WRITTEN TEST 4 Time allowed 45 mins Full name Class 11 I PHONETICS (1 m) * Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently 1 A floors B bags C swims D lips 2 A looked B crossed C loved[.]
Full name : WRITTEN TEST Time allowed :45 mins Class: 11 I PHONETICS (1 m) * Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently A floors B bags C swims D lips A looked B crossed C loved D stopped * Choose one word whose stress pattern is different A variety B ability C solidarity D facilities A become B nation C gather D cycling II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: * Choose the one word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases (2 ms) I specially indulge…………some hobbies A at B of C from D in The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied A free B busy C relaxed D comfortable The singer was on the piano by her sister A played B performed C accompanied D helped This is the book you lent me last week A who B when C where D X The film was about John was a doctor A whom B that C whose D who England won the World Cup A It was in 1966 that B It was on 1966 that C It was in 1966 when D It was 1966 in that The Vietnamese participants always take part sports events wit great enthusiasm A at B on C to D in The death of his son was an experience from he never fully recovered A which B when C that D why * Complete the sentences with one appropriate word (1 m) competed place participants taking The Asian Games take There were eleven countries Lewis established a new world Swimming and water skiing are both aquatic record every four years part in the 1st Asian games with a time of 9.86 seconds sports * Give the correct form of the word given at the end of the sentence (1 m) My bother is an accomplished ……………………… (guitar) The athletes …………………………in 38 different sports and won 427 gold medals at the 14 th Asian Games (competition) Jack has a large……………………………of foreign coins (collect) Don is ……………………… in playing football (interest) III READING (1.5 ms) * Read the passage and the tasks: The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions The Far Eastern Championship Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931 Other Asian nations participated after it was organized After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent Many of the new independent Asian countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance should not be shown by violence and should be strengthened by mutual understanding In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Games in London, Indian representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of having discussions about holding the Asian Games They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation A preparatory committee was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation In February, 1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation It was decided to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi the capital of India They added that the Asian Games would be regularly held once every four years Task 1: Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F): (0.5m) _ The text is about the origin of the Asian Games _ The Far Eastern Championship Games had the participation of only four nations: Japan, the Philippines, China and India Task 2: Answer the questions: (1 m) When/ 14th Olympic Games/ take place? → first Asian Games/ hold/1951/ India? → * Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question (1 m) The 15th Asian Games (1) ………from December through December 15, 2006, in Doha, Capital of Qatar More than 10,000 (2) ……… , who (3) ……….45 countries and regions, (4) ………….in 39 sports and 424 events of the Games, the most important event in Asian Some new events such as chess and triathlon were also included in the Games A set up B took part C brought out D took place A athletes B listeners C speakers D referees A symbolized B represented C expressed D typified A set up B took part C brought out D took place IV WRITING (2 ms) The neighbor told them about it (Cleft sentence) ………………………………………………………………………………… You sent me a present Thank you very much for it (Relative clause) → Thank you ……………………………………………………………………… We are coming to stay with Jane this weekend (Cleft sentence) ………………………………………………………………………………… This is the sweater I bought it on Saturday (Omission of relative pronoun) …………………………………………………………………………………… * Make meaningful sentences with the cues given (0.5) My stamp collection/ began/ I/ was/ 11-year-old boy …………………………………………………………………………………………… WRITTEN TEST Time allowed :45 mins Full name : Class: 11 I PHONETICS (1 m) * Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently A admired B looked C missed D hoped A strength B event C athlete D wrestling * Choose one word whose stress pattern is different A official B cycling C become D aquatic A envelope B album C usually D accompany II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: * Choose the one word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases (2 ms) My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play it A well-trained B well-done C