1 BO DE THI HK1 TIENG ANH 11 CO DAP AN

ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút A READING (10.0 ms) I Circle letter A, B, C or D to identify the answer to complete the text (4.0 ms) A beauty contest, or beauty pageant, is a competition between people, based largely on the beauty of their physical appearance The modern beauty pageant can trace its origin to the Miss America pageant, first held in Atlantic City, New Jersey, in 1921, under the title ‘Inter-City Beauty' (1) The following year the title was named as Miss America Other contests include the yearly Miss World competition and Miss Universe, which are the two largest and most famous international beauty contests Women from around the world (2) _ in the competition for these titles To be selected as Miss World or Miss Universe, a contestant must be celibate or single If a Miss WorId fails to live up to people's expectations, she may, be disqualified The organizers of the major beauty contests represent their contests as being events of world importance (3) , many other people consider beauty contests to be (4) _ entertainment event of no great importance 1/ A Contest B Organise C Representative D Sponsor 2/ A interest B participate C excite D involve 3/ A Besides B Furthermore C Therefore D However 4/ A mass B popular C agreeable D remarkable Read the following text and answer the questions (6.0 ms) I knew it was going to be a bad day when, on the way to the airport, the taxi driver told me he was lost I had booked my flight over the telephone, so when we finally arrived, I had to rush to the reservation desk to pay for my ticket The woman at the desk told me that my name was not on the passenger list It took fifteen minutes to realize that she had spelled my name incorrectly She gave me the ticket and told me I'd better check in my luggage quickly or I'd miss my night I was the last person to get on the plane I found my seat and discovered that I was sitting next to a four-year old boy who had a cold I sat down and wondered if anything else could go wrong I hate flying, especially take-off, but the plane took off and everything seemed to be all right Then, a few minutes later, there was a funny noise and everything started to shake I looked out of the window and – oh my God - there was smoke coming out of the wing All I could think was "The engines are on fire We are going to crash I am too young to die," Almost immediately, the captain spoke to us in a very calm voice "Ladies and gentlement This is your captain speaking We are having a slight technical problem with one of our engines There is no need to panic We will have to return to the airport Please remain seated and keep your seat belts fastened." A few minutes later, we were coming on to land The pilot made a perfect landing on the runway It was over We were safe That day I decided not to fly again I caught another taxi and went home But as I closed the front door I looked down at my case Somehow I had picked up the wrong suitcase * Questions: 1/ How long did it take her to get her ticket?  ……………………………………………………………………………………… 2/ Was there nothing wrong with her on the way to the airport?  ……………………………………………………………………………………… 3/ Why did the plane have to come back to the airport?  ……………………………………………………………………………………… 4/ On that day, what did she think of after being safe from the flight?  ……………………………………………………………………………………… B GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (10.0 ms)  Circle letter A, B, C or D to choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the three others in each group 1/ A happy B husband C humour D honest 2/ A sponsored B participated C happened D doubled  Circle letter A, B, C or D to choose the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined one 3/ Do you like taking part in the contests like these? A rivalries B Competitions C Rivals D races  Circle letter A, B, C or D to choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined one 4/ The number of sales will decrease if we don’t present better advertising A shrink B decline C reduce D increase  Circle letter A, B, C or D to choose the word that completes sentence 5/ Children often receive ………… their parents at Christmas A presents from B from presents C for presents D presents for 6/ The quality we don’t like from a friend is …………… A selfish B unselfish C selfishness D unselfishness 7/ There are a lot of ………….… children living in the remote areas A advantage B advantages C disadvantaged D disadvantages 8/ They held a concert to mark the ……….… of Mozart's death A occasion B anniversary C situation D remembrance 9/ Many young couple should be advised on safe birth control method for ………… A family planning B family size C family running D family happiness 10/ Students must achieve general ……… before being major in their optional field A studies B knowledge C skills D ideas 11/ …… number of students volunteer to come and help … poor during the summer A The – a B A – Ø C The - the D A - the 12/ The person, ……… are easily influenced by rumours, can never be good friends A that B which C who D whom 13/ The clubs use a lot of college students as volunteers …… they’re young enough to understand the problems of younger boys and girls A because of B because C despite D although 14/ The university ………… by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants A is supported B supports C is supporting D has supported 15/ It's time governments …………… something to limit population growth A B will C have done D did 16/ At first I found it difficult ……………… on the other side of the road A to get used to drive B to get used to driving C being used to drive D in getting used to driving 17/ You made a mistake by telling her a lie It ……… better if you ………… to her A would have been - hadn't lied B would be - didn't lie C will be - don't lie D would be - hadn't lied 18/ When I told her the news, she seemed ……………… A to surprise B to be surprised C being surprised D having surprised 19/ She thanked me for …………… her a lot when she was in trouble A having helped B to help C being helped D to be helped 20/ Ruby: “Do you need a few minutes?” - Donna: “………………” A Nothing particular B Take it outside C We’re ready D What a pity C WRITING (10.0 ms) Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the one above 1/ “ I’m sorry I couldn’t come to visit you last summer!” Daisy said to Jack  Daisy apologized ……………… …………………………………………………… 2/ Tom didn’t go to school yesterday because it rained heavily  If …………………………… ……………………………………………………… 3/ I took some medicine, then I felt a little better  Before ……………………………………………………………………………… 4/ Are you sure you sent them the letters yesterday ?  Do you remember ……………………………………………………………… ? 5/ “I’m sure you’ll understand this problem more if I explain it to you now!” He said to her  He ………………………………………………………………………………… The end ĐÁP ÁN A READING (10.0 ms) I Circle letter A, B, C or D to identify the answer to complete the text (4.0 ms) 1/ B based 2/ A contest 3/ B participate 4/ D However 5/ C agreeable II Read the following text and answer the questions (6.0 ms) 1/ fifteen minutes 2/ No, there wasn’t 3/ Because the engines were on fire 4/ She decided not to fly again B GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (10.0 ms) 1/ D honest 2/ B participated 3/ B competitions 5/ A presents from 6/ C selfishness 8/ B.anniversary 11/ D A / the 7/ C disadvantaged 9/ A family planning 10/ B knowledge 12/ C who 14/ A is supported 13/ B because 15/ D did 17/ A would have been/ hadn't lied 19/ A having helped 20/ C We’re ready 4/ D increase 16/ B to get used to driving 18/ B to be surprised C WRITING (10.0 ms) 1/  Daisy apologized to Jack for not coming to visit him the summer before 2/  If it hadn’t rained heavily yesterday, Tom would have gone to school 3/  Before I felt a little better, I had taken some medicine 4/  Do you remember sending the letters yesterday? 