INSTITUTE FOR LEADERSHIP DEVELOPMENT VIET NAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY HO CHI MINH CITY MIDTERM TEST VIETNAMESE STANDARDISED TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY VSTEP Name?. VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVE
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VIET NAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY HO CHI MINH CITY
MIDTERM TEST VIETNAMESE STANDARDISED TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY
(VSTEP)
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BINH PHUOC - 2023
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WY 4+ INSTITUTE FOR LEADERSHIP DEVELOPMENT
VNU=ILEAD VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY HO CHI MINH CITY
READING TEST Time allowance: approximately 40 minutes
Number of questions: 20
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read TWO different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it For questions 1-20, you are to choose the best answer A, B,
C or D, to each question Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage You have 40 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet
Example:
Read the following passage:
One of the first things we look for in fall is the first frost and freeze of the season, killing or sending into dormancy the beautiful vegetation you admired all summer long For some locations along the Canadian border, and in the higher terrain of the West, the first freeze typically arrives by the middle part of September Cities in the
5 South may not see the first freeze until November, though a frost is very possible
before then A few cities in the Lower 48, including International Falls, Minnesota and Grand Forks, North Dakota, have recorded a freeze in every month of the year
0.When does the first freeze often arrive in the South?
A Early September B Mid September
C November D Before November
You will read in the passage that “Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until
November”, so the correct answer is option C November
READING PASSAGE 1: Questions 1-10
Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from I to 10
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global warming,
Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as
flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures
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With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountain top regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther to go
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult Some scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, many not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world Also increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean
waters This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems
Question 1; Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers
to
A die instantly
C become lighter
D lose color
Question 2: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to
move
A south — eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower
B north — westwards and up mountainsides toward higher
C toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower
Question 3: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to
B ecosystems
C habitats
D areas
Question 4: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to
A the frozen water in the Artie
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B the violent Arctic Ocean
D the cold ice in the Arctic
Question 5; It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees,
A half of the earth’s surface would be covered in green
B the sea level would rise by 20
C water supply would decrease by 50
Question 6: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures
A they may be endangered
B they can begin to develop
C they will certainly need water
D they move to tropical forests
Question 7: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means
A very large
C rather strong
D pretty hard
Question 8: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates
A the water absorption of coral reefs
B the quick growth of marine mammals
C the blooming phase of sea weeds
D
Question 9; The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by
B the decrease of acidity of the pole
C the extinction of species in coastal
D the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the Earth
Question 10: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B
C Global warming and possible solutions
D Global warming and species migration
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READING PASSAGE 2: Questions 11-20
Noise Pollution
The word noise is derived from the Latin word Nausea, meaning “seasickness” Noise is among the most pervasive pollutants today Noise pollution can broadly be defined as unwanted or
offensive sounds that unreasonably intrude into our daily activities Noises from traffic, jet
engines, barking dogs, garbage trucks, construction equipment, factories, lawn mowers, leaf
blowers, televisions, boom boxes, and car radios, to name a few, are among the audible litter that
is routinely broadcast into the air
One measure of pollution is the danger it poses to health Noise negatively affects human health and well-being Problems related to noise include hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, sleeplessness, fright, distraction, and lost productivity Noise pollution also contributes to a general deduction in the quality of life and eliminates opportunities for tranquility
A number of factors contribute to problems of growing noise levels One is increasing population, particularly when it leads to increasing urbanization and urban consolidation, because activities associated with urban living generally lead to increased noise levels Another
is the increasing volume of road, rail, and air traffic Some people would add to this list a
diminishing sense of civility and a growing disrespect for the rights of others
We experience noise in a number of ways On some occasions, we can be both the cause and the
victim of noise, such as when we are operating noisy appliances or equipment There are also instances when we experience noise generated by others, just as people experience secondhand smoke In both instances, noise is equally damaging physically Secondhand noise is generally
more troubling, however, because it is put into the environment by others, without our consent
The air into which secondhand noise is emitted and on which it travels is “a commons.” Mf (A) It belongs not to an individual person or a group, but to everyone MH (B) People, business, and organizations, therefore, do not have unlimited rights to broadcast noise as they please, as if the effects of noise were limited only to their private property MM (C) Those that disregard the obligation to not interfere with others’ use and enjoyment of the commons by producing noise
pollution are, in many ways, acting like a bully in a school yard H(D) Although they may do so
unknowingly, they disregard the rights of others and claim for themselves rights that are not theirs
Noise pollution differs from other forms of pollution in a number of ways Noise is transient; once the pollution stops, the environment is free of it This is not the case with air pollution stops, the environment is free of it This is not the case with air pollution, for example We can measure the amount of chemicals and other pollutants introduced into the air Scientists can estimate how much material can be introduced into the air before harm is done The same is true
of water pollution and soil pollution Though we can measure individual sounds that may
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actually damage human hearing, it is difficult to monitor cumulative exposure to noise or to determine just how much noise is too much The definition of noise pollution itself is highly subjective To some people the roar of an engine is satisfying or thrilling; to others it is an annoyance Loud music may be a pleasure or a torment, depending on the listener and the circumstance
The actual loudness of a sound is only one component of the negative effect noise pollution has
on human beings Other factors that have to be considered are the time and place, the duration, the source of the sound, and even the mood of the affected person Most people would not be bothered by the sound of a 21-gun salute on a special occasion On the other hand, the thump- thump of music coming from the apartment downstairs at 2 A.M, even if barely audible, might
be a major source of stress The sound of a neighbor’s lawn mower maybe unobjectionable on a summer afternoon, but if someone is hoping to sleep late on a Saturday morning, the sound of a lawn mower starting up just after sunrise is an irritant
Question 11: The word “routinely” in the passage is closest in meaning to
B accidentally
C recently
D unfortunately
Question 12: The phrase “this list” in the passage refers to a list of
A types of noise pollution
C activities that are associated with life in the city
D methods of transportation
Question 13: In paragraph 4, the author implies that secondhand noise pollution
A is not as damaging physically as noise that one generates oneself
B damages a person’s health as much as secondhand smoke
C makes people both the cause and the victim of noise pollution
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT an example of “a commons” as it is defined by the author in paragraph 5?