well-educated D well-equipped We didn’t like the man…………………… this morning A we met B we met him C which we met D whose we met The hotel has special ……… for disabled athletes A effort B aquatic C facilities D advancing …………… I bought the golden fish A It was from this shop that B I was from this shop where C It was this shop which D It was this shop that The Vietnamese participants took ………….this event with great enthusiasm A held in B part in C take place D go on Ly Duc, a Vietnamese athlete, has won several gold medals in A swimming B bodybuilding C karatedo D weightlifting It was the woman that ……… us English last year A taught B teaches C has taught D had taught The death of his son was an experience from he never fully recovered A which B when C that D why * Complete the sentences with one appropriate word (1 m) gold event medals first six record Swimming; Good evening, well, today’s most important (1) …………….was certainly the women’s 200-metre freestyle The American, Doris Kennedy, was first and got the gold medal She swam the 200 metres in a new world (2)…………………time of minute 58 seconds The USA won two gold (3) …… ………………yesterday, and three the day before, so in the first three days they’ve won (4) …………………… ” gold” * Give the correct form of the word given at the end of the sentence (1 m) I am impressed by your lovely doll…………………… COLLECT Nam felt because he got a bad mark DISPOINT ………………………… is my sister’s favourite sports ATHLETE He is very good at ………………… people singing with his guitar ACCOMPANY III READING Read the passage carefully then circle the correct answers Water is ( ) for life People can live only a few days ( 2) it Yet nearly 25 million people die each year because of it Both industrial nations and developing countries are worried about the ( 3) of water in the world Even though people, animals, agriculture and industry use a lot of water , there is more than enough on the earth Water covers about ( 4) of the earth’s surface However 97.4 percent of it is salt water Three- fourths of the earth’s fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps Most of the water we use ( 5) from rivers, lakes, and the atmosphere 1.A important B useful C necessary D helpful A with B without C for D in A, characteristics B condition C situation D quality A, three-four B three-fourth C three-fours D three-fouths A arrives B comes C goes D gets Read the following passage and choose the best answer: Man cannot exist without air, water and light Many people think that soil is also necessary to man’s existence Without soil there could be no vegetation, no animals and consequently no people However, the soil is being eroded day after day because people use the land without paying attention to the protection of land and the prevention of soil erosion In many rural areas, soil erosion is a major problem which endangers the development of agriculture If there were no air, no water and no light, man A would live on the earth B would survive C would disappear from the earth D could exist on the earth Many people think that soil A is useful for man B is of no importance to man C is unnecessary for man D depends on man’s existence The soil is being eroded day after day because A people always prevent soil erosion B people usually protect the land C people manage to use the land with care D people pay no attention to the protection of land when using it Soil erosion is a major problem in many rural areas because A it can be solved right now B it is dangerous for agriculture C it is the development of agriculture D it is of great use to people The word “major” in line means: A unimportant B smaller C important D less serious IV WRITING Rewrite these sentences as directed (2 ms) My sister got a gift from her uncle last week (Cleft sentence) …………………………………………………………………………… I gave you some money Where is it? (Relative clause) Where is ……………………………………………………………………? I love pop music very much (Cleft sentence) ……………………………………………………………………………… The man worked in the hospital I told you about him (Omission of relative pronoun) …………………………………………………………………………… * Make meaningful sentences with the cues given (0.5) I/ loved/ pictures/ and/ kept them/ carefully/ a book ……………………………………………………………… WRITTEN TEST Time allowed :45 mins Full name : Class: 11 Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others A parks B animals C planets D environments A itched B changed C formed D viewed A measure B instead C feature D already Choose the word that is stressed on the different position from that of the others A beautiful B successful C guitarist D accomplish A survival B pollution C government D material Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions It was a boring speech that I fell asleep A too B very C such D so The woman I was looking smiled A at which B at whom C for whom D at whose When we came to the stadium, the match A already begins B have already begun C had already begun D already began The shop really good meat is on Tran Hung Dao Street A sold B sell C be sold D selling 10 A(n) is a person who sees something and can tell what he or she sees A warden (keeper) B observer