corporate finance 11th edition solutions manual 10 20 15

Solutions Manual Corporate Finance Ross, Westerfield, Jaffe, and Jordan 11th edition 10/20/2015 Prepared by: Brad Jordan University of Kentucky Joe Smolira Belmont University CHAPTER INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCE Answers to Concept Questions In the corporate form of ownership, the shareholders are the owners of the firm The shareholders elect the directors of the corporation, who in turn appoint the firm’s management This separation of ownership from control in the corporate form of organization is what causes agency problems to exist Management may act in its own or someone else’s best interests, rather than those of the shareholders If such events occur, they may contradict the goal of maximizing the share price of the equity of the firm Such organizations frequently pursue social or political missions, so many different goals are conceivable One goal that is often cited is revenue minimization; i.e., provide whatever goods and services are offered at the lowest possible cost to society A better approach might be to observe that even a not-for-profit business has equity Thus, one answer is that the appropriate goal is to maximize the value of the equity Presumably, the current stock value reflects the risk, timing, and magnitude of all future cash flows, both short-term and long-term If this is correct, then the statement is false An argument can be made either way At the one extreme, we could argue that in a market economy, all of these things are priced There is thus an optimal level of, for example, ethical and/or illegal behavior, and the framework of stock valuation explicitly includes these At the other extreme, we could argue that these are non-economic phenomena and are best handled through the political process A classic (and highly relevant) thought question that illustrates this debate goes something like this: “A firm has estimated that the cost of improving the safety of one of its products is $30 million However, the firm believes that improving the safety of the product will only save $20 million in product liability claims What should the firm do?” The goal will be the same, but the best course of action toward that goal may be different because of differing social, political, and economic institutions The goal of management should be to maximize the share price for the current shareholders If management believes that it can improve the profitability of the firm so that the share price will exceed $35, then they should fight the offer from the outside company If management believes that this bidder or other unidentified bidders will actually pay more than $35 per share to acquire the company, then they should still fight the offer However, if the current management cannot increase the value of the firm beyond the bid price, and no other higher bids come in, then management is not acting in the interests of the shareholders by fighting the offer Since current managers often lose their jobs when the corporation is acquired, poorly monitored managers have an incentive to fight corporate takeovers in situations such as this – SOLUTIONS MANUAL We would expect agency problems to be less severe in other countries, primarily due to the relatively small percentage of individual ownership Fewer individual owners should reduce the number of diverse opinions concerning corporate goals The high percentage of institutional ownership might lead to a higher degree of agreement between owners and managers on decisions concerning risky projects In addition, institutions may be better able to implement effective monitoring mechanisms on managers than can individual owners, based on the institutions’ deeper resources and experiences with their own management The increase in institutional ownership of stock in the United States and the growing activism of these large shareholder groups may lead to a reduction in agency problems for U.S corporations and a more efficient market for corporate control However, this may not always be the case If the managers of the mutual fund or pension plan are not concerned with the interests of the investors, the agency problem could potentially remain the same, or even increase since there is the possibility of agency problems between the fund and its investors How much is too much? Who is worth more, Larry Ellison or Tiger Woods? The simplest answer is that there is a market for executives just as there is for all types of labor Executive compensation is the price that clears the market The same is true for athletes and performers Having said that, one aspect of executive compensation deserves comment A primary reason executive compensation has grown so dramatically is that companies have increasingly moved to