5/  He told her he was sure she would understand the problem more if he explained it to her then The end ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút Part A: LANGUAGE FOCUS: (10ms) I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: A agree B arrange C area D award A competition B completion C information D question II Choose the best answers: Tom: “I have passed my driving test.” Daisy: “ _” A Congratulations! B Thank you! C Good luck! D Bye! The “ _ ” is often celebrated on people’s 25th wedding anniversaries A Golden Anniversary B Diamond Anniversary C Cotton Anniversary D Silver Anniversary She that film three times A sees B saw C had seen D has seen We lunch when we heard the news A have B had C had had D were having 5.When they got to the station, the train already A left B leaves C has left D had left “ Don’t talk in class”, the teacher said A The teacher told his student not talk in class B The teacher told his student did not talk in class C The teacher told his student not to talk in class D The teacher told his student not talking in class My mother let me after PM A go B goes C to go D going She reminded him the door carefully A close B to close C to be closed D being closed I caught him the fence A jumps B jumping C to jump D having jumping 10 for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry A Having worked B have worked C Having been worked D have been worked 11 I really hate the kind of person who is always _about little things A making a fuss B satisfied C doing a lot D add 12 “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” said Dave to Julia A Dave said he is sorry he forgot Julia’s birthday B Dave said to Julia that I’m sorry I forgot your birthday C Dave excused Julia for forgetting her birthday D Dave apologized for forgetting Julia’s birthday 13 The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody A full of troubles B with problems C plenty of challenges D without difficulties 14 Schools need to help children to read and write A volunteers B pioneers C engineers D innovators 15 would / invite / I / to / like / house / to / our / you / party / and / the / party / / A I would like invite you to our house and to enjoy the party B I would like to invite you to our house and enjoy the party C I would like to enjoy you to our house and invite the party D I would like you to invite to our house and enjoy the party 16 I warned An staying at the hotel near the airport A for B from C against D again 17 Shy people often find it difficult to group discussion A take place in B take part in C get on with D get in touch with 18 The competition was by the Students' Parents Society A bought B called C sponsored D encouraged III Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting: I spent most of my time in the train read my favorite book A B C D You had better learning a foreign language before applying for a job A B C D Part B: READING: (10ms) I Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank: (5ms) I’m in favor of English- speaking (1) _in schools Such contests encourage students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them (2) _ their speaking skills Besides, while preparing themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly Contests among classes provide students (3) _ opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4) _ with other people Some students may think that their preparations for the speaking contests are time-consuming However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest In sum, English-(5) _contests school are useful to students A clubs B contests C meetings D classes A improve B to improve C A & B are correct D improving A in B for C with D to A cooperating B to cooperate C cooperate D cooperated A speaking B listening C reading D writing II Read the passage and answer the questions: (5ms) Mother Teresa born in the Republic of Macedonia founded the Missionaries of Charity in India The task of this charity was to care for the hungry, the homeless, the blind,… It began as a small order , a religious community , with 13 members in Calcutta; today it has more than 4,000 nuns running orphanages, AIDS hospices, and charity centers worldwide, and caring for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged , the poor and homeless and victims of floods… on six continents In 1952 with the help of Indian officials the first home for the Dying was opened when she converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor She also is the first to establish homes for AIDS victims By the early 1970s, Mother Teresa had become an international celebrity Her fame can be in large part attributed to the 1969 documentary ‘Something Beautiful for God’ which was filmed by Malcolm Muggeridge In 1971, she was awarded the Pope John XXIII Peace Prize , and India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1980 Who founded the Missionaries of Charity in India? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Did this charity look after the hungry, the homeless and the blind? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… What did Mother Teresa in 1952? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Where 4,000 nuns of the Missionaries of Charity care for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged ?  ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Who made a film about Mother Teresa’s noble work? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Part C: WRITING: (10ms) Write a paasage ( 70 words – 100 words) about one of the competitions for secondary school students You may use the following questions: - What is the competition? - Where and when did you see it? - Who organized it? - Who participated in it? - Who won the competition? - Did you enjoy it? Why? ĐÁP ÁN Part A: LANGUAGE FOCUS: (10ms) I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: A agree B arrange C area D award A competition B completion C information D question II Choose the best answers: Tom: “I have passed my driving test.” Daisy: “ _” A Congratulations! B Thank you! C Good luck! D Bye! th The “ _ ” is often celebrated on people’s 25 wedding anniversaries A Golden Anniversary B Diamond Anniversary C Cotton Anniversary D Silver Anniversary She that film three times A sees B saw C had seen D has seen We lunch when we heard the news A have B had C had had D were having 5.When they got to the station, the train already A left B leaves C has left D had left “ Don’t talk in class”, the teacher said A The teacher told his student not talk in class B The teacher told his student did not talk in class C The teacher told his student not to talk in class D The teacher told his student not talking in class My mother let me after PM A go B goes C to go D going She reminded him the door carefully A close B to close C to be closed D being closed I caught him the fence A jumps B jumping C to jump D having jumping 10 for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry A Having worked B have