (including words in brackets)
Both US and UK spelling are acceptable and are included in the answer key All standard alternatives for numbers, dates and currencies are acceptable All standard abbreviations are acceptable
You will find additional notes about individual answers in the answer key
Writing
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introduction
HOW SHOULD YOU INTERPRET YOUR SCORES?
At the end of each Listening and Reading answer key you will find a chart which will help you assess whether, on the basis of your Practice Test results, you are ready to take the
IELTS test
in interpreting your score, there are a number of points you should bear in mind Your performance in the real IELTS test will be reported in two ways: there will be a Band Score from 1 to 9 for each of the components and an Overall Band Score from 1 to 9, which is the average of your scores in the four components However, institutions considering
your application are advised to look at both the Overall Band Score and the Band Score for
each component in order to determine whether you have the language skills needed for a particular course of study or work environment For example, if you are applying for a course which involves a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening skills might be less important and a score of 5 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7 However, for a course which has lots of lectures and spoken instructions, a score of 5 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7
Once you have marked your tests, you should have some idea of whether your listening and reading skills are good enough for you to try the IELTS test if you did well enough in one component, but not in others, you will have to decide for yourself whether you are ready to take the test
The Practice Tests have been checked to ensure that they are the same level of difficulty as the real IELTS test However, we cannot guarantee that your score in the Practice Tests will be reflected in the real IELTS test The Practice Tests can only give you an idea of your possible future performance and it is ultimately up to you to make decisions based on
your score
Trang 12PART 1 Questions 1~10
Complete the notes below
Write ONE WORD ANDIOR A NUMBER for each answer
Bankside Recruitment Agency
se Address of agency: 497 Eastside, Docklands
se Name ofagent: Becky 1
e Phone number: 07866 510333
đ Best fo call her in the 2
Typical jobs
e Clerical and admin roles, mainly in the finance industry
@ Must have good 3 SKIlls
e Jobs are usually for at least one 4
e Payisusually 5Ê per hour
Registration process
se Weara6 to the interview
@ Must bring your 7 to the interview Advantages of using an agency
se The9 you receive at interview will benefit you
e Will get access to vacancies which are not advertised
ứe Less 10 is involved in applying for jobs
e They will ask questions about each applicanf's 8 c
Trang 13
Listening
PART 2 l Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
11
12
13
14
Matthews Island Holidays According to the speaker, the company
A _ has been in business for longer than most of its competitors B arranges hoiidays to more destinations than its competitors C has more customers than its competitors
Where can customers meet the tour manager before traveiling to the isle of Man?
A Liverpool B Heysham
C Luton
How many lunches are included in the price of the holiday? A three
B four C fve
Customers have to pay extra for
A guaranteeing themselves a larger room
B booking at short notice C transferring to another date
Trang 14Questions 15-20
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD ANDIOR A NUMBER for each answer
Timetable for Isle of Man holiday
Activity Notes Introduction by manager
Day 1 | Arrive Hotel dining room has view of the
H ,ễ
Day2_ | Tynwald Exhibition and Peel wees may have nạn oo ded in Travel along promenade in a tram;
Day 3 | Trip to Snaefeil train to Laxey; train to the
0 of Snaefell
Company provides a
Day 4 | Free day La for local
transport and heritage sites
Free time, then coach to Castletown
Day 5 Take the 19 ee train from Douglas to Port Erin railway | _ former 20 has old castle
Day 6 | Leave Leave the island by ferry or plane
Trang 15Listening
PART 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
_ What did findings of previous research claim about the personality traits a child is likely to have because of their position in the family?
nanan
— Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to
Questions 21-26 Personality Traits A outgoing - B selfish " C independent j D attention-seeking E introverted —— F co-operative G caring H competitive wn
s old Position in family
——j21 theeldest child ( He ee
‡ 22 amiddechild 7Ã 23 the youngest child HY.eee ————eensenartnstnnes
24 atwin geeeeeeseee
25 an only child
26 achild with much older siblings
Trang 16Questions 27 and 28
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
27 What do the speakers say about the evidence relating to birth order and academic success?
A There is conflicting evidence about whether oldest children perform best in
intelligence tests
B There is little doubt that birth order has less influence on academic
achievement than socio-economic status
C Some studies have neglected to include important factors such as family size 28 What does Ruth think is surprising about the difference in oldest children’s
academic performance?