stock-based compensation Such movement is obviously consistent with the attempt to better align stockholder and management interests In recent years, stock prices have soared, so management has cleaned up It is sometimes argued that much of this reward is due to rising stock prices in general, not managerial performance Perhaps in the future, executive compensation will be designed to reward only differential performance, i.e., stock price increases in excess of general market increases 10 Maximizing the current share price is the same as maximizing the future share price at any future period The value of a share of stock depends on all of the future cash flows of company Another way to look at this is that, barring large cash payments to shareholders, the expected price of the stock must be higher in the future than it is today Who would buy a stock for $100 today when the share price in one year is expected to be $80? CHAPTER ACCOUNTING STATEMENTS, TAXES, AND CASH FLOW Answers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions True Every asset can be converted to cash at some price However, when we are referring to a liquid asset, the added assumption that the asset can be quickly converted to cash at or near market value is important The recognition and matching principles in financial accounting call for revenues, and the costs associated with producing those revenues, to be “booked” when the revenue process is essentially complete, not necessarily when the cash is collected or bills are paid Note that this way is not necessarily correct; it’s the way accountants have chosen to it The bottom line number shows the change in the cash balance on the balance sheet As such, it is not a useful number for analyzing a company The major difference is the treatment of interest expense The accounting statement of cash flows treats interest as an operating cash flow, while the financial cash flows treat interest as a financing cash flow The logic of the accounting statement of cash flows is that since interest appears on the income statement, which shows the operations for the period, it is an operating cash flow In reality, interest is a financing expense, which results from the company’s choice of debt and equity We will have more to say about this in a later chapter When comparing the two cash flow statements, the financial statement of cash flows is a more appropriate measure of the company’s performance because of its treatment of interest Market values can never be negative Imagine a share of stock selling for –$20 This would mean that if you placed an order for 100 shares, you would get the stock along with a check for $2,000 How many shares you want to buy? More generally, because of corporate and individual bankruptcy laws, net worth for a person or a corporation cannot be negative, implying that liabilities cannot exceed assets in market value For a successful company that is rapidly expanding, for example, capital outlays will be large, possibly leading to negative cash flow from assets In general, what matters is whether the money is spent wisely, not whether cash flow from assets is positive or negative It’s probably not a good sign for an established company to have negative cash flow from operations, but it would be fairly ordinary for a start-up, so it depends – SOLUTIONS MANUAL For example, if a company were to become more efficient in inventory management, the amount of inventory needed would decline The same might be true if the company becomes better at collecting its receivables In general, anything that leads to a decline in ending NWC relative to beginning would have this effect Negative net capital spending would mean more long-lived assets were liquidated than purchased If a company raises more money from selling stock than it pays in dividends in a particular period, its cash flow to stockholders will be negative If a company borrows more than it pays in interest and principal, its cash flow to creditors will be negative 10 The adjustments discussed were purely accounting changes; they had no cash flow or market value consequences unless the new accounting information caused stockholders to revalue the assets Solutions to Questions and Problems NOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet Many problems require multiple steps Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem Basic To find owners’ equity, we must construct a balance sheet as follows: CA NFA TA Balance Sheet CL LTD OE $29,900 TL & OE $ 4,900 25,000 $ 4,100 10,300 ?? $29,900 We know that total liabilities and owners’ equity (TL & OE) must equal total assets of $29,900 We also know that TL & OE is equal to current liabilities plus long-term debt plus owners’ equity, so owners’ equity is: Owners’ equity = $29,900 –10,300 – 