worked C Having been worked D have been worked 11 I really hate the kind of person who is always _about little things A making a fuss B satisfied C doing a lot D add 12 “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” said Dave to Julia A Dave said he is sorry he forgot Julia’s birthday B Dave said to Julia that I’m sorry I forgot your birthday C Dave excused Julia for forgetting her birthday D Dave apologized for forgetting Julia’s birthday 13 The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody A full of troubles B with problems C plenty of challenges D without difficulties 14 Schools need to help children to read and write A volunteers B pioneers C engineers D innovators 15 would / invite / I / to / like / house / to / our / you / party / and / the / party / / A I would like invite you to our house and to enjoy the party B I would like to invite you to our house and enjoy the party C I would like to enjoy you to our house and invite the party D I would like you to invite to our house and enjoy the party 16 I warned An staying at the hotel near the airport A for B from C against D again 17 Shy people often find it difficult to group discussion A take place in B take part in C get on with D get in touch with 18 The competition was by the Students' Parents Society A bought B called C sponsored D encouraged III Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting: I spent most of my time in the train read my favorite book A B C D You had better learning a foreign language before applying for a job A B C D Part B: READING: (10ms) I Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank: (5ms) I’m in favor of English- speaking (1) _in schools Such contests encourage students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them (2) _ their speaking skills Besides, while preparing themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly Contests among classes provide students (3) _ opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4) _ with other people Some students may think that their preparations for the speaking contests are time-consuming However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest In sum, English-(5) _contests school are useful to students A clubs B contests C meetings D classes A improve B to improve C A & B are correct D improving A in B for C with D to A cooperating B to cooperate C cooperate D cooperated A speaking B listening C reading D writing II Read the passage and answer the questions: (5ms) Mother Teresa born in the Republic of Macedonia founded the Missionaries of Charity in India The task of this charity was to care for the hungry, the homeless, the blind,… It began as a small order , a religious community , with 13 members in Calcutta; today it has more than 4,000 nuns running orphanages, AIDS hospices, and charity centers worldwide, and caring for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged , the poor and homeless and victims of floods… on six continents In 1952 with the help of Indian officials the first home for the Dying was opened when she converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor She is also the first to establish homes for AIDS victims By the early 1970s, Mother Teresa had become an international celebrity Her fame can be in large part attributed to the 1969 documentary ‘Something Beautiful for God’ which was filmed by Malcolm Muggeridge In 1971, she was awarded the Pope John XXIII Peace Prize , and India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1980 Who founded the Missionaries of Charity in India? Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity in India Did this charity look after the hungry, the homeless and the blind? Yes, it did What did Mother Teresa in 1952?  She converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor She also the first to establish homes for AIDS victims Where 4,000 nuns of the Missionaries of Charity care for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged ?  in Calcutta Who made a film about Mother Teresa’s noble work? Malcolm Muggeridge Part C: WRITING: (10ms) Write a paasage ( 70 words – 100 words) about one of the competitions for students You may use the following questions: - What is the competition? - Where and when did you see it? - Who organized it? - Who participated in it? - Who won the competition? - Did you enjoy it? Why? - Enough words ( approximately 10%): m - Grammar: 3ms - Spelling: ms - Suitable content : m - Using linking words: 1m - Suitable punctuation: m ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút PHẦN I: TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm) Read the passage and choose one correct answer for each question.(from to 4) One warm spring day, Mrs Baker went to the park near her house She sat down on a park bench and started to read a letter from her daughter, Karen Karen and her husband, John and their two children, Ken and Kathy, were on Florida on vacation for two weeks Karen said that they were having a wonderful time, and she sent some postcards in the letters The postcards showed pictures of Florida Mrs.Baker smiled at she read the letter again She was happy that they were having a good time While she was reading, a man came and sat down at the other end of the bench He opened his newspaper and began to read Suddenly the poscards blew out of Mrs.Baker’s hand and fell on the ground They started to blow away Mr Mark Baker quickly reached down and helped Mrs.Baker pick them up Mrs Baker thanked him and showed him the postcards They introduced themselves It was the beginning of a very pleasant friendship Câu 1: What happened ? A The newspaper blew onto the ground B Her hat blew onto the ground C The postcards blew onto the ground D The letter blew onto the ground Câu 2: Mrs Baker was…………………………………… A in the park reading her newspaper B in the park reading her book C at home reading her letter D in the park reading her letter Câu 3: The story ends with ………………………………… A a friendship B a letter C a postcard D a love Câu 4: What did Mr.Marks ? A He got up and went home B He reached down and helped Mrs.Baker pick up the postcards C He continued reading his newspaper D He pick them up and looked at them Read the following passage carefully and then choose the option to fit each space by circling the letter A, B, C or D (from to 8) Homes are often decorated with plants and flowers at this time Peach blossom is…5………… at Tet in the North while apricot blossom is traditional in ……6…………South The kumquat tree with its ripe deep orange fruits is popular throughout the country One of Tet’s most special foods is banh chung, which is…… 7………….from sticky rice, green beans and fatty pork Mut, which is candied fruit such as sugared apples, plums……8……… tomatoes, is also popular Câu 5: A influence B popular C exchange D traditional Câu 6: A x B a C the D an Câu 7: A making B to made C made D make Câu 8: A or B despite C and D but Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words (from9 to10) Câu 9: A expect B figure C increase D support Câu 10: A population B international C available D university Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (from 11 to 14) Câu 11: Anyone stole the money, but we don't know who A B C D Câu 12: I would like telling you about this A B C D Câu 13: He doesn’t spend much time learn lessons A B C D Câu 14: If I known about the job, I would have applied for it A B C D Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (from 