Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Hữu Thọ

Gross Domestic Product Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26-35 According to some[r]

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

1 Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part

Question 1: Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry

A remark B praise C trick D game

Question 2: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was

A hazardous B ludicrous C facetious D marvelous

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 3: I used my calculator; otherwise it _ longer

A will take B would take C took D would have taken

Question 4: The capacity for growth is inherent all people

A from B in C at D on

Question 5: Not only in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well

A is studied human behavior

B human behavior

C is human behavior studied

D human behavior studied

Question 6: I had to look up the number in the telephone

A directors B directly C direction D directory

Question 7: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but I enjoyed it

A large and by B by and large C big and large D far and large

Question 8: These days almost everybody _ the dangers of smoking

A is aware about B know of C is aware of D are aware of

Question 9: A: “ ?”

– B: “Yes I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy”

A Can you help me B Do you like flowers

C Can I help you D What do you like

Question 10: Only if I had known the difference the more expensive car

A would I bought B would I have bought

C would I buy D I would have bought

Question 11: How many musical notes of the 11,000 tones that the human ear can distinguish

in the musical scale?

A is it B it is C are there D there are

Question 12: You to our conversation It was private

A haven’t been listening

B shouldn’t have been listening

C couldn’t have been listening

D hadn’t been listening

Question 13: The bank is on side of the street

A another B other C the other D the next

Question 14: The smaller the room is, furniture it needs

A less B little C the less D the fewer

Question 15: What he says makes no _ to me

A reason B truth C sense D matter

Question 16: In the 1960s was concerned about pollution

A hardly everyone B hardly anyone

C rarely anyone D rarely everyone

Question 17: I hope I haven’t go luggage

A so many B so much C too much D too many

Question 18: ghost exists in the world That’s your illusion

A No such a thing B No such a thing as a

C No such thing as a D No such thing as

Question 19: Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantage over made of natural

A one B the one C that D what

Question 20: I am _ of the two children in our family

A the tallest B the taller C tall D taller

Question 21: He impressed his mind the words his father said to him that day

A in B on C at D of

Question 22: “I think golf really great” “ ”

A Do you? I think it’s boring B Neither do I

C Almost everyday D Don’t you believe so

Question 23: “ _” “Oh, but it’s boring”

A Would you prefer news to films?

B I often watch the news at night

C Don’t you like the news

D I think you should watch the news

Question 24: Bit by bit, a child makes the necessary changes to make his language _

A as other people B as other people’s

C like other people D like other people’s

Question 25: GDP is the abbreviation for “ _”

A Growth Domestic Products

B Global Domestic Products

C General Domestic Productivity

D Gross Domestic Product

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26-35

According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much larger Soon after that, he invented a device that he called

a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to the viewing lens at the other end of the tube In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his own version

of the device In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope

When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts, the light However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated into colors This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them This sometimes interfered with viewing

He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector

Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and mountains far from city lights The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin Another telescope stands on Mount Palomar in California This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use

a single large mirror to collect the light Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors

Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are different in important ways First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio waves Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dished Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in space

Question 26: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A It was bought by children

B It was invented in America

C It was sold by a shop owner

D It was invented by accident

Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey?

A He owned a shop

B He was a Dutch

C He sold his invention in 1608

D He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop

Question 28: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?

A in 1611 B in 1610 C in 1608 D in 1600

Question 29: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?

A It had many problems

B It refracted the light

C It was called a refractor

D It had a curved mirror

Question 30: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?

A He called it reflector

B He sent it back to Galileo

C He improved it

D He stopped using it after his notice

Question 31: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?

A in the 17th century B in the 18 th century

C in the 16th century D in the 15th century

Question 32: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?

A in Wisconsin B in California

C in Hawaii D in Caucasus Mountains

Question 33: Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?

A Taking photographs of visible objects

B Allowing a collection of data from outer space

C Collecting radio waves

D Collecting light waves

Question 34: Which of the following True about optical and radio telescope?