4,100 Owners’ equity = $15,500 And net working capital is current assets minus current liabilities, so: NWC = Current assets – Current liabilities NWC = $4,900 – 4,100 NWC = $800 CHAPTER - The income statement for the company is: Income Statement Sales Costs Depreciation EBIT Interest EBT Taxes Net income $435,000 216,000 40,000 $179,000 21,000 $158,000 55,300 $102,700 One equation for net income is: Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earnings Rearranging, we get: Addition to retained earnings = Net income – Dividends Addition to retained earnings = $102,700 – 30,000 Addition to retained earnings = $72,700 To find the book value of current assets, we use: NWC = CA – CL Rearranging to solve for current assets, we get: Current assets = Net working capital + Current liabilities Current assets = $800,000 + 2,400,000 = $3,200,000 The market value of current assets and net fixed assets is given, so: Book value CA = $3,200,000 Book value NFA = $5,200,000 Book value assets = $8,400,000 Market value CA = $2,600,000 Market value NFA = $6,500,000 Market value assets = $9,100,000 Taxes = 15($50,000) + 25($25,000) + 34($25,000) + 39($198,000 – 100,000) Taxes = $60,470 The average tax rate is the total tax paid divided by taxable income, so: Average tax rate = $60,470 / $198,000 Average tax rate = 3054, or 30.54% The marginal tax rate is the tax rate on the next $1 of earnings, so the marginal tax rate = 39% – SOLUTIONS MANUAL To calculate OCF, we first need the income statement: Income Statement Sales Costs Depreciation EBIT Interest Taxable income Taxes Net income $19,800 10,900 2,100 $6,800 1,250 $5,550 2,220 $3,330 OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes OCF = $6,800 + 2,100 – 2,220 OCF = $6,680 Net capital spending = NFAend – NFAbeg + Depreciation Net capital spending = $1,510,000 – 1,320,000 + 137,000 Net capital spending = $327,000 The long-term debt account will increase by $30 million, the amount of the new long-term debt issue Since the company sold million new shares of stock with a $1 par value, the common stock account will increase by $5 million The capital surplus account will increase by $58 million, the value of the new stock sold above its par value Since the company had a net income of $8 million, and paid $1.8 million in dividends, the addition to retained earnings was $6.2 million, which will increase the accumulated retained earnings account So, the new long-term debt and stockholders’ equity portion of the balance sheet will be: Long-term debt Total long-term debt $ 85,000,000 $ 85,000,000 Shareholders’ equity Preferred stock Common stock ($1 par value) Accumulated retained earnings Capital surplus Total equity $ 3,100,000 17,000,000 125,200,000 114,000,000 $ 259,300,000 Total Liabilities & Equity $ 344,300,000 Cash flow to creditors = Interest paid – Net new borrowing Cash flow to creditors = $185,000 – (LTDend – LTDbeg) Cash flow to creditors = $185,000 – ($1,730,000 – 1,625,000) Cash flow to creditors = $185,000 – 105,000 Cash flow to creditors = $80,000 CHAPTER - 9 Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – Net new equity Cash flow to stockholders = $275,000 – [(Commonend + APISend) – (Commonbeg + APISbeg)] Cash flow to stockholders = $275,000 – [($545,000 + 3,850,000) – ($510,000 + 3,600,000)] Cash flow to stockholders = $275,000 – ($4,395,000 – 4,100,000) Cash flow to stockholders = –$10,000 Note, APIS is the additional paid-in surplus 10 Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders = $80,000 – 10,000 = $70,000 Cash flow from assets $70,000 Operating cash flow Operating cash flow = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending = OCF – (–$132,000) – 975,000 = $70,000 – 132,000 + 975,000 = $913,000 Intermediate 11 a The accounting statement of cash flows explains the change in cash during the year The accounting statement of cash flows will be: Statement of cash flows Operations Net income Depreciation Changes in other current assets Change in accounts payable Total cash flow from operations $120 90 (15) 15 $210 Investing activities Acquisition of fixed assets Total cash flow from investing activities $(110) $(110) Financing activities Proceeds of long-term debt Dividends Total cash flow from financing activities $10 (95) ($85) Change in cash (on balance sheet) $15 10 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL b Change in NWC = NWCend – NWCbeg = (CAend – CLend) – (CAbeg – CLbeg) = [($80 + 185) – 140] – [($60 + 170) – 125) = $125 – 105 = $20 c To find the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, we need the operating cash flow, and the capital spending So, calculating each of these, we find: Operating cash flow Net income Depreciation Operating cash flow $120 90 $210 Note that we can calculate OCF in this manner since