A _ Itis mainly thanks to their roles as teachers for their younger siblings
B The advantages they have only lead to a slightly higher level of achievement
C The extra parental attention they receive at a young age makes little
difference
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Which TWO experiences of sibling rivalry do the speakers agree has been valuable
for them?
learning to share
learning to stand up for oneself learning to be a good loser
learning to be tolerant learning to say sorry
moowpYp
Trang 17Listening
PART 4 Quesfions 31-40
Complete the notes below
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
The Eucalyptus Tree in Australia
Importance
e iprovides 31 and food for a wide range of species
e its leaves provide 32 Which is used to make a disinfectant Reasons for present decline in number
A) Diseases
(i) ‘Mundulla Yellows’
e Cause — lime used for making 33 Was absorbed — trees were unabie to take in necessary iron through their roots
(ii) ‘Bell-miner Associated Die-back’
@ Cause —34 feed on eucalyptus leaves
~ they secrete a substance containing sugar
— bell-miner birds are attracted by this and keep away other species B) Bushfires
William Jackson's theory:
e high-frequency bushfires have impact on vegetation, resulting in the growth
of 35
s mid-frequenoy bushfires result in the growth of eucalyptus forests, because
they:
— make more 36 available to the trees
— maintain the quality of the 37
e low-frequency bushfires result in the growth of 38 “ rainforest’,
which is:
ơa39 @cosystem
— an ideal environment for the 40 of the bell-miner
Trang 18
READING:
SECTION 1 Questions 1-14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6
Consumer advice
What to do if something you ordered hasn’t arrived
If something you’ve ordered hasn’t arrived, you should contact the seller to find out where it is It’s their legal responsibility to make sure the item is delivered to you They should chase the delivery company and let you know what’s happened to your item If your item wasn’t delivered to the location you agreed (e.g if it was left with your neighbour without your consent), it’s the seller’s legal responsibility to sort out the issue
If the item doesn’t turn up, you’re legally entitled to a replacement or refund You can ask for your money back if you don’t receive the item within 30 days of buying it If the seller refuses, you should put your complaint in writing If that doesn’t work, you could contact
their trade association ~ look on their website for this information, or contact them to ask
You might also be able to get your money back through your bank or payment provider — this depends on how you paid
e If you paid by debit card, contact your bank and say you want to use the
‘chargeback’ scheme If the bank agrees, they can ask the seller’s bank to refund the money to your account Many bank staff don’t know about the scheme, so you might need to speak to a supervisor or manager You should do this within 120 days of when you paid
e If you paid by credit card and the item cost less than Ê100, you should contact your credit card company and say you want to use the ‘chargeback’ scheme There’s no time limit for when you need to do this If the item cost more than Ê100 but less than Ê30,000, contact your credit card company and say that you want to make a ‘section 75° claim
e Ifyou paid using PayPal, use PayPal’s online resolution centre to report yo dispute You must do this within 180 days of paying
Trang 19
Reading Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 16?
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
You will receive a card telling you if an item has been left with a neighbour
It may be quicker to get a refund than a replacement for a non-delivered item
You are entitled to a refund if the item fails to arrive by a certain time
There is a time limit when using the ‘chargeback’ scheme for a debit card payment You can use the ‘chargeback’ scheme for a credit card payment of more than Ê100
oOo a Bm & HO =
PayPal’s online resolution centre has a good reputation for efficiency
Trang 20Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14
18
Rice cookers
Whats the best rice cooker for you?