A They use similar ways to collect data

B They contain at least a mirror

C They look different

D They have similar appearance

Question 35: How many types of telescope are mentioned in the passage?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36-45

The miracle therapy of blood transfusion was invented by and English doctor, James Blundell In

1818, he performed the first transfusion, on a patient said to be incurable Using a syringe, he successfully injected blood taken from one of his students In 1829, he saved a woman suffering from a severe hemorrhage About 1900 Dr Karl Landsteiner of Vienna found that some people’s

blood was not compatible with others’ and that these blood variations could be classified into

groups When portable transfusion apparatus was invented, direct transfusion between persons

of the same blood type could be performed on the battlefield In 1914 the discovery of anticoagulants made possible the storage of the blood future use

But to save lives, the right blood had to be in the right place at the right time The first blood service was established by the British Red Cross in 1921 During the War World II, Red Cross blood banks saved countless lives Now the Red Cross engages in transfusion work in sixty-eight

countries It recruits donors, collects, stores, and distributes blood, determines blood groups and

prepares blood derivatives

Question 36: In his first blood transfusion the donor was _

A Dr James Blundell

B a laboratory animal

C a student

D a Red Cross volunteer

Question 37: The substance used in this transfusion was _

C the Red Cross

D a person not identified in the article

Question 41: The invention made it possible to

A give any type of blood to any person

B save lives right on the battlefield

C prepare blood derivations

D store blood for emergencies

Question 42: Blood must be classified into groups because

A some types will not mix

B some people have blue blood

C disease attacks certain groups

D the donor’s age makes a difference

Question 43: The first Red Cross blood bank was established in _

A 1829 B 1900 C 1914 D 1921

Question 44: The Red Cross’s role in transfusion service is _

A storage and distribution

B laboratory testing

C recruiting of volunteers

D all of the above

Question 45: The word “it” in the last sentence refers to _

A The Red Cross

B The British Red Cross

Question 48: A goalie B archive C signal D advertisement

Question 49: A trustworthy B theory C theses D width

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 50: Is it important that the secretary finishes the typing today

A Is it B that C finishes D typing

Question 51: Most country music songs are deeply personal and deal with themes of love, lonely, and separation

A country music B deeply personal C deal with D lonely

Question 52: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators driven

by steam turbines

A All almost B industrial use C from D driven by

Question 53: If a glass lizard loses its tails, a new one grows to replace it

A If B tails C new one D to replace it

Question 54: Viet Nam Airlines regrets informing passengers that flight VN 251 to Hanoi

is postponed due to bad weather

A informing B to C postponed D due to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 55 – 64

We are using up the world’s petroleum We use (55) _ in our cars and to heat our building in winter

Farmers use petrochemicals to (56) _ the soil rich They use them to kill insects (57) _ plants These chemicals go (58) _ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it Winds carry this (59) _ air to other countries and other continents

Poor farmers use the same land over and (60) The land needs a rest so it will be better next year However the farmers must have food this year Poor people cut down forests (61) _ firewood In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (62) desert Poor people can’t save the environment for the (63) _

This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world It is a problem for all humans The people and the nations of the world must work together to (64) _ the world’s resources

Question 55: A it B them C that D those

Question 56: A enrich B change C make D let

Question 57: A eat B eaten C eating D ate

Question 58: A to B toward C at D into

Question 59: A pollute B polluting C polluted D pollution

Question 60: A over B again C repeated D repeating

Question 61: A of B for C with D at

Question 62: A gets B changes C turns D comes

Question 63: A future B time C times D period

Question 64: A recycle B preserve C keep D use

2 Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 1 Only aggressive species of small animal life are likely to survive in the rough waters

nears shallow coral reefs

B piece by piece

C monthly payment

D cash and carry

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 3 to 7

Polar bears are in danger of dying out Unlike some other endangered animals, it's not hunters that are the problem, it's climate change Since 1979, the ice cap at the Arctic Circle where the

polar bears has reduced in size (3) _ about 30 per cent The temperature in the Arctic has slowly been rising and this is (4) _ the sea ice to melt, endangering the polar bears'

home The polar bears' main sources of food are the different types of seals found in the Arctic

They catch them by waiting next to the air holes seals have made in the ice (5) _ the

bears are very strong swimmers, they could never catch seals in water This means that the bears really do rely on the ice to hunt

Polar bears also need sea ice to travel They can cover a huge territory and often swim from one

part of the ice to another They have been (6) _ to swim up to 100 km, but when there

is less ice, they may have to swim further and this can (7) _ fatal to the bears A number

of bears have drown in the last few years and scientists believe that it is because they were not able to reach more ice before they became too tired and couldn't swim any further

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 8 A houses B rises C horses D chooses

Question 9 A except B excel C excess D exhaust

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

In the American colonies there was little money England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place

of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies

During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period

By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was in a state of total disarray To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money The individual states could no longer have their own money supply A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one

Question 10 The passage mainly discusses

A the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries

B American money from past to present

C the English monetary policies in colonial America

D the effect of the Revolution on American money

Question 11 The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was

A scarce freely by the colonists

B coined freely by the colonists

C used extensively for trade

D supplied by England

Question 12 The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins

A continuously from the inception of the colony

B for a short time during one year

C from 1652 until the Revolutionary War

D throughout the seventeenth century

Question 13 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money

during the colonial period?