there are no taxes Capital spending Ending fixed assets Beginning fixed assets Depreciation Capital spending $405 –385 90 $110 Now we can calculate the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, which is: Cash flow from assets Operating cash flow Capital spending Change in NWC Cash flow from assets $210 –110 –20 $ 80 12 With the information provided, the cash flows from the firm are the capital spending and the change in net working capital, so: Cash flows from the firm Capital spending Additions to NWC Cash flows from the firm $(27,000) (2,300) $(29,300) And the cash flows to the investors of the firm are: Cash flows to investors of the firm Sale of long-term debt Sale of common stock Dividends paid Cash flows to investors of the firm $(17,800) (5,000) 15,200 $(7,600) 554 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL And the NPV of the stock offer under the new assumption will be: NPV stock = $12,061,099.80 – 225,000($42.30) NPV stock = $2,544,434.61 Even with the lower projected growth rate, the stock offer still has a positive NPV The NPV of the stock offer is still higher Plant should purchase Palmer with a stock offer of 225,000 shares 16 a To find the distribution of joint values, we first must find the joint probabilities To this, we need to find the joint probabilities for each possible combination of weather in the two towns The weather conditions are independent; therefore, the joint probabilities are the products of the individual probabilities Possible states Rain-Rain Rain-Warm Rain-Hot Warm-Rain Warm-Warm Warm-Hot Hot-Rain Hot-Warm Hot-Hot Joint probability 1(.1) = 01 1(.4) = 04 1(.5) = 05 4(.1) = 04 4(.4) = 16 4(.5) = 20 5(.1) = 05 5(.4) = 20 5(.5) = 25 Next, note that the revenue when rainy is the same regardless of which town So, since the state "Rain-Warm" has the same outcome (revenue) as "Warm-Rain", their probabilities can be added The same is true of "Rain-Hot" / "Hot-Rain" and "Warm-Hot" / "Hot-Warm" Thus the joint probabilities are: Possible states Rain-Rain Rain-Warm Rain-Hot Warm-Warm Warm-Hot Hot-Hot Joint probability 01 08 10 16 40 25 Finally, the joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particular state Possible states Rain-Rain Rain-Warm Rain-Hot Warm-Warm Warm-Hot Hot-Hot $230,000 + 230,000 = $230,000 + 450,000 = $230,000 + 905,000 = $450,000 + 450,000 = $450,000 + 905,000 = $905,000 + 905,000 = Joint value $460,000 680,000 1,135,000 900,000 1,355,000 1,810,000 CHAPTER 29 -555 b Recall that if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets Thus, the value of the debt is reduced to the value of the company if the face value of the debt is greater than the value of the company If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value Here, the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt So, the value of the debt and the value of the stock in each state is: Possible states Rain-Rain Rain-Warm Rain-Hot Warm-Warm Warm-Hot Hot-Hot c Joint Prob .01 08 10 16 40 25 Joint Value $460,000 680,000 1,135,000 900,000 1,355,000 1,810,000 Debt Value $460,000 680,000 900,000 900,000 900,000 900,000 Stock Value $0 235,000 455,000 910,000 The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater than the value of the debt before the merger The value of the debt is the smaller of the debt value or the company value So, the value of the debt of each individual company before the merger in each state is: Possible states Rain Warm Hot Probability 10 40 50 Debt Value $230,000 450,000 450,000 Individual debt value = 1($230,000) + 4($450,000) + 5($450,000) Individual debt value = $428,000 This means the total value of the debt for both companies pre-merger must be: Total debt value pre-merger = 2($428,000) Total debt value pre-merger = $856,000 To get the expected debt value, post-merger, we can use the joint probabilities for each possible state and the debt values corresponding to each state we found in part c Using this information to find the value of the debt in the post-merger firm, we get: Total debt value post-merger = 01($460,000) + 08($680,000) + 10($900,000) + 16($900,000) + 40($900,000) + 25($900,000) Total debt value post-merger = $878,000 The bondholders are better off by $22,000 Since we have already shown that the total value of the combined company is the same as the sum of the value of the individual companies, the implication is that the stockholders are worse off by $22,000 CHAPTER 30 FINANCIAL DISTRESS Answers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions Financial distress is often linked to insolvency Stock-based insolvency occurs when a firm has a negative net worth Flow-based insolvency occurs when operating cash flow is insufficient to meet current obligations Financial distress frequently can serve as a firm’s “early warning” sign