Ezy Rice Cooker
This has a 1.8 litre pot and a stainless steel exterior It has a separate glass lid, and the handle on the lid stays cool It produces perfectly cooked white rice, but tends to spit when cooking brown rice There are slight dirt traps around the rim of the
lid, and neither the pot nor the lid is dishwasher safe Family Rice Cooker
This has a plastic exterior and a flip-top lid The lid locks when closed and
becomes a secure handle to carry the cooker The aluminium interior pot is quite difficult to clean, and it can’t be put in a dishwasher It’s programmed to adjust the temperature once the rice is done so that it stops cooking but doesn’t get cold
Mini Rice Cooker
This has a flip-top lid and a 0.3 litre capacity The interior pot is made of non-stick aluminium and is dishwasher safe This rice cooker is ideal when cooking for one However it does not have any handles at the side, and water sometimes overflows
when cooking brown rice
VPN Rice Cooker
This has a painted steel exterior with a handle on each side and a steel inner pot It has a lift-off lid and comes with a booklet including a range of ideas for rice dishes However, the keep-warm setting must be manually selected and the handles are tricky to grip
$16 Rice cooker
Trang 21
Reading
Questions 7-14
Look at the five reviews of rice cookers, A-E, on page 18
For which rice cooker are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet NB You may use any letter more than once
7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
The handles at the side are hard to use It cooks brown rice without making a mess
It automatically switches setting to keep the rice warm when cooked It’s difficult to get the removable top reaily clean
Aselection of recipes is provided with the cooker
It has a handle at the top for carrying the cooker safely The outside of the cooker doesn’t get too hot
You can put the pot in the dishwasher
Trang 22S ECTION 2 Questions 15-27
Read the text below and answer Questions 15—22
Safety when working on roofs
A fall from height is the most serious hazard associated with roof work Preventing falls
from roofs is a priority for WorkSafe New Zealand Investigations by WorkSafe into falls
that occur while working at height show that more than 50 percent of falls are from under three metres, and most of these are from ladders and roofs The cost of these falls is estimated to be $24 million a year — to say nothing of the human costs that result from these falls More injuries happen on residential building sites than any other workplace
in the construction sector
in order to prevent such injuries, a hazard assessment should be carried out for all
work on roofs to assess potential dangers It is essential that the hazards are identified before the work starts, and that the necessary equipment, appropriate precautions
and systems of work are provided and implemented Hazard identification should be
repeated periodically or when there is a change in conditions, for example, the weather
or numbers of staff onsite
The first thing to be considered is whether it is possible to eliminate this hazard
completely, so that workers are not exposed to the danger of falling This can sometimes be done at the design, construction planning, and tendering stage If the possibility of a fall cannot be eliminated, some form of edge protection should be used to prevent
workers from falling It may be possible to use the existing scaffolding as edge
protection If this is not practicable, then temporary work platforms should be used In cases where such protection is not possible, then steps should be taken to minimise the likelihood of any harm resulting This means considering the use of safety nets and other
similar systems to make it less likely that injury will be caused if a fall does occur
Ladders should only be employed for short-duration maintenance work such as touching
up paint People using ladders should be trained and instructed in the selection and safe use of ladders There should be inspection of all ladders on a regular basis to ensure they are safe to use
Trang 23
Quesfions 15~22
Complete the notes below
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS ANDIOR A NUMBER from the text for each answer
Write your answers in boxes 15-22 on your answer sheet
Reading
Safety when working on roofs
investigations show that
e — over half of falls are from less than 15 seo ô most falls are from ladders and roofs
e _ falls cost $24 million per year
se — the Majority of falls OCCUP OM †6 ii
Hazard identification should be carried out e _ before the work starts
e when conditions such as the weather or worker numbers change Controls
ô — ữ the hazard at the planning stage before the
work begins if possible
e prevent a fall by using edge protection, e.g scaffolding or
VG —
e —_ reduce the likelihood of injury, e.g by using 19 ii Ladders
° these should only be used for 20 iiiiiieee which does not
take a long time
° training should be provided in their 2.G HH 2012 xerrrer and use ° regular 22 c-iiiiikiiiirke of ladders is required
Trang 24
Read the text below and answer Questions 23-27
Maternity Allowance for working women
You can claim Maternity Allowance once you've been pregnant for 26 weeks Payments start 11 weeks before the date on which your baby is due
The amount you can get depends on your eligibility You could get either:
e Ê140.98 a week or 90% of your average weekly earnings (whichever is less) for 39 weeks e Ê27 a week for 14 weeks
Maternity Allowance for 39 weeks
You might get Maternity Allowance for 39 weeks if one of the following applies: se you're employed
e youre self-employed and pay Class 2 National Insurance (including voluntary
National Insurance)
* — you've recently stopped working
You may still qualify even if you've recently stopped working It doesn’t matter if you had different jobs, or periods when you were unemployed
Maternity Allowance for 14 weeks
You might get Maternity Allowance for 14 weeks if for at least 26 weeks in the 66 weeks before your baby is due:
đ you were married or in a civil partnership s you were not employed or self-employed
* you took part in the business of your self-employed spouse or civil partner
How to claim
You'll need an MAI claim form, available online You can print this and fill it in, or fill it in online You also need to provide a payslip or a Certificate of Small Earnings Exemption as proof of your income, and proof of the baby’s due date, such as a doctor's letter