A Tobacco

B Cotton

C Wampum

D Beaver furs

Question 14 According to the passage, what happened to the American monetary system during

the Revolutionary War?

A The Continental Congress issued gold and silver coins

B American money replaced trade in goods and foreign coins

C Individual states were not allowed to issue money

D So much paper money was circulated that it lost its value

Question 15 How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?

A Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money

B The dollar was made the official currency of the U.S

C The U.S officially went on a bimetallic monetary system

D Only the U.S Congress could issue money

Question 16 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic

monetary system?

A Gold could be exchanged for silver at a rate of 16 to 1

B It was established in 1792

C The monetary system was based on two metals

D Either gold or silver could be used as official money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response

to each of the following exchanges

Question 17 Maria: "It was very kind of you to help me out, John." – John: “ _.”

A You can say that again

B I'm glad you like it

C That was the least I could do

D Thanks a million

Question 18 Irene: "Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?" - Frank: " _."

A I'm sorry I don't know that

B Not at all Go ahead

C Not so bad And you?

D That would be nice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each

of the following questions

Question 19 It is very difficult to _ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language

Question 21 Applications _in after 30 April will not be considered

A send B that is sent

C sent D which sent

Question 22 Only three of the students in my class are girls; are all boys

A the others B others

C other students D the other

Question 23 Tom _things round the house, which is annoying

A always leaves B is leaving

C has always left D is always leaving

Question 24 More than ten victims missing in the storm last week

A are reported to have been

Question 26 Oil is essential for _ manufacture of plastics

A the - the B the - ø

C ø - ø D a - the

Question 27 The book would have been perfect ending

A hadn't it been for

B had it not been for

C it hadn't been for

D it had not been for

Question 28 The teacher said that I would be able to speak English fluently six months

C takes off D picks up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 31 It is (A) primary education that (B) establishes foundations in science, geography, history, or (C) other social sciences (D) for young students

Question 32 Manufacturers may use (A) food additives for preserving (B), to color, to flavor, or

to fortify (C) foods (D)

Question 33 Approximately (A) 80 percent of (B) farm income in Utah it is derived (C) from livestock and livestock products (D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 34 A information B development C psychology D activity

Question 35 A machine B office C fiction D expert

Mark the letter Ar B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest

in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 36 If it hadn't been for my father's encouragement, I would never have become a chef

A If my father hadn't been courageous, I wouldn't have become a chef

B It was my father who encouraged me to become a chef

C If my father had encouraged me, I would never have become a chef

D My father didn't encourage me to become a chef

Question 37 He cannot afford a new computer

A The new computer is so expensive but he can buy it

B Therefore, he would buy a new computer

C So, he would buy a new computer

D The new computer is so expensive that he cannot buy it

Question 38 It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement

A Without your assistance, we could get achievement

B Your assistance discouraged us from get achievement

C But for your assistance, we could not have got achievement

D If you assisted us, we could not get achievement

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, the Apollo 11 astronauts made their historic landing

on the surface of the Moon This momentous trip for humanity also provided scientists with an abundance of material for study; from rock and soil samples brought back from the Moon, scientists have been able to determine much about the composition of the Moon (as well as to draw) inferences about the development of the Moon from its composition

The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which were probably ground from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon The bits

of glass are spherical in shape and constitute approximately half of the Moon soil Scientists found

no trace of animal or plant life in this soil

In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the surface of the

Moon: Basalt and breccia Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common to the Earth

Since basalt is formed under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this type of rock is an indication that the temperature of the Moon was once extremely hot Breccia, the other kind of rock brought back by the astronauts, was formed during the impact of falling objects on the

surface of the Moon It consists of small pieces of rock compressed together by the force of

impact Gases such as hydrogen and helium were found in some of the rocks, and scientists believe that these gases were carried to the Moon by the solar wind, the streams of gases that

are constantly emitted by the Sun

Question 39 It is implied in the passage that scientists believe that the gases found in the Moon

rocks

A were not originally from the Moon

B caused the Moon's temperature to rise

C traveled from the Moon to the Sun

D were created inside the rocks

Question 40 What does the word “It” refers to?

A the impact B the surface

C breccia D the Moon

Question 41 The author's purpose in this passage is to

A demonstrate the difference between basalt and breccia

B explain some of the things learned from space flights

C describe some rock and soil samples

D propose a new theory about the creation of the Moon

Question 42 According to the passage, what does Moon soil consist of?