15 to 17) Câu 15: A wheat B when C who D why Câu 16: A change B machine C children D church Câu 17: A hand B honour C home D holiday Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one (from 18 to 32) Câu 18: No one replied when I phoned A When I phoned, there was no signal B When I phoned, there was nobody else C When I answered the phone, there was a reply D When I phoned, there was no reply Câu 19: He couldn’t make the radio…………… A to work B worked C working D work Câu 20: Nowadays, teenagers always love and imitate their own …………… in different ways A actors B mothers C experiences D idols th Câu 21: People call the 50 the “…………… anniversary.” A diamond B golden C precious stone D silver Câu 22: Although the Women’s World Cup was established not long ago, it’s growing in popularity A set up B given up C put up D made up Câu 23: When I…………….home I ………… a phone call A got – received B had got – had received C was getting – was receiving D got – had received Câu 24: What’s the……………….of your country A population B populous C populate D popular Câu 25: Huong: You really have beautiful dress! Lan:…………………………………… A Thank you That’s a nice compliment! B Fine, thanks C What a pity! D Good luck! Câu 26: The organization for boys who no longer have fathers is named…………… A volunteers B big sisters C sisters D big brothers Câu 27: Before Tet, shops are full …………… goods SECTION A (8 points) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A machine B children C church D change Question 2: A called B flooded C suffered D issued Question 3: A flood B good C foot D look Question 4: A sneaky B confident C teenage D finger Question 5: A closets B shows C rats D weeks Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from to 12 Preparations for Tet, Vietnamese New Year, start two or three months before the actual celebrations People try to pay off their debts in advance so that they can be debt-free on Tet Parents buy new clothes for their children so that the children can wear them when Tet arrives Because a lot of commercial activities will cease during the celebrations people try to stock up on supplies as much as possible In the days leading up to Tet, the streets and markets are full of people Everyone is busy buying food, clothes, and decorating for their house Each family prepares some special foods for the holiday Those who live far away from home will try to come home to celebrate Tet with their family Vietnamese families usually have a family altar to pay respect to their ancestors During Tet the altar is thoroughly cleaned and new offerings are placed there On New Year’s Eve each home is thoroughly cleaned and decorated with flowers and offerings for ancestors by the night before Tet Many people stay up until midnight to welcome the New Year or go to the pagoda to pray for luck, prosperity, and happiness In the morning, actual Tet celebrations begin The first day of Tet is reserved for the nuclear family In big cities, the streets are usually empty as most people stay at home or leave the city to visit their close relatives in the countryside Usually, children dress their new clothes and give their elders the traditional Tet greetings before receiving the lucky money Question 6: This passage is about _ A New Year’s Eve B the first day of the New Year C preparation for Tet and Tet holiday D paying debt before Tet Question 7: Vietnamese children _ A have to pay off debt before Tet B should not receive any money during Tet C are not allowed to wear new clothes D receive lucky money from adults during Tet Question 8: Which is NOT mentioned as a preparation for Tet? A Visiting friends and relatives B Cooking special foods C Decorating houses D Paying off debts Question 9: Which is NOT referred during Tet celebration? A Going to the pagoda B The increasing of commercial activities C Visiting relatives D Wearing new clothes Question 10 : Vietnamese families _ A not celebrate Tet if they are poor B only celebrate Tet when they are wealthy C have an altar to worship their ancestors D gather in the streets on the first day of Tet Question 11: This passage above may be from A a letter B a public announcement C a tourist magazine D a cooking book Question 12: The word “their” in paragraph refers to _ A people trying to pay off their debts B people busy buying food C people living far away from home D people preparing some special foods Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28 A beauty contest, or beauty pageant, is a competition between people, largely on the (13) of their physical appearance The modern beauty pageant can trace its origin to the Miss America pageant, first held in Atlantic City, New Jersey, in 1921, under the title ‘Inter-City Beauty' contest The following year the title was (14) as Miss America Other contests include the yearly Miss World competition and Miss Universe, which are the two largest and most famous (15) beauty contests Women from around the world (16) in the competition for these titles To be selected as Miss World or Miss Universe, a contestant must be celibate or single If a Miss WorId fails to live up to people's expectations, she may be disqualified The organizers of the major beauty contests represent their contests as being events of world importance (17) many other people consider beauty contests to be agreeable entertainment event of no great importance Question 13:A beautiful B beautify C beauty D beautifully Question 14:A renewed B removed C renamed D retained Question 15:A nation B national C internationale D international Question 16:A participate B interest C excite D involve Question 17:A Besides B However C Therefore D Furthermore Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 18: Since the liberation, the lifestyle of my village have changed A way of life B daily life C social life D life span Question 19: Mid-Autumn Festival is one of two grandest festivals in Vietnam A longest B biggest C oldest D Happiest Question 20: Some high school students take part in helping the handicapped A soldiers B sponsors C the disabled D martyrs Identify the one underlined word or phrase: A, B, C, or D that must be changed for the sentence to be correct Mark your choice on the answer sheet Question 21: They knew I had been to London and asked me how it was like A to B and C how D like Question 22: A person who stays at home all the time soon gets fed up of everything A stays B all C soon D of Question 23: Learn English is very interesting A Learn B English C very D interesting Question 24: Joyce thanked us inviting them to dinner and said that they wanted to go A to go B us inviting C said D to dinner Question 25: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam A studies B more C attempting D to pass Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 26: By the time we arrived, _ A he left for the office B he has left for the office C he had left for the office D he were leaving for the office Question 27: your father was in hospital, I to visit him A Should I know / would go B Had I known / would go C Had I known / would have gone D Had I known / would have went Question 28:.All the teachers work on an entirely basis A volunteer B volunteered C voluntary D voluntarily Question 29: _ for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry A Having worked B have worked C Having been worked D have been worked Question 30 Volunteers help the disadvantaged and handicapped