for trouble Thus, it can be beneficial since it may bring about new organizational forms and new operating strategies A prepackaged bankruptcy is where the firm and most creditors agree to a private reorganization before bankruptcy takes place After the private agreement, the firm files for formal bankruptcy The biggest advantage is that a prepackaged bankruptcy is usually cheaper and faster than a traditional bankruptcy Just because a firm is experiencing financial distress doesn’t necessarily imply the firm is worth more dead than alive Liquidation occurs when the assets of a firm are sold and payments are made to creditors (usually based upon the APR) Reorganization is the restructuring of the firm's finances The absolute priority rule is the priority rule of the distribution of the proceeds of the liquidation It begins with the first claim to the last, in the order: administrative expenses, unsecured claims after a filing of involuntary bankruptcy petition, wages, employee benefit plans, consumer claims, taxes, secured and unsecured loans, preferred stocks and common stocks Bankruptcy allows firms to issue new debt that is senior to all previously incurred debt This new debt is called DIP (debtor in possession) debt If DIP loans were not senior to all other debt, a firm in bankruptcy would be unable to obtain financing necessary to continue operations while in bankruptcy since the lender would be unlikely to make the loan One answer is that the right to file for bankruptcy is a valuable asset, and the financial manager acts in shareholders’ best interest by managing this asset in ways that maximize its value To the extent that a bankruptcy filing prevents “a race to the courthouse steps,” it would seem to be a reasonable use of the process As in the previous question, it could be argued that using bankruptcy laws as a sword may be the best use of the asset Creditors are aware at the time a loan is made of the possibility of bankruptcy, and the interest charged incorporates it If the only way a firm can continue to operate is to reduce labor costs, it may be a benefit to everyone, including employees CHAPTER 30 -557 10 There are four possible reasons why firms may choose legal bankruptcy over private workout: 1) It may be less expensive (although legal bankruptcy is usually more expensive) 2) Equity investors can use legal bankruptcy to “hold out.” 3) A complicated capital structure makes private workouts more difficult 4) Conflicts of interest between creditors, equity investors and management can make private workouts impossible Solutions to Questions and Problems NOTE: All end of chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet Many problems require multiple steps Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem Basic Under the absolute priority rule (APR), claims are paid out in full to the extent there are assets In this case, assets are $31,400, so you should propose the following: Trade credit Secured mortgage notes Senior debentures Junior debentures Equity Distribution of liquidating value $4,700 7,400 12,000 7,300 There are many possible reorganization plans, so we will make an assumption that the mortgage bonds are fully recognized as senior debentures, the senior debentures will receive junior debentures in the value of 65 cents on the dollar, and the junior debentures will receive any remaining value as equity With these assumptions, the reorganization plan will look like this: Mortgage bonds Senior debentures Junior debentures Original claim $4,700 7,400 12,000 19,000 Original claim $20,000 10,500 7,500 Reorganized claim Senior debenture $20,000 Junior debenture 6,825 Equity 2,175 Since we are given shares outstanding and a share price, the company must be publicly traded First, we need to calculate the market value of equity, which is: Market value of equity = 7,500($27) = $202,500 We also need the book value of debt Since we have the value of total assets and the book value of equity, the book value of debt must be the difference between these two figures, or: Book value of debt = Total assets – Book value of equity Book value of debt = $95,000 – 21,000 Book value of debt = $74,000 558 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL Now, we can calculate the Z-score for a publicly traded company, which is: Z-score = 3.3(EBIT / Total assets) + 1.2(NWC / Total assets) + 1.0(Sales / Total assets) + 6(Market value of equity / Book value of debt) + 1.4(Accumulated retained earnings / Total assets) Z-score = 3.3($7,300 / $95,000) + 1.2($3,800 / $95,000) + ($104,000 / $95,000) + 6($202,500 / $74,000) +1.4($19,600 / $95,000) Z-score = 3.327 Since this company is private, we must use the Z-score for private companies and non-manufacturers, which is: Z-score = 6.56(NWC / Total assets) + 