A Large chunks of volcanic lava

B Streams of gases

C Tiny pieces of stones and glass

D Hydrogen and helium

Question 43 The word 'emitted' in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A vaporized B sent out

C separated D set off

Question 44 According to the passage, breccia was formed

A from volcanic lava

B when objects struck the Moon

C when streams of gases hit the surface of the Moon

D from the interaction of helium and hydrogen

Question 45 What is the subject of this passage?

A The Apollo astronauts

B Basalt and breccia

C What the Moon is made of

D Soil on the Moon

Question 46 Which of the following was NOT brought back to the Earth by the astronauts?

A Soil B Breccia

C Plant life D Basalt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 47 This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news

Question 49 The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room He opened the window

A The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room

B The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window

C Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air

D The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window

Question 50 Mr Smith is very interested in our plan I spoke to him on the phone last night

A Mr Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan

B Mr Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night

C Mr Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan

D Mr Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 03

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

In 1972 a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and

Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978 They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries The National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves

Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea Others range from

the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such

as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity

Question 1 What does the passage mainly discuss?

A Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

B Various marine conservation programs

C International agreements on coastal protection

D Similarities between land and sea protected environments

Question 2 The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to ……

A managed B recognized

C opposed D justified

Question 3 The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph

2 as an example of a sanctuary that …

A is not well known

B covers a large area

C is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary

D was not originally proposed for sanctuary status

Question 4 According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program

established?

A Before 1972

B After 1987

C One hundred years before national parks were established

D One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

Question 5 According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National

Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT …

A the discovery of several new marine organisms

B the preservation of connections between individual marine species

C the protection of coastal habitats

D the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

Question 6 The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A depth B landmass

C warm habitat D outer edge

Question 7 The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside

the United States?

A Limitations in financial support

B The use of marine species as food

C Variability of the climate

C had D has had

A attending B attended

C to attend D to have attended

Question 10 I think it’s … to take a few more pictures

A enough light B lightly enough

C light enough D enough as light

Question 11 Flower oils are … of the ingredients used in making perfume

A among expensive

B among the most expensive

C being most expensive

D expensive

Question 12 ….I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it

A because B Only if

C Even though D Provided that

Question 13 Ann has a lot of books, …… she has never read

A most of that

B most of these

C most of which

D which most of them

Question 14 My first school day was a … event in my life

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response

to complete each of the following exchanges

Question 20 -“ Would you mind lending me you bike?” – “ ……”

A Yes Here it is

B Not at all

C Great

D Yes, let’s

Question 21 Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.” Judy: “…… ”

A With all my heart

In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind These were predominantly locally available supplies By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily

accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy In 1910,

natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration

in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene

By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent

of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced

Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale

extractions are presently prohibitive Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in

Alberta and Utah is complex Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for

a large-scale removal of the material However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed

as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive

Question 22 What is the main topic of the passage?

A Application of various fuels

B Natural resources and fossil fuels

C A history of energy use

D A historical review of energy rates

Question 23 It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

A coal mining was essential for primitive peoples

B the Greeks used coal in industrial productions

C the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process

D the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental

Question 24 The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were

A used for commercial purposes

B used in various combination

C not derived from mineral deposits

D it could be converted to automobile fuel

Question 25 The phrase “the latter” refers to

A wood B coal

C most regions D climate zones

Question 26 According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?

A it was a concentrated source of energy

B it was lighter and cheaper than coal

C it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution

D it could be converted to automobile fuel

Question 27 It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was

obtained primarily from

A Fossil fuels

B Nuclear fission

C Hydraulic and solar sources

D Burning biomass

Question 28 The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently

A being used for consumption

B available in few locations

C being explored

D examined on a large scale

Question 29 The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to

A prohibited B provided

C too expensive D too expedient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

we cannot (C) count them (D)

Question 33 The nitrogen (A) makes up over (B) 78 percent of (C) the Earth’s atmosphere, the

gaseous mass surrounding (D) the planet

Question 34 Pateurization is the process of the heating (A) milk to destroy (B) caused (C) organisms and bacteria (D)

disease-Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the followinging questions

Question 35 The soccer team knew they lost the match They soon started to blame each other

A Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well

B No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the

match

C As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match

D Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other

Question 36 We have been friends for years It is quite easy to share secrets between us

A Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets

B We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends for years

C We have been friends so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us

D Having been friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention

of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house If boring and repetitive factory work could be (37) by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?

For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up against a major difficulty That is, housework is actually very complex

It has never been one job it has always been many A factor robot (38) one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else It doesn’t run the whole factory A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (39) of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (40) all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs (41) , there have been some developments