children to difficulties A get out B over go C overcome D overdo Question 31 She is looking forward to you again A meet B meeting C met D be met Question 32 in exams is considered a serious crime at school A Cheating B Playing tricks C Treating D Telling jokes Question 33 In tonight's quiz, our _ have come from all over the country A observers B losers C winners D contestants Question 34 When we to see him last night, he to music A come / is listening B had come / listened C came / was listening D were coming / had listened Question 35 He has to work very hard to earn enough to his large family A celebrate B limit C support D reach Question 36 He doesn't spend much time _ his lessons A to prepare B prepare C prepares D preparing Question 37: had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off A No longer B Hardly C Scarcely D No sooner Question 38: Only when you grow up the truth A will you know B you will know C you know D you know Question 39: These letters at the moment You can the typing tomorrow A needn’t have typed B need to type C needn’t be typed D need typing Question 40: I suddenly caught him in the bathroom A smoke B to smoke C smoked D smoking SECTION B (2 points) I Complete the sentences, using the correct form of the words in brackets Write your answers on your answer sheet Question 41: all the rules of chess, the contestants started to play the first game (learn) Question 42: Marta doesn't like to have her picture taken She avoids (photograph) Question 43: How many are there in the competition? ( participate) Question 44: After graduating, many students take part in helping children in some ( orphan) Question 45: Many species of plants and animals are in of extinction.( dangerous) II Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it Write your answers on your answer sheet Question 46: Learning English is not difficult → It is Question 47: We started working on this project a year ago → We have Question 48: “Don’t forget to take your mobile phone.” James said to Daisy → James reminded Question 49: He is so exhausted that he won’t be able to go out tonight → John is too Question 50: “ Don’t play with the dog any more, Peter” Mrs Jones said → Mrs Jones warned KEYS OF SECTION B Question 41: Having learned Question 42: being photographed Question 43: participants Question 44: orphanages Question 45: danger Question 46: It is not difficult to learn English Question 47: We have worked/ been working on this project for a year Question 48: James reminded Daisy to take his mobile phone Question 49: John is too exhausted (to be able) to go out tonight Question 50: Mrs Jones warned Peter not to play/ against playing with the dog any more ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút PART 1: (8 points) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answersheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences Question 1: A enough B through C weigh D neighbor Question 2: A competition B suggestion C celebration D preparation Question 3: A quarter B quality C technique D kumquat Question 4: A house B hospital C exhibition D holiday Question 5: A decreased B influenced C endangered D established Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question She attaches a lot of importance _personal possessions A of B with C from D to Question 7: In most _ developed countries, up to 50% of _ population enters higher education at some time in their lives A Ø / Ø B the / Ø C Ø / the D the / a Question 8: I've got lots of but only a few really good friends A best friends B neighbors C acquaintances D partners Question 9: What an excellent student she is! She almost has no _ the exercise A difficult to finish B difficult finishing C difficulty in finishing D difficulty to finish Question 10: After two hours on the tennis _we were all exhausted A track B court C pitch D ring Question 11: _ the first day of Tet, children put on their new clothes and make New Year’s wishes to their parents A On B In C At D For Question 12: I don't think _ likes the story It's so boring A everyone B no one C anyone D someone Question 13: Big cities like New York and Tokyo are _ populated A greatly B densely C closely D variously Question 14: Hardly _turned up to the meeting A anyone B someone C everyone D no one Question 15: If it _, there will be a shortage of water A not rain B rains C can rain D doesn't rain Question 16: Having passed the entrance exam, go away for a holiday A his parents allow him B his parents allow him to C he is allowed to D he is allowing to Question 17: The students in this class were made very hard A learn B to learn C learning D having learnt Question 18: in some developing countries may be the cause of poverty and hunger A Modernization B Literacy C Pollution D Overpopulation Question 19: “Do you fancy a coffee?”- “ _” A Everything is OK B How you do? C Oh, yes I’d love one D Oh, dear Question 20: The shop assistant: “Which hat you like best?” - The customer: “ _” A Yes, I like it best B The one I tried on first C Which one you like? D No, I haven’t tried any Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 21: Such good news calls for a celebration! A deserves B divides C takes D needs Question 22: Before Tet, the housewives a big clean to get rid of the dirt of the old year A take care B eradicate C decorate D welcome Question 23: The singing competition was sponsored by Students’ Parents Society A supported B assisted C organized D held Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 24: Everyone knows the answer but no one rises their hands A rises B hands C Everyone knows D no one Question 25: It is high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old man A high B understands C how to D towards Question 26: Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this relatively small planet A.more people B in the history C living on D.there have Question 27: My father used to give me some good advices whenever I had a problem A a problem B advices C give D used Question 28: Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia was the first public school of its kind A Establishing B who C was D of its kind Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks To many people, their friends are the most important in their life Really good friends always (29) _ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (30) _ with There are all sorts of things that can (31) _ about this special relationship It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages However, it really takes you years to get to know someone well (32) _ to consider your best friend To the majority of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than _ (33) else It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets Question 29: A share B spend C give D have Question 30: A through B in C up D on Question 31: A cause B provide C result D bring Question 32: A enough B such C so D too Question 33: A someone B anyone C everyone D no one Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country’s impressive population growth For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966 In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark Most of this surging growth came from natural increase The depression of the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945 The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956 This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada’s