3.26(Accumulated retained earnings / Total assets) + 1.05(EBIT / Total assets) + 6.72(Book value of equity / Total liabilities) Z-score = 6.56($4,200 / $73,000) + 3.26($16,000 / $73,000) + 1.05($7,900 / $73,000) + 6.72($18,000 / $64,000) Z-score = 3.096 CHAPTER 31 INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCE Answers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions a The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than in the spot market (SF 1.11 versus SF 1.09) b The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buy one dollar in the future than it does today c Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar This is the relative PPP relationship a The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take more A$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today b The inflation rate in Australia is higher c Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are the same No For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exports become more expensive for others to buy (bad) The reverse is true for currency depreciation Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving on transportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency More generally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified a False If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the same amount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar b False The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relative to the dollar Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines 560 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL c True The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time a American exporters: Their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods for a fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars American importers: Their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars b American exporters: They would generally be better off if the British government’s intentions result in a strengthened pound American importers: They would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens c American exporters: They would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscal expansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in reais, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars American importers: They would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit any arbitrage opportunities Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly 10 It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period and whether the expectation is accurate Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure 11 One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investment provides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment 12 Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment If, after taking into consideration all risks, a project in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic 13 If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S parent will experience an exchange rate loss when the foreign cash flow is remitted to the U.S This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located 14 False If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rate and the U.S rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial CHAPTER 31 -561 Solutions to Questions and Problems NOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet Many problems require multiple steps Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem Basic Using the quotes from the table, we get: a $100(€.8031/$1) = €80.31 b $1.2452 c €5M($1.2452/€) = $6,226,000 d New Zealand dollar e Mexican peso f (P13.9334/$1)($1.2452/€1) = P17.3499/€ This is a cross rate g The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar The least valuable is the Vietnam dong a You would prefer £100, since: (£100)($1.5649/£1) = $156.49 b You would still prefer £100 Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/$ exchange rate to find the amount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get: (£100)($1.5649/£1)(SF.9655) = SF 151.0911 c Using the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find: (SF/$.9655)($1.5649/£1) = SF 1.5109/£1 The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so: £1/SF1.5109 = £.6619/SF1 562 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL a F180 = ¥118.37(per $) The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than in the spot market ($.0084303 versus $.0084481) b F90 = $.6394/£ The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forward market than in the spot market ($1.5649 versus $1.5640) c The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen in the future than it does today The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take less dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today a The U.S dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy: (Can$1)/(Can$1.13/$1) = $.8850 b The cost in U.S dollars is: (Can$2.50)/(Can$1.13/$1) = $2.21 Among the reasons that absolute PPP doesn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes c The U.S dollar is selling at a premium, because it is more expensive in the forward market than in the spot market (Can$1.13 versus Can$1.16) d The Canadian dollar is expected to depreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takes more Canadian dollars to buy one U.S dollar in the future than it does today e Interest rates in the United States are probably lower than they are in Canada a The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is: (¥126/$1)($1.53/£1) = ¥192.78/£1 b The yen is quoted high relative to the pound Take out a loan for $1 and buy £.6536 Use the £.6536 to purchase yen at the cross-rate, which will give you: ¥195.8(£.6536) = ¥127.9739 Use the yen to buy back dollars and repay the loan The cost to repay the loan will be: ¥127.9739($1/¥126) = $1.0157 Your arbitrage profit is $.0157 per dollar used CHAPTER 31 -563 We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question The equation we will use is: RFC = (FT – S0) / S0 + RUS Using this relationship, we find: Great Britain: RFC = (£.6400 – £.6390) / £.6390 + 019 = 0206, or 2.06% Japan: RFC = (¥118.37 – ¥118.62) / ¥118.62 + 019 = 0169, or 1.69% Switzerland: RFC = (SF.9632 – SF.9655) / SF.9655 + 019 = 0166, or 1.66% If we invest in the U.S for the next three months, we will have: $30,000,000(1.0017)3 = $30,153,260.25 If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be: ($30,000,000)(£.64/$1)(1.0061)3/(£.65/$1) = $30,082,319.47 The company should invest in the U.S Using the relative purchasing power parity equation: Ft = S0 × [1 + (hFC – hUS)]t We find: Z3.41 = Z3.29[1 + (hFC – hUS)]3 hFC – hUS = (Z3.41 / Z3.29)1/3 – hFC – hUS = 0120, or 1.20% Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S by 1.20% annually over this period The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production The production cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S dollars Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be: Profit = 30,000[$115 – {(S$141.30) / (S$1.3043/$1)}] Profit = $199,980.83 If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so: Profit = 30,000[$115 – {(S$141.30) / 1.1(S$1.3043/$1)}] Profit = $495,437.12 564 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so: Profit = 30,000[$115 – {(S$141.30) / 9(S$1.3043/$1)}] Profit = –$161,132.41 To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that makes the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S dollars, so: $115 = S$141.30/ST ST = S$1.2287/$1 ST = –.0580, or –5.80% 10 a If IRP holds, then: F180 = (Kr 6.97)[1 + (.05 – 03)]1/2 F180 = Kr 7.0394 Since given F180 is Kr 7.06, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high Borrow Kr today at percent interest Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 7.06 Convert the loan proceeds into dollars: Kr ($1/Kr 6.97) = $.14347 Invest these dollars at percent, ending up with $.14558 Convert the dollars back into krone as $.14558(Kr 7.06/$1) = Kr 1.02779 Repay the Kr loan, ending with a profit of: Kr 1.02779 – Kr 1.02435 = Kr 00343 b To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so: F180 = (Kr 6.97)[1 + (.05 – 03)]1/2 F180 = Kr 7.0394 11 The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal We can rearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question: RUS – hUS = RFC – hFC hFC = RFC + hUS – RUS a hAUS = 04 + 0195 – 018 hAUS = 0415, or 4.15% b hCAN = 06 + 0195 – 018 hCAN = 0615, or 6.15% c hTAI = 09 + 0195 – 018 hTAI = 0915, or 9.15% CHAPTER 31 -565 12 a The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the future than it does today hUS – hJAP  (¥114.35 – ¥115.13) / ¥115.13 hUS – hJAP = –.0068, or –.68% b (1 – 0068)4 – = –.0268, or –2.68% The approximate inflation differential between the U.S and Japan is –2.68 percent annually 13 We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasing power parity relationship: Ft = S0 × [1 + (hFC – hUS)]t Using this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be: F1 = 251[1 + (.037 – 028)]1 F1 = HUF 253.26 The exchange rate in two years should be: F2 = 251[1 + (.037 – 028)]2 F2 = HUF 255.54 And the exchange rate in five years should be: F5 = 251[1 + (.037 – 028)]5 F5 = HUF 262.50 Intermediate 14 First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years From interest rate and purchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is: E(ST) = [(1 + RUS) / (1 + RFC)]t S0 So: E(S1) = (1.0310 / 1.0290)1 ($1.04/€) = $1.0420/€ E(S2) = (1.0310 / 1.0290)2 ($1.04/€) = $1.0440/€ E(S3) = (1.0310 / 1.0290)3 ($1.04/€) = $1.0461/€ 566 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows The dollar cash flow each year will be: Year cash flow = –€$19,000,000($1.04/€) Year cash flow = €$3,600,000($1.0420/€) Year cash flow = €$4,100,000($1.0440/€) Year cash flow = (€5,100,000 + 12,700,000)($1.0461/€) = –$19,760,000.00 = $3,751,276.97 = $4,280,591.42 = $18,620,151.63 And the NPV of the project will be: NPV = –$19,760,000 + $3,751,276.97 / 1.105 + $4,280,591.42 / 1.1052 + $18,620,151.63 / 1.1053 NPV = $941,106.39 15 a Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but the exchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate b We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time The equation is: E[ST] = (SF 1.17)[1 + (.05 – 06)]t E[ST] = 1.17(.99)t So, the cash flows each year in U.S dollar terms will be: t SF –25,000,000 6,900,000 6,900,000 6,900,000 6,900,000 6,900,000 E[St] US$ 1.1700 1.1583 1.1467 1.1352 1.1239 1.1127 –$21,367,521.37 5,957,005.96 6,017,177.73 6,077,957.31 6,139,350.82 6,201,364.46 And the NPV is: NPV = –$21,367,521.37 + $5,957,005.96/1.12 + $6,017,177.73/1.122 + $6,077,957.31/1.123 + $6,139,350.82/1.124 + $6,201,364.46/1.125 NPV = $494,750.33 c Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swiss francs, we get: RSF = 1.12[1 + (.05 – 06)] – RSF = 10.88% So, the NPV in Swiss francs is: NPV = –SF 25,000,000 + SF 6,900,000(PVIFA10.88%,5) NPV = SF 578,857.89 CHAPTER 31 -567 Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S dollars as: NPV = (SF 578,857.89)($1/SF 1.17) NPV = $494,750.33 16 a To construct the balance sheet in dollars, we need to convert the account balances to dollars At the current exchange rate, we get: Assets = solaris 43,000 × ($ / solaris 1.20) = $35,833.33 Debt = solaris 14,000 × ($ / solaris 1.20) = $11,666.67 Equity = solaris 29,000 × ($ / solaris 1.20) = $24,166.67 b In one year, if the exchange rate is solaris 1.40/$, the accounts will be: Assets = solaris 43,000 × ($ / solaris 1.40) = $30,714.29 Debt = solaris 14,000 × ($ / solaris 1.40) = $10,000.00 Equity = solaris 29,000 × ($ / solaris 1.40) = $20,714.29 c If the exchange rate is solaris 1.12/$, the accounts will be: Assets = solaris 43,000 × ($ / solaris 1.12) = $38,392.86 Debt = solaris 14,000 × ($ / solaris 1.12) = $12,500.00 Equity = solaris 29,000 × ($ / solaris 1.12) = $25,892.86 Challenge 17 First, we need to construct the end of year balance sheet in solaris Since the company has retained earnings, the equity account will increase, which necessarily implies the assets will also increase by the same amount So, the balance sheet at the end of the year in solaris will be: Assets Balance Sheet (solaris) Liabilities Equity $44,750 Total liabilities & equity Now we need to convert the balance sheet accounts to dollars, which gives us: Assets = solaris 44,750 × ($ / solaris 1.24) = $36,088.71 Debt = solaris 14,000 × ($ / solaris 1.24) = $11,290.32 Equity = solaris 30,750 × ($ / solaris 1.24) = $24,798.39 18 a The domestic Fisher effect is: + RUS = (1 + rUS)(1 + hUS) + rUS = (1 + RUS)/(1 + hUS) This relationship must hold for any country, that is: + rFC = (1 + RFC)/(1 + hFC) $14,000 30,750 $44,750 568 – SOLUTIONS MANUAL The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so: + rUS = (1 + RUS)/(1 + hUS) = (1 + RFC)/(1 + hFC) = + rFC b The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is: E[St] = Ft = S0 [(1 + RFC)/(1 + RUS)]t c The exact form for relative PPP is: E[St] = S0 [(1 + hFC)/(1 + hUS)]t d For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at Time t as: E[St] = (€.5)[1.07/1.05]t = (€.5)(1.019)t We then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value Doing so, we find: NPV = – [€2M/(€.5)] + {€.9M/[1.019(€.5)]}/1.1 + {€.9M/[1.0192(€.5)]}/1.12 + {€.9M/[1.0193(€.5)]}/1.13 NPV = $316,230.72 For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in euros as: RFC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – = 121 Next, we find the NPV in euros as: NPV = – €2M + (€.9M)/1.121 + (€.9M)/1.1212 + (€.9M)/1.1213 = €158,115.36 And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is: NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /€.5 = $316,230.72 ... assets 201 4 Total liabilities 201 4 Owners’ equity 201 4 = $964 + 4,384 = $5,348 = $401 + 2,380 = $2,781 = $5,348 – 2,781 = $2,567 Total assets 201 5 Total liabilities 201 5 Owners’ equity 201 5 = $1,176... 5 ,104 = $6,280 = $445 + 2,713 = $3 ,158 = $6,280 – 3 ,158 = $3,122 = CA14 – CL14 = $964 – 401 = $563 = CA15 – CL15 = $1,176 – 445 = $731 = NWC15 – NWC14 = $731 – 563 = $168 b NWC 201 4 NWC 201 5... Sales Growth Growth $978,250 $1, 015, 875 761,280 790,560 20, 020 20,790 $196,950 $204 ,525 11,340 11,340 $185, 610 $193,185 64,964 67, 615 $ 120, 647 $125,570 $33,239 77,560 $36,194 84,453 $37,671 87,899