C newsreader D witness 11 Many kinds of rare animals are on the verge of _ A disappearance B death C destruction D extinction 12 Peter has left these socks on the bathroom floor, _? A didn’t Peter B hasn’t Peter C hasn’t he D didn’t he 13 John was the last man reached the top of the mountain in the contest held last year A B C D th 14 On 15 October in 2003, China launched its first manned spacecraft into space, wasn’t it? A B C D 15 It is the library _ A from which I often borrow books B that I often borrow books from C where I often borrow books D all are correct 16 The stamp collector only got the stamps and _the envelopes away A collected B threw C gathered D kept 17 The information you told me was so _that it made me _ A surprising/surprised B surprised / surprising C surprising/surprising D surprised/surprised 18 The participants' efforts were much appreciated when they won some gold medals A accepted B encouraged C understood D highly valued 19 My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play A skillful B famous C perfect D modest 20 The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place A impressed B organized C participated D defended 22 "How many times a week you play tennis?""………………." A At the stadiumB At least four times C Not very well D I like it,too Choose the item among A,B,C or D that best answers the question from 31 to 35about the passage Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting and fun And every year, more and more people start a stamp collection (22)…… their own and discover an interest which can last a lifetime Starting your collection is easy (23)…….stamps can be found everywhere Holiday postcards from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (24)………you with stamps from all over the world But once you have started collecting (25)………, you will probably want to join the Stamp Collectors’Club which (26)…….to provide collectors with new Bristish stamps 22 A of B for C from D on 23 A moreover B because C furthermore D addition 24 A export B provide C consider D take 25 A attractive B competitive C great D seriously 26 A own B survive C exists D live * Read the passage and the tasks: (1.5 ms) For centuries, people have been playing kicking games with the ball The games of soccer developed from these early games The England probably gave soccer its name and its rules In European countries, soccer is called football Some people believe that the name “soccer “came from the high socks that the players wear Organized soccer games began in 1863 In soccer, two teams of eleven players try to kick of head into the goal of the other team The goalkeeper, who tries to keep the ball out of the goal, is only player o n the field who can touch the ball with his or her hands The other players must use their feet, heads, and bodies to control the ball Every four years, soccer teams around the world compete for the World Cup The World Cup competition started in 1930 Brazil is the home of many great soccer players , including the most famous player of all, Pele With his fast dazzling speed, Pele played for many years in Brazil and then later in New York People in more than 140 countries around the world play soccer It is delimiting the world’ most popular sport! Answer the questions: (1 m) 31 How often / world Cup/ take place ? → When/ first/ soccer games? → what/ goalkeeper/ responsibility? Rewrite the following sentences as directed Nam has got no money or no car (use tag question) Nam has _, _ he? The couple who live in the house next door are both college professors (reduce relative pronoun) The couple Peter bought these cars in Japan (Use cleft sentence : adv focus) It _ He was the first man who left the burning building (use an infinitive phrase) He _ THE SECOND TERM TEST (2014 – 2015) ENGLISH 11 Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the rest A satisfaction B facsimile C punctuality D spacious A noisy B subscribe C service D graphics Put the following words into the right categories according to their stress pattern A installation B disadvantage C dissatisfied D disappointed A graphics B magazine C original D punctuality Read and then choose the correct option to complete each blank Human beings (5) to protect only the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment We tend to pay more (6) to animals on land than any other large sea animals Environmentalists have not done much enough to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks (7) population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction Sharks are among the oldest creatures on Earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million years The fact that they have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proofs of their efficiency and adaptability to change environments It is time (8) human beings to begin considering the protection of sharks as (9) important part of a program for protection of our natural environment A seem B make C advise D let A pleasure B attention C notice D fun A that B whom C whose D which A for that B when C for which D for A No article B an C the D a Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one 10 Tommy is late Does anybody know why? A Does anybody know what the reason why is Tommy late? B Does anybody know what the reason why Tommy is late? C Does anybody know the reason why is Tommy late? D Does anybody know the reason why Tommy is late? 11 My sister is the only member in my family She holds a Ph.D degree in Physics A My sister is the only member in my family to hold a Ph.D degree in Physics B The only member in my family is my sister, who holds a Ph.D degree in Physics C The only member in my family which holds a Ph.D degree is my sister D My sister, who holds a Ph.D degree in Physics, is the only member in my family 12 Few people know about C.A.Lindburgh He was the first person who flew across the Atlantic Ocean A Few people know about C A Lindburgh, the first person flying across the Atlantic Ocean B Few people know about C A Lindburgh, that was the first person to fly across the Atlantic Ocean C Few people know about C A Lindburgh, who was the first person flown across the Atlantic Ocean D Few people know about C A Lindburgh, who was the first person to fly across the Atlantic Ocean 13 The Mountain Region is in the Great Himalayan Range It makes up the northern part of Nepal A The Mountain Region which makes up the northern part of Nepal is in the Great Himalayan Range B The Mountain Region in the Great Himalayan Range making up the northern part of Nepal C The Great Himalayan Range, which makes up the northern part of Nepal, is the Mountain Region D The northern part of Nepal, made up by the Great Himalayan Range is the Mountain Region 14 This is the best book on the market It was written for university students A This is the best book written for university students, which are on the market B This is the best book to be writing for university students on the market C This is the best book to be written for university students on the market D This is the best book that is on the market, which is written for university students Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentences 15 There are number of things I like to in my free time A leisure B precious C busy D idle 16 My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play A unimpaired B skilled C ill-educated D unqualified 17 Now I can play a few simple tunes A compound B plain C easy D complicated 18 ‘How you I’m Bill Thomson ‘ _’ A Very well Thank you B I’m fifteen years old C I’m fine D How you 19 I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of small fish A limited B excessive C conceited D moderate 20 ‘Thank you very much for the lovely flowers.’ ‘ _.’ A You’re welcome B You like flowers, don’t you? C Yeah, the flowers are nice D It was an excellent choice 21 The singer was on the piano by her sister A played B performed C accompanied D helped 22 The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied A busy B relaxed C comfortable D free 23. _ who was elected the first woman mayor of Chicago in 1979 A It was Jane Byrne B Jane Byrne C That Jane Byrne D When Jane Byrne 24 ‘Would you like a drink ?’ ‘ _’ A Yes, I want to B Yes, please C Thank you I don’t want D No, I won’t 25. that the capital of South Carolina was moved from Charleston to Columbia A In 1790 was B There was in 1790 C In 1790 D It was in 1790 26 The man _ on the chair behind me kept talking during the film, _really annoyed me A having sat/ that B sitting/ which C to sit/ what D to be sitting/ who 27 ‘Thank you very much.’ ‘ _’ A Yes, of course B I like it a lot C You’re alright D You’re welcome 208 He advised me to practise playing the guitar regularly A frequently B commonly C freely D completely 29 Neil Armstrong was the first person _ foot on the moon A set B setting C to set D who was set 30 In the novel by Peter, the film is based, the main character is a teenager A on that B who C on which D which 31 Who was the first person _ the South Pole? A reached B to reach C who reaches D had reached 32 It is in Quebec _ French is used as an official language A which B where C in where D that 33 Mrs White, taught me English years ago, is a good teacher A who B that C whom D whose 34 There’s the woman who she told me about the handbag A B C D 35 It was many students some of who were playing in the schoolyard A B C D Read the passage and choose the correct answers: The scarcity of tigers and African elephants is more and more serious They are endangered because poachers hunt them in order to sell tiger pelts and elephant ivory At least 4,000 elephants are killed each year in order to meet the global demand for ivory, which is used to make carvings, jewelry and other products although it is illegal to sell ivory since 1989 anywhere “Americans should be aware that there is still a problem with elephant poaching and loss to the illegal ivory trade,” Ginette Hemley, Fund’s vice president for species conservation, told The Washington Post in September And so our message is “Don’t buy it, and don’t take that chance” A Wildlife Fund report states that the United States seized 8,300 illegal ivory items between 1995 and 2002 Each week there are about 1,000 ivory auctions, the report said As for tigers, their parts are used in traditional Chinese medicine Tiger bones are used as a pain reliever in traditional medicine Even tiger’s whiskers are sold because some people in Asia think they are a good-luck charm – like a rabbit’s foot in the United States “ Part of our job is education,” said Professor Dillon “ The other part is law enforcement So we have more than one strategy.” 