history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline It continued falling until in 1966, it stood at the lowest level in 25 years Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957 Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss? A Educational changes in Canadian society B Canada during the Second World War C Population trends in postwar Canada D Standards of living in Canada Question 35: The word “five” in bold refers to _ A Canadians B years C decades D marriages Question 36: The word “surging” in bold is closest in meaning to _ A new B extra C accelerating D surprising Question 37: The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950's A the urban population decreased rapidly B fewer people married C economic conditions were poor D the birth rate was very high Question 38: The author mention all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT A people being better educated B people getting married earlier C better standards of living D couples buying houses Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution _ A families were larger B population statistics were unreliable C the population grew steadily D economic conditions were bad Question 40: The word “it” in bold refers to A horizon B population wave C nine percent D first half PART 2: (2 points) Put the verbs in the bracket in the correct form Question 1: There are too many people here for me (talk) _ to all of them Question 2: He kept looking at her, wondering where he (see) her before Question 3: We hope (choose) as volunteers in next festival vacation Question 4: (Not feel) _ well, she went home early Question 5: I don't remember (tell) of the decision to change the company policy on vacation When was it decided? Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first Question 6: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to the boy → The teacher accused …………………………………………………………………… Question 7: “Don’t play with the matches!” I said to Jack →I warned ……………………………………………………… Question 8: John missed the ferry because his car broke down → If ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 9: Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk → Having ………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 10: Water these plants everyday or they will die → If………………………………………………………………………………………… ĐÁP ÁN Put the verbs in the bracket in the correct form Question 1: to talk Question 2: had seen Question 3: to be chosen Question 4: Not feeling Question 5: being told Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first Question 6: The teacher accused the boy of not paying attention to what he had said Question 7: I warned Jack against playing with the matches Question 8: If John’s car hadn’t broken down, he wouldn’t have missed the ferry If John’s car hadn’t broken down, he would have caught the ferry Question 9: Having had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk Question 10: If you don't water these plants everyday, they will die ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1: A honest B hour C honour D home Question 2: A cooked B stopped C laughed D loved Question 3: A match B chair C chemistry D watch Question 4: A photographs B bags C kids D days Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: We were having lunch when we hear the news A we B having C hear D the news Question 6: He had come away, not knowing where to turn or what to doing A had B away C not knowing D to doing Question 7: They asked me what did happen the night before, but I was unable to tell them A the night before B unable C what did happen D tell them Question 8: Hung congratulated us about passing our exams A us B about C passing D our exams Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 9: It's time we _ harder A studied B study C shall study D have studied Question 10: If they had recognized her, they to her A will speak B will have spoken C would have spoken D would speak Question 11: I've got lots of but only a few really good friends A best mates B acquaintances C neighbours D partners Question 12: He thousands of dollars to charity A donated B spent C wasted D sponsored Question 13: Gold jewelry A used to make B used to making C is used to make D is used to making Question 14: He is so that he never lets his wife go out alone A jelously B jelousness C jealousy D jealous Question 15: Hung should have apologized being late this morning, but he did not A to B for C out D up Question 16: _ he was late he stopped to buy a sandwich A If B So that C Although D Because Question 17: They didn't finish their work on time, ? A didn't they B they C don't they D did they Question 18: You _ your new hat when I _ you yesterday A was wearing/ met B wore/ met C wore/ had met D were wearing/ met Question 19: The plants want daily A to wate B to be watered C to watering D being watered Question 20:The result of exam _ this afternoon A will be announced B will announce C will announced D will be announce Question 21: I often take part social activities every weekend A For B against C in D over Question 22: I'm happy _ that you have passed the exams A knew B to know C knowing D have known Question 23: They made her there for the weekend A stay B to stay C staying D stayed Question 24: Their homework needs _ up again A checking B to check C be checking D checked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 25: "Let's go out for dinner." " ." A Thank you B Good idea C I agree D My pleasure Question 26: Mike: "I'm taking my end of term examination tomorrow" ~ Windy: " _" A Good time B Good day C Good chance D Good luck Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 27: The price of petroleum has decreased since last month A gone down B give up C look for D let off Question 28: In tonight's quiz, our competitors have come from all over the country A judges B contestants C singers D winners Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 29: The price of petroleum has decreased since last month A fall in B increase C reduce D cut down Question 30: The President expressed his deep sorrow over the bombing deaths A joyance B anxiety C disappointment D interest Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions PREPARING A DINNER PARTY Giving a dinner party is a wonderful way of entertain people You can also make new friends and give others the chance to get to know each other better It needs planning, though First, make a guest list, with different kinds of people and a mixture of women and men Don't invite couples because they aren't so much fun When you know who can come, find out what they like to eat and drink Note down any who are vegetarians, or who can't eat or drink certain things for religious seasons Then plan their menu Include a first course, a choice of main courses and a dessert, plus lots of people's favourite drinks The next thing to is the shopping Make sure buy more than enough of everything, and that someone can help you carry it! On the day, start cooking early Give people appetizers like Greek mezze or Spanish tapas, so they don't get hungry if they have to wait Serve the delicious meal, sit down with your guests and have a good time – you've earned it! Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the purpose of giving a dinner party? A to entertain people B to make new friends C to get people to know more about their host and hostess D to help people to know each other better Question 32: When giving a dinner party, you should NOT invite A husbands and wives B those who are vegetarians C both women and men D those who can't eat or drink certain things Question 33: The menu should include these EXCEPT A a first course B a supper C a dessert D main courses Question 34: According to the passage, starters should be served A because the guests want to have a good time together B because the guests like eating them C because the guests want to eat them while having to wait D because the guests may be hungry while having to wait Question 35: What should you while the guests are having their evening meal? A Stand beside the guests without doing anything B Sit down with the guests and have a good time C Sit down with the guests to show your politeness D Only serve the guests with the food Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks Last Saturday the (36) of three classes of my school took (37) the annual final English Competition organized by our English teachers Its aim was to stimulate the spirit of 38) English among students The competition (39) by the Students' Parents Society Mrs Lien, our (40) teacher, explained the competition's rules to the students Question 36: A representatives B monitors C representants D competitors Question 37: A part to B part out C part in D part of Question 38: A.to learn B learning C learned D to learning Question 39: A was sponsored B sponsored C to sponsor D sponsor Question 40: A England B English C Englished D Englishing PART B: TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before them (0,5 x câu = 2,0 điểm) Question 41: She said to him, "If I were you, I would attend the class." => She told him Question 42: My teacher said, " I think you should study harder." => My teacher advised Question 43: " Why don't we go to Paris for the weekend." => Neil suggested Question 44: She started studying English 10 years ago => She has THE END _ (Học sinh không dùng từ điển) ĐÁP ÁN A TRẮC NGHIỆM: Mỗi câu 0,2đ x 40câu = 8,0đ 1D 2D 3C 4A 5C 6D 7C 8B 9A 10C 11B 12A 13C 14D 15B 16C 17D 18D 19B 20A 21C 22B 23A 24A 25B 26D 27A 28B 29B 30A 39A 40B 31C 32A 33B 34D 35B 36A 37C 38B B TỰ LUẬN: Mỗi câu 0,5đ x 4câu = 2,0 đ Question 41: => She told him (that) if she were him, she would attend the class Question 42: => My teacher advised me to study harder Question 43: => Neil suggested going to Paris for the weekend Question 44: => She has studied English for 10 years => She has been studying Enlish for 10 years THE END _ ĐỀ 10 ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45 phút I Multiple choices (10ps) Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group A honour B honest C humour D hour A pleasant B increase C decrease D creature Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges The new manager’s took all the staff by surprise A participation B announcement C education D competition They never let me the night out when I was at school A to spend B spending C spend D having spent Mary’s brother the packages before 6.30 p.m yesterday A delivered B delivering C has delivered D had delivered “Be modest if you are a good pupil”, said my father A My father advised me to be modest if I was a good pupil B My father advised me to modest if I was a good pupil C My father advised me to be modest I if was a good pupil D My father advised me to be modest if I am a good pupil His sudden sickness prevented him active participation in the competition A for B about C from D to I feel so at making a speech in front of a lot of people for the first time A embarrassed B embarrassing C embarrassment D embarrass He stole the car When we asked, he denied it A to steal B stealing C to be stolen D having stolen 10 How the water is hot without touching it? A did you know B you know C have you known D had you known 11 Kevin’s .has made everyone keep away from him A selfish B selfishness C unselfish D unselfishness 12 If Susan so much chocolate last night, she wouldn’t feel sick A ate B didn’t eat C had eaten D hadn’t eaten 13 Tom thanked Kate driving him to the airport A of B for C from D on 14 In my opinion, there are five most important which are necessary for true friendship to exist A thing B qualities C appearance D personality 15 – A: “What you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?” – B: “ ” A Congratulations! B It’s so kind of you to say so C I’m glad you like it D Oh, It’s great Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 16 A new educational program has been established to help economically disadvantaged children A looked up B taken up C sat up 17 Europe’s 710 million comprised 11 % of the world population A accounted for B comprised C.make up D set up D have Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 18 The number of (A) young teachers nowadays (B) devote (C) themselves to teaching disadvantaged (D) children 19 The most (A) important thing was our participation (B) in the competitive (C) and enjoyment (D) 20 The children agreed (A) to divide (B) the candy equally (C) by (D) their mother II READING.(10ps) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks Last Saturday, the representatives of three classes of my school (20) part in the annual final English competition (21) by our English teachers To take part in in the contest, they have to work in groups (22) three They must complete five activities in all On completion of each activity, they have to answer the questions (23) the worksheet The judges will observe and score their (24) 20 A takes B took C taking D take 21 A to organize B organize C organizing D organized 22 A of B for C by D with 23 A in B at C on D of 24 A perform B performed C performance D to perform Read the passage and answer the following questions The ASEAN Para Games aims at promoting sports for people with disabilities in the region and increasing public awareness of disabled sports Regional Para Sport events offer opportunities for building friendship and cooperation among disabled people in ASEAN member states The ASEAN Para Games is held about every two years after the Southeast Asian Games (SEA games) in an ASEAN member state The First ASEAN Para Games took place in 2001 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia This was the first major sports events of the ASEAN Para Sports Federation (APSF) The second ASEAN Para Games was organised in 2003 in Viet Nam The third, fourth, fifth and sixth ASEAN Para Games were held in the Philippines, Thailand, Malaysia and Indonesia respectively Athletes with disabilities from the ten ASEAN members and East Timor attended the th ASEAN Para Games in 2014 in Myanmar They competed in 12 sports: archery, athletics, boccia, chess, football 5-a-side, football 7-a-side, goalball, powerlifting, swimming, table tennis, sitting volleyball and wheelchair basketball Indonesia finished first and Thailand, which had dominated the Games for more than a decade, dropped to the second place Malaysia and Viet Nam retained the fourth position There were about 120 Vietnamese athletes at the 2014 ASEAN Para Games They took part in six events Even though the Vietnamese delegation was not among the top three, the th ASEAN Para Games could be considered a successful event for Viet Nam, Asian and world Para Games records *Questions: What does the ASEAN Para Games aim at? How many countries took part in the 7th ASEAN Para Games in 2014 in Myanmar? When and where did the fifth ASEAN Para Games take place? Did Thailand