You should get a decision on your claim within 24 working days
You should report any changes to your circumstances, for example, if you go back to work,
to your local Jobcentre Plus as they can affect how much allowance you get
Trang 25
Reading
Quesfions 23-27
Complete the sentences below
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS ANDIOR A NUMBER from the text for
each answer
Write your answers in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet 23
24 25 26 27
The maximum amount of money a woman can get each week is Go casssssstsasesensseteneeennceenesnensesenseees
Being ee for a time does not necessarily mean that a woman
will not be eligible for Maternity Allowance
In order to claim, a woman must send a series or a Small Earnings Exemption Certificate as evidence of her income
In order to claim, a WOMAN MAY NEEM tfo provide a .-secee as evidence of the due date
Payment may be affected by differences in someone's - ; such as a return to work, and the local Jobcentre Plus must be informed
Trang 26SECTION 3 Questions 28-40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40
The California Gold Rush of 1849
The discovery of gold in the Sacramento Valley sparked the Gold Rush, arguably one of A
24
the most significant events to shape American history in the 19th century
On January 24, 1848, James Wilson Marshall, a carpenter, found small flakes of gold in the American River near Coloma, California At the time, Marshall was
working to build a water-powered sawmill for businessman John Sutter As it
happens, just days after Marshall’s discovery, the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo was signed, ending the Mexican-American War and transferring California, with its mineral deposits, into the ownership of the United States At the time, the population of the territory consisted of 6,500 Californios (people of Spanish or Mexican descent); 700 foreigners (primarily Americans); and 150,000 Native Americans
Though Marshall and Sutter tried to keep news of the discovery quiet, word got out, and by mid-March 1848 at least one newspaper was reporting that large quantities of gold were being found Though the initial reaction in San Francisco was disbelief, storekeeper Sam Brannan set off a frenzy when he paraded through town displaying a small bottle containing gold from Sutter's Creek By mid-June, some three-quarters of the male population of San Francisco had left town for the gold mines, and the number of miners in the area reached 4,000 by August As news spread of the fortunes being made in California, the first migrants to arrive were those from lands accessible by boat, such as Oregon, the Sandwich Islands (now Hawaii), Mexico, Chile, Peru and even China Only later would the news reach the East Coast, where press reports were initially skeptical Throughout 1849, thousands of people around the United States (mostly men)
borrowed money, mortgaged their property or spent their life savings to make the arduous journey to California In pursuit of the kind of wealth they had never dreamed of, they left their families and local areas; in turn, their wives
had no option but to shoulder different responsibilities such as running farms or
businesses, and many made a real success of them
Trang 27
Reading
How did all these would-be miners search for gold? Panning was the oldest way The basic procedure was to place some gold-bearing materials, such as river
gravel, into a shallow pan, add some water, and then carefully swirl the mixture
around so the water and light material spilled over the side If all went well, the heavier gold nuggets or gold dust would settle to the bottom of the pan Gold panning was slow even for the most skillful miner On a good day, one miner could wash about 50 pans in the usual 12-hour workday
Another way was to use what was called a ‘rocker’ Isaac Humphrey is said to have introduced it to the California gold fields It was simply a rectangular wooden box, set at a downward angle and mounted on a rocking mechanism The dirt and rock was dumped into the top, followed by a bucket of water The box was rocked by hand to agitate the mixture The big rocks were caught in a sieve at the top, the
waste exited the lower end with the water, and the heavy gold fell to the bottom
of the box
The rocker had advantages and disadvantages The advantages were that it was easily transportable; it did not require a constant source of water; and, most importantly, a miner could process more dirt and rock than with a pan The primary disadvantage was that the rocker had difficulty in trapping the smallest particles of gold, commonly known as ‘flour’ Some miners added small amounts of mercury to the bottom of the rocker Due to its chemical composition, it had a facility to trap fine gold Periodically, the miners would remove and heat it As it
vaporized, it would leave gold behind
After 1850, the surface gold in California had largely disappeared, even as miners continued to reach the gold fields Mining had always been difficult and dangerous labor, and striking it rich required good luck as much as skill and hard work Moreover, the average daily pay for an independent miner had by then
dropped sharply from what it had been in 1848 As gold became more and more
difficult to reach, the growing industrialization of mining drove more and more miners from independence into wage labor The new technique of hydraulic mining, developed in 1853, brought enormous profits, but destroyed much of the region’s landscape
Though gold mining continued throughout the 1850s, it had reached its peak by 1852, when gold worth some $81 million was pulled from the ground After
that year, the total take declined gradually, leveling off to around $45 million per
year by 1857 Settlement in California continued, however, and by the end of the
decade the state’s population was 380,000
Trang 28Questions 28-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
Write the correct letter in boxes 28~31 on your answer sheet
28
29
30
31
26
The writer suggests that Marshall's discovery came at a good time for the US
because
A the Mexican-American War was ending so there were men needing work B his expertise in water power would be useful in gold mining ` C the population of California had already begun to increase rapidly D the region was about to come under the control of the US
What was the reaction in 1848 to the news of the discovery of gold?