36 Hunters poach tigers for their _ A ivory B pelts C carving D jewelry 37 Which sentence is NOT true A Elephants are hunted for their ivory B It is legal to sell ivory everywhere C There are about 4,000 elephants killed each year D Elephant ivory is used to made jewelry 38 The word it in line referred to _ A an elephant B a tiger C tiger pelts D elephant ivory 39 The Chinese use parts of the tiger as _ A carving B jewelry C decoration D medicine 40 According to Professor Dillon, _ A there is only one strategy to solve the problem B it is education that can help to solve the problem C we need both education and law enforcement to solve the problem D only law enforcement can help to solve the problem THE SECOND TERM TEST (2014 – 2015) ENGLISH 11 Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the rest 1: 2: A cooked A decisions B hatred B trends C jumped C markets D talked D offers Read the passage and choose the correct answers: Sometimes forest fires have caused serious damage to both private and public property They destroy many houses and cause deaths, particularly when they have reached villages which are close to the forests It is more dangerous if a destructive fire burns away plants and trees that prevent erosion If heavy rains occur after such a fire, landslides, ash flows, and flash floods can occur This can result in property damage in the immediate fire area, and can affect the water quality of streams, rivers and lakes Wind sometimes makes contributions to forest fires In southern California, under the influence of Santa Ana winds, fires could move at tremendous speeds, up to 40 miles (60 km) in a single day, consuming up to 1,000 acres (4 km2) per hour 3: Forest fires _ A even cause deaths B cannot cause deaths C are not related to wind D no harm to land 4: Forest fires A are not as dangerous as we think B can cause erosion C cannot cause damage to property D are not close to any village 5: Which sentence is not true? A Plants and trees can prevent erosion B Floods never occur after a forest fire C California has ever experienced a big forest fire D There are some villages which are next to forests 6: What is the main idea of the text? A Houses, deaths and forest fires B Landslides and forest fires C Fires in Southern California D Forest fire destruction 7: may happen after a forest fire A Wind B Water purity C Nothing D Water pollution Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one 8: The students are happy They won the poetry contest A The students won the poetry contest are happy B The students which won the poetry contest are happy C The students who won the poetry contest are happy D The students who won the poetry contest they are happy 9: reading / help / widen my knowledge / relax / my free time A It is reading that helps me widen my knowledge and relax in my free time B Reading that helps me widen my knowledge and relax in my free time C It is reading helps me widen my knowledge and relax in my free time D Reading it helps me widen my knowledge and relax in my free time 10: we / plant trees / protect forests /cut A We need to plant trees and protect forests from being cut B We plant trees and protecting forests from being cut C We should plant trees and protecting forests cutting D We need planting trees and protect forests cutting 11 The last person that left here yesterday was Minh A.The last person leaving here yesterday was Minh B The last person to leave here yesterday was Minh C The last person who leaving here yesterday was Minh D.The last person who leave here yesterday was Minh 12 There are no parks or gardens in the city centre A It is in the city centre that there were no parks or gardens.B It is in the city centre that there are no parks or gardens C It was in the city centre that there are no parks or gardens D It was parks and gardens that no in the city centre Put the following words into the right categories according to their stress pattern 13: 14: A condition A environment B pollutant B advantage C survival C potential D animal D restaurant Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentences 15: Protecting the environment is the duty of people live anywhere in the world A B C D 16: It was nice to see all his family, all of who I have met before A B C D 17: _ is a kind of energy formed from the remains of dead plants and animals A Geothermal B Nuclear power C Solar energy D Fossil fuel 18: The number of competitors who take part in the Olympic Games increases every year A join B happen C take place D accept 19: The Asian Games are _ every four years in different Asian countries A taken place B held C happened D hold 20: I was talking to a businessman _ works with my father A Þ B who C which D