A anational park
C the air over a city
D the water supply for a city
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Question 15: In paragraph 5, the author explains the concept of interfering with others’ use and enjoyment of a commons by
A comparing it to another common negative experience
B pointing out ways in which people, business, and organization sometimes interfere with the rights of others
C explaining that sometimes this interference is intention and sometimes unintentional
Question 16: The word “transient” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A irritating
B persistent
D immeasurable
Question 17: The word “thrilling” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A unusual
C irritating
D unexpected
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the negative effects that noise pollution has on people?
A The volume of the sound
B The time when the sound is heard
C The source of the sound
Question 19: In paragraph 7, the author mentions a 21-gun salute as an example of
A a particularly irritating from of noise pollution
B a type of noise pollution that can cause physical damage and fright
D a noise that is much more annoying than soft music
Question 20: Look at the four squares (@) that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to paragraph 5,
“On the contrary, they have an obligation to use the commons in ways that are compatible
with or do not detract from other uses.”
Circle the square (™) that indicates the best place to add the sentence
A-
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VNU=ILEAD VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY HO CHI MINH CITY
B-
C-
D-
LISTENING TEST
Time allowance: approximately 30 minutes
Number of questions: 20 Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your
ability to understand conversations and talks in English There are TWO parts in this section with special directions for each part Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your
work The recording will be played ONCE only
Time allowance: about 30 minutes, including 07 minutes to transfer your answers to your
answer sheet
PART 1: Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions There is one question for each announcement or instruction For each question, choose the right
answer A, B, C or D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen
Now, let’s listen to the example On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello This is the travel agency returning your call You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your
stay at Sunny Hotel Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel,
you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order Let me know if
I can help you with any other information Goodbye
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A Breakfast
B Lunch
C Dinner
D All
The correct answer is A Breakfast Now, let’s begin with the first question
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1 What’s the fare for children under 10?
2 What will be improved?
B Cafeteria
C Computers
D Gas
3 What does the ad emphasize about their food?
A Good price
C Variety
D Nutritious
4 What is the purpose of the speech?
A A poor safety record
C Newly installed equipment
D Anew federal law for safety processes
5 What is the topic of the meeting?
A Anew software
B A review of sales over the year
C A computer industry
6 How often is the introductory class offered?
B Twice a week
C Every other week
D Once a month
7 When was the request for the proposal made?
A January
C April
D June
8 What is the man suggesting?
A Walk towards the post office
C Remain on the bus
D Meet at the restaurant
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VY y _ INSTITUTE FOR LEADERSHIP DEVELOPMENT
VNU=ILEAD VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY HO CHI MINH CITY
PART 2: Questions 9-20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations The conversations will not
be repeated There are four questions for each conversation For each question, write the
correct answer A, B, C or D
QUESTIONS 9-12: Listen to a conversation
9, Which seminar did the woman want to take?
A On Tuesday
B On Wednesday
C On Thursday
D On Friday
10 What is she trying to do?
A Take the seminar although that section is full
C Delay her trip on Friday
D Find the seminar on the internet
11 What does the man tell the woman about the seminar?
A All sections are currently full
C Students usually don’t come to the seminar on time
D The woman should go into the classroom through the side doors
12 What did the man tell about the Friday seminar?
A It’s full
B It’s still empty
C It’s boring
D It’s postponed
QUESTIONS 13-16: Listen to a conversation
13 Where does this conversation most likely take place?
A At arestaurant
B Atakitchen
C Atasnack bar
14 What is the fruit that is on sale?
A Watermelon
15 When will the sale finish?