The press played a large part in convincing the public of the riches
available
Many men in San Francisco left immediately to check it out for themselves
People needed to see physical evidence before they took it seriously
Men in other mines in the US were among the first to respond to it
ĐO
Ưữ
PY
What was the result of thousands of people moving to California?
A San Francisco could not cope with the influx of people from around the worid
B Many miners got more money than they could ever have earned at home
C Some of those who stayed behind had to take on unexpected roles D New towns were established which became good places to live
What does the writer say about using pans and rockers to find gold?
Both methods required the addition of mercury
Arocker needed more than one miner to operate it Pans were the best system for novice miners to use
Miners had to find a way round a design fault in one system
Trang 29
Reading
Questions 32-36
The text on pages 24 and 25 has seven sections, A-G
Which section contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A~G, in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet
32 33 34 35 36
a reference to ways of making money in California other than mining for gold a suggestion that the gold that was found did not often compensate for the hard
work undertaken
a mention of an individual who convinced many of the existence of gold in California
details of the pre-Gold Rush population of California
a contrast between shrinking revenue and increasing population
Trang 30
Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet
Basic techniques for extracting gold
The most basic method used by many miners began with digging some
37 out of a river and hoping it might contain gold Small amounts were put in a pan with water The pan was spun round, causing the liquid and less heavy contents of the pan to come out Gold dust, which weighed more, remained in the pan or, if the miners were very lucky, there might even be some 38 too
It was, however, a very laborious method
The rocker was also used A miner would put some earth and rock into the higher end,
together with some water He would then shake the rocker Larger stones stuck in the
39 , while gold dropped to the bottom Unfortunately, the rocker was not designed to catch what was cailed flour However, a process was introduced involving 40 to ensure no gold was washed out in the water
Trang 31
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
A friend of yours is thinking of going on a camping holiday for the first time this summer HelShe has asked for your advice
Write a letter to your friend In your letter
e explain why you think your friend would enjoy a camping holiday
e describe some possible disadvantages
e say whether you would like to go camping with your friend this summer
Write at least 150 words
You do NOT need to write any addresses Begin your letter as follows:
Trang 32WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Write about the following topic:
In many countries today, crime novels and TV crime dramas are becoming more and more popular
Why do you think these books and TV shows are popular? What is your opinion of crime fiction and TV crime dramas?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience
Write at least 250 words
Trang 33ROO N SPEAKING PART 1
The examiner asks the candidate about him/herself, his/her home, work or studies and other familiar topics
EXAMPLE
What kinds of emails do you receive about your work or studies? Do you prefer to email, phone or text your friends? [Why?]
Do you reply to emails and messages as soon as you receive them? [Why/Why not?]
Are you happy to receive emails that are advertising things? [Why/Why not?]
eo @đ Â @ PART 2
Describe a hotel that you know You will have to talk about the topic for one
to two minutes You
have one minute to You should say:
where this hotel is
what this hotel looks like
what facilities this hotel has think about what you are going to say You
and explain whether you think this is a nice hotel can make some notes
to stay in to help you if you wish
PART 3 Discussion topics: Staying in hotels Example questions:
What things are important when people are choosing a hotel?
Why do some people not like staying in hotels?
Do you think staying in a luxury hotel is a waste of money?
Working in a hotel
Example questions:
Do you think hotel work is a good career for life?