when 21: Either I or they _ enjoying the party now A are B was C were D is 22: Jim _ to his girlfriend on the phone when I _ in A talked, came B talked, was coming C was talking, was coming D was talking, came 23: Neither I nor she _ seen the film before A were B has C was D have 24: Be careful _ these chemicals, they may harm _ your health A with-to B of-to C Þ – for D with – for 25: The woman next door, to _ I talked last week, is moving next month A whom B her C who D that 26: Have you seen the place _ the graduation ceremony will be held? A where B in that C which D in where that 27: The Earth is the only _ having life in the solar system A constellation B star C comet D planet 28: Instead of _ about the good news, Hilary seemed to be indifferent A to be excited B being exciting C to excite D being excited 29: When I rang, Jim _ A had already left B already left C is already leaving D has already left 30: _ were punished as they were late A Both Tom and Ann B All of Tom and Ann C Neither Tom nor Ann D Either Tom or Ann 31: What I like about you is your enthusiasm for work A desire B appreciation C concentration D eagerness 32: Vietnam has established many national parks to protect wildlife A found B maintained C set up D preserved 33: In my hometown, there is a park _ has a beautiful lake A in which B in where C which D where 34: My other pursuits include listening to music, reading and gardening A chases B occupations C specialities D hobbies 35: There are several sophisticated hobbies that require hobbyists a lot of time and money A complex B simple C easy D pleasant Read the test and choose the correct option to fill in the gaps The first stamp (36) the world was an English stamp It was made in 1840 Before that time people paid money (37) the postman for every letter they received and the postman didn't give letters to anybody (38) didn't pay him An English teacher (39) name is Rowland Hill thought much about it One day he said that people who wrote the letters must pay for them and not the (40) He spoke about to people in the government Soon all the post offices began to sell little pieces of paper with a stamp on them 36: A of B in C on D beyond 37: 38: 39: 40: A for A whom A which A postmen B to B whose B whom B writers C Þ C who C that C receivers 10 D at D which D whose D getters C It might cause considerable damage D It would not survive its atmospheric descent 39 Which of the following statements is NOT true? A The pieces would be concentrated in one area B The Skylab would not completely bum before reentry C There could be considerable property damage D Some 400 to 500 pieces might survive 40 In this passage, the word "concern" most nearly means A worry B annoyance C damage D reentry THE SECOND TERM TEST (2014 – 2015) ENGLISH 11 PHONETICS I Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words 1) A stones B learns C phones D tense 2) A lifted B lasted C happened D decided 3) A speed C person C temperature D psychology II Circle the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words 4) A uncertain B technical C attention D attraction 5) A psychology B cosmonaut C accident D national 6) A uncertainty B satisfaction C psychology D approximate B VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR * Circle the best answer for each sentence 7) Many spacemen could never get back to the Earth because of accidents A tragedy B tragic C tragically D tragedies 8) He finds it difficult for him to recover from his son’s A die B dead C deadly D death 9) He failed again, which was a/an disappointment A enormous B big C wide D large 10) The flight will take approximately three weeks The word “approximately” is closest in meaning to “ ” A closely B exactly C about D precisely 11) How long did Yuri Gagarin’s trip into space ? Only 180 minutes A lengthen B last C late D strengthen 12) When astronaut travels into space, if a technical failure happens, he can never get back to Earth A an / the B Þ / an C an / Þ D the / Þ 13) Neil Armstrong was the first man to set foot on moon A a B an C the D Þ 14) Everybody congratulated the astronauts their successful trip into space A on B for C of D in 15) Yuri Gagarin became the first man to travel into space April 12 th, 1961 A at B on C in` D from 16) A / an is a person who is trained for traveling in a spacecraft A astronaut B scientist C engineer D technician 17) When spacemen travel into space they have to face enormous because they not know what may happen A certainties B uncertainties C possibilities D precisions 18) Lisa’s been able to play the flute since she was six, ? A can’t she B isn’t she C wasn’t he D hasn’t she 19) Neil seemed to have a good time at the party, ? A hadn’t he B had he C did he D didn’t he 20) I really admire him, for his A succeed B success C successful D successfully 21) She had done more work in one day than her husband in three days A B could C may D done 22) Jenny leave the hospital only fours days after the operation A was able to B could C can D will be able to 23 Despite the bad weather, he get to the airport in time A could B couldn’t C was able to D almost 24) You’re