always finish first in the Games for more than a decade? Who can participate in the Games? III WRITING (10ps) Rewrite the following sentence without changing its meaning We didn’t fly to London because the weather was very bad -> If the After fighting the fire for hours, the firemen succeeded in putting it out -> The firemen managed “I wouldn’t have succeeded if you hadn’t given me a hand”, Tom said to Daisy -> Tom said to Daisy Complete the following sentences Some people/ believe/ happiest people/ world/ those/ bring/ happiness/ others// -> He/ help/ his friend/ get good mark/ explain/ lessons/ carefully// -> ĐÁP ÁN I Multiple choices (10ps) Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group A honour B honest C humour D hour A pleasant B increase C decrease D creature Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges The new manager’s took all the staff by surprise A participation B announcement C education D competition They never let me the night out when I was at school A to spend B spending C spend D having spent Mary’s brother the packages before 6.30 p.m yesterday A delivered B delivering C has delivered D had delivered “Be modest if you are a good pupil”, said my father A My father advised me to be modest if I was a good pupil B My father advised me to modest if I was a good pupil C My father advised me to be modest I if was a good pupil D My father advised me to be modest if I am a good pupil His sudden sickness prevented him active participation in the competition A for B about C from D to I feel so at making a speech in front of a lot of people for the first time A embarrassed B embarrassing C embarrassment D embarrass He stole the car When we asked, he denied it A to steal B stealing C to be stolen D having stolen 10 How the water is hot without touching it? A did you know B you know C have you known D had you known 11 Kevin’s .has made everyone keep away from him A selfish B selfishness C unselfish D unselfishness 12 If Susan so much chocloate last night, she wouldn’t feel sick A ate B didn’t eat C had eaten D hadn’t eaten 13 Tom thanked Kate driving him to the airport A of B for C from D on 14 In my opinion, there are five most important which are necessary for true friendship to exist A thing B qualities C appearance D personality 15 – A: “What you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?” – B: “ ” A Congratulations! B It’s so kind of you to say so C I’m glad you like it D Oh, It’s great Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 16 A new educational program has been established to help economically disadvantaged children A looked up B taken up C sat up 17 Europe’s 710 million comprised 11 % of the world population A accounted for B comprised C.make up D set up D have Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 18 The number of (A) young teachers nowadays (B) devote (C) themselves to teaching disadvantaged (D) children 19 The most (A) important thing was our participation (B) in the competitive (C) and enjoyment (D) 20 The children agreed (A) to divide (B) the candy equally (C) by (D) their mother II READING.(10ps) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks Last Saturday, the representatives of three classes of my school (20) part in the annual final English competition (21) by our English teachers To take part in in the contest, they have to work in groups (22) three They must complete five activities in all On completion of each activity, they have to answer the questions (23) the worksheet The judges will observe and score their (24) 20 A takes B took C taking D take 21 A to organize B organize C organizing D organized 22 A of B for C by D with 23 A in B at C on D of 24 A perform B performed C performance D to perform Read the passage and answer the following questions The ASEAN Para Games aims at promoting sports for people with disabilities in the region and increasing public awareness of disabled sports Regional Para Sport events offer opportunities for building friendship and cooperation among disabled people in ASEAN member states The ASEAN Para Games is held about every two years after the Southeast Asian Games (SEA games) in an ASEAN member state The First ASEAN Para Games took place in 2001 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia This was the first major sports events of the ASEAN Para Sports Federation (APSF) The second ASEAN Para Games was organised in 2003 in Viet Nam The third, fourth, fifth and sixth ASEAN Para Games were held in the Philippines, Thailand, Malaysia and Indonesia respectively Athletes with disabilities from the ten ASEAN members and East Timor attended the th ASEAN Para Games in 2014 in Myanmar They competed in 12 sports: archery, athletics, boccia, chess, football 5-a-side, football 7-a-side, goalball, powerlifting, swimming, table tennis, sitting volleyball and wheelchair basketball Indonesia finished first and Thailand, which had dominated the Games for more than a decade, dropped to the second place Malaysia and Viet Nam retained the fourth position There were about 120 Vietnamese athletes at the 2014 ASEAN Para Games They took part in six events Even though the Vietnamese delegation was not among the top three, the th ASEAN Para Games could be considered a successful event for Viet Nam, Asian and world Para Games records *Questions: What does the ASEAN Para Games aim at? (The ASEAN Pare Games aims at) promoting sports for people with disabilities in the region, increasing public awareness of disabled sports and building friendship and cooperation among disabled How many countries took part in the 7th ASEAN Para Games in 2014 in Myanmar? Eleven countries (11/ eleven) When and where did the fifth ASEAN Para Games take place? In 2009 in Malaysia Did Thailand always finish first in the Games for more than a decade? Yes, it did Who can participate in the Games? Athletes with disabilities/ The disabled III WRITING.(10ps) Rewrite the following sentence without changing its meaning We didn’t fly to London because the weather was very bad -> If the weather had been nice, we would have flown to London After fighting the fire for hours, the firemen succeeded in putting it out -> The firemen managed to put the fire out after fighting it for hours “I wouldn’t have succeeded if you hadn’t given me a hand”, Tom said to Daisy -> Tom said to Daisy he wouldn’t have succeeded if she hadn’t given him a hand Complete the following sentences Some people/ believe/ happiest people/ world/ those/ bring/ happiness/ others// -> Some people believe that the happiest people in the world are those who bring happiness to others He/ help/ his friend/ get good mark/ explain/ lessons/ carefully// -> He helped his friend get (to get) good mark by explaining the lessons carefully ... ÁN C B 17 B 25 A D 10 C 18 D 26 D A 11 A 19 D 27 B B 12 B 20 D 28 D D 13 C 21 B 29 B C 14 A 22 A 30 D C 15 C 23 A 31 C A 16 B 24 A 32 C ĐỀ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Môn TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 45... from 19 51 to 19 56 This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada’s history, in the decade before 19 11 when the prairies were being settled Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions... others 39 a coordinate b voluntary c minority d development 40 a assistance b supporter c vocation d secretary ( The end ) ĐÁP ÁN 1- D 2-B 3-B 4-C 5-D 6-A 11 -D 12 -A 13 -C 14 -B 15 -D 16 -C 21- B 22-A