How does working in a big hotel compare with working in a small hotel? What skills are needed to be a successful hotel manager?
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PART 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Festival information
Date Type of event Details
17th a concert performers from Canada
18th a bailet company called 1
19th-20th type of play: a comedy called Jemima
(afternoon) a play has had a good 2
20th (EVENING) |a3 show | show is called 4
Questions 5—10
Complete the notes below
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Workshops
@ Making 5 food
e = (children only) Making 6
e = (adults only) Making toys from 7
Outdoor activities
e Swimming in the 8
e Walking in the woods, led by an expert ON 9
See the festival organiser’s 10 for more information 32 2[8#p.|[fn.i0]
Trang 3511 12 13 14 Listening PART 2 Questions 11-20 Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
Minster Park
The park was originally established
A as an amenity provided by the city council
Bas land belonging to a private house
C asashared area set up by the local community
Why is there a statue of Diane Gosforth in the park? A She was a resident who helped to lead a campaign
B She was a council member responsible for giving the public access
C She was a senior worker at the park for many years
During the First Worid War, the park was mainly used for
A exercises by troops
B growing vegetables
C public meetings
When did the physical transformation of the park begin? A 2013
B 2015 C 2016
Trang 36
Quesfions 15-20
Label the map below
Write the correct lefter, A-l, nexf to Questions 15-20
Minster Park
J ~ East
West gate
gate
Trang 37
Listening
PART 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Which TWO groups of people is the display primarily intended for?
students from the English department
residents of the local area
the university's teaching staff potential new students
students from other departments
moaw
>
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E
What are Cathy and Graham’s TWO reasons for choosing the novelist Charles Dickens? His speeches inspired others to try to improve society
He used his publications to draw attention to social problems His novels are well-known now
He was consulted on a number of social issues
His reputation has changed in recent times
moow>y>
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Quesfions 25-30
What topic do Cathy and Graham choose to illustrate with each novel?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A~H, next to
Questions 25-30 Topics poverty education Dickens's travels entertainment crime and the law wealth medicine 7a 7m OO ở > a woman's life Novels by Dickens
25 The Pickwick Papers ( ————arreennctstevssae
26 OlWer TWISE rnnaneanetttnn
27 Nicholas Nickleby CC se
28 MartinChuzzlewit CC ve,
29 Bleak House anenetnacenneee
30 Little Dorrit aacettetetennte
Trang 39Listening
PART 4 | Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below
write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Agricultural programme in Mozambique
How the programme was organised
BEREAN
TOE
A
ANG
e _ It focused on a dry and arid region in Chicualacuala district, near the Limpopo River
e People depended on the forest to provide charcoal as a source of income
ô.-31 was seen as the main priority to ensure the supply of water
e Most of the work organised by farmers’ associations was done by
32
e Fenced areas were created to keep animals away from crops e The programme provided
—33 for the fences ~3Á for suitable crops — water pumps
e The farmers provided — labour
—35 for the fences on their land Further developments
e The marketing of produce was sometimes difficult due to lack of
36
se _ Training was therefore provided in mefhods of food 37
e _ Farmers made special places where 38 could be kept
ứe Local people later suggested keeping 39
Evaluation and lessons learned
e Agricultural production increased, improving incomes and food security
e Enough time must be allowed, parficularly for the 40 phase of
the programme
Trang 40READING
SECTION 1 Questions 1-14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1—6
Harvey’s Storage
Harvey’s Storage is a well-established independent company We are centrally located in the city and provide excellent facilities for all your storage requirements We provide safe and secure units for both long- and short-term storage dependent on your needs Our rates are competitive and tailored to your specific requirements and your choice of storage unit Heavy-duty locks and keys are provided to all of our customers and included in the prices listed You can hire the unit with the storage capacity you need, for the period of time that the storage is required, in a sound and secure environment, monitored by CCTV With 24-hour access, customers can deliver and collect items when it is convenient to do so, unrestricted by
business or office hours Tarmac roadways allow customers to park cars and lorries immediately outside their units, minimising the effort required to collect or drop items off
Household storage Self-storage is ideal for families or individuals with either a short- or long-term need to store their belongings Some of our clients are
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Business storage Free up your expensive retail space with affordable self-storage We have three different business storage centres to choose from so you can choose the location that is most convenient for you