Cynthia, you? A aren’t B are C didn’t D were 25) She spoke in a very low voice, but I can understand what she said A B C D Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one 26 The best place in which we can practise English is the staff-room A The best place is the staff-room for practising English B The best place is the staff-room to practise English C The best place for practising English us is the staff-room 19 D The best place for us to practise English is the staff-room 27 Columbus sailed to America in 1492 A That was in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America B In 1492 that Columbus sailed to America C It was in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America D It is in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America 28 The book is very expensive My father is interested in it A The book in which my father is interested is very expensive B The book which in my father is interested is very expensive C The book which my father is interested is very expensive D The book in that my father is interested is very expensive 29 People say that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed A It was said that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed B Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to be destroyed C Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world are said to have been destroyed D Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to have destroyed 30, Although he is intelligent, he doesn’t well at school A In spite of his intelligence, he doesn’t well at school B In spite of he is intelligent, he doesn’t well at school C Despite of being intelligent, he doesn’t well at school D Be intelligent, he doesn’t well at school Choose the word or phrase -a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following passage The accumulation of book knowledge is one part of school education but this kind of learning can be and often is carried to (31) _ in many countries so that no time for other interests IS available to young people Not only must they attend school (32) _ five-hour periods on six days of the week, studying possibly as many as thirteen different subjects, but in addition they may even go to afternoon institutes for further instruction They have almost no chance of taking (33) _ any of their own hobbies or becoming familiar with the plants and (34) _ life of the countryside except during their summer holidays Early youth should be a time of exploration and adventure, of reading books for (35) _ as well as study, of freedom to enjoy life before the responsibilities of working for a living and raising a family put an end to study, to freedom and only too often to carefree enjoyment 31 a extremity b excess c limits d boundary 32 a during b for c throughout d in 33 a on b up c back d over 34 a untamed b original c wild d natural 35 a pleasure b amusement c joy d entertainment Reading the passage and the tasks that follow Anyone who thinks that bats are dangerous pets is wrong in most cases In fact, most species of bats are helpful to human beings Sixty to seventy percent of bat species eat insects These bats will eat anything that they find as they fly through the air at night Some people even try to attract bats to their property to help control mosquitoes Other bats are necessary to the pollination of species of plants Unfortunately, bats are frightening to anyone who believes in the old stories of vampire bats In reality, only three species of bats feed on blood, usually only from small animals It is true, however, that vampire bats can spread diseases such as rabies to other species Even though many people will continue to dislike and fear bats, it is important to remember that they are an important part of the ecology, especially, in rainforests Anything that endangers to bats in these areas will also affect the regions’ fragile ecosystems Anyone who is interested in learning more about bats can visit his or her local library 36 What people often think about bats? A Bats are dangerous pets B Bats are helpful pets C Bats are wild pets D Bats are useful pets 37 In fact, most species of bats are to human beings A dangerous B helpful C wild D useful 38 How many percent of bat species eat insects? A fifty percent B sixty percent C seventy percent D sixty to seventy percent 39 When bats look for their food? A at noon B at night C in the morning D in the afternoon 40 Why some people try to attract bats to their property? A to catch them B to help control mosquitoes 20 ... stamp collection/ began/ I/ was/ 11 -year-old boy …………………………………………………………………………………………… WRITTEN TEST Time allowed :45 mins Full name : Class: 11 I PHONETICS (1 m) * Choose one word whose underlined... TERM TEST (2 014 – 2 015 ) ENGLISH 11 Choose the best answer (3ms) It was ……… 19 86 to 19 92 that the Olympics were held every four years, except in 19 16 and 19 40 and 19 44 A since B in C from D on How... man to travel into space April 12 th, 19 61 A at B on C in` D from 16 ) A / an is a person who is trained for traveling in a spacecraft A astronaut B